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113 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following regions has the greatest distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in the world?
A. South and Southeast Asia B. Eastern Europe and Central Asia C. North America D. sub-Saharan Africa E. Latin America |
D. sub-Saharan Africa
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During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by?
A. the Western blot test. B. detecting antibodies against HIV. C. detecting viral RNA. D. counting CD8+ T cells. E. counting CD4+ T cells. |
C. detecting viral RNA.
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The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection?
A. asymptomatic phase B. phase 3 C. phase 1 D. phase 2 E. initial phase |
B. phase 3 |
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Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?
A. Cells are killed. B. Immune complexes form. C. Mediate by T cells. D. Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens. E. Antibodies are not made. |
D. Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.
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All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT?
A. they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation. B. reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells. C. they can be used to diagnose various diseases. D. they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes. E. they can detect antibodies but not antigens. |
E. they can detect antibodies but not antigens.
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Which of the following best describes graft-versus-host disease?
A. Immune cells attack transplanted tissue in a privileged site. B. A tissue transplant is rejected because the host's T cytotoxic cells are activated and kill the transplanted tissue. C. Immune cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the cells of the host. D. The cells of a host reject transplanted bone marrow. |
C. Immune cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the cells of the host.
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Which of the following correctly lists the current distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in order of decreasing prevalence?
A. sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America, Western Europe, Australia / New Zealand B. sub-Saharan Africa, Australia / New Zealand, Western Europe, Latin America C. Latin America, sub-Saharan Africa, Western Europe, Australia / New Zealand D. sub-Saharan Africa, Western Europe, Latin America, Australia / New Zealand |
A. sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America, Western Europe, Australia / New Zealand
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Which statement regarding the infectiveness and pathogenicity of HIV is FALSE?
A. The ability of the HIV to remain as a provirus shelters it from the immune system. B. Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on the glycoprotein spike (gp120) combining with the CD4+ receptor. C. Some cells that do not carry the CD4 molecule can become infected with HIV. D. During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses. |
D. During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses.
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Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on?
A. gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5. B. gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor. C. gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor. D. CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor. |
B. gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.
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Which of the following does histamine NOT directly cause?
A. smooth muscle contraction B. anaphylactic shock C. vasodilation D. increased vascular permeability |
B. anaphylactic shock
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Which of the following would NOT be an example of a common allergen?
A. Peanuts B. Pollen C. Dust mites D. hay fever |
D. hay fever |
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A patient enters the emergency room with itchy, swollen hives. This is an example of a ___________ allergic response called __________.
A. localized; asthma B. localized; urticaria C. localized; anaphylaxis D. systemic; urticaria |
B. localized; urticaria
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Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of?
A. IgD and IgE complexes in joints. B. IgG and IgA complexes in joints. C. complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints. D. complement in joints. |
C. complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.
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Assuming Rh compatibility is present, individuals with which of the following blood types would be able to receive donor blood from any of the four blood types (A, B, AB, and O)?
A. O B. A C. AB D. B |
C. AB |
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Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible?
A. xenotransplant B. isograft C. allograft D. autograft |
A. xenotransplant |
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Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause?
A. immunologic surveillance. B. immunologic enhancement. C. immunotherapy. D. immunosuppression. |
D. immunosuppression.
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A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with?
A. CTLs and activated macrophages. B. CTLs. C. CD+ T cells. D. activated macrophages. |
A. CTLs and activated macrophages.
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Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is?
A. homosexual intercourse B. nosocomial C. blood transfusions D. heterosexual intercourse |
D. heterosexual intercourse
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Which of the following is FALSE concerning type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reactions?
A. IgE binds to mast cells or basophils. B. IgM and IgG antibodies bind to antigens on foreign cells. C. They are responsible for transfusion reactions. D. Macrophage activity may lead to additional cellular damage. |
A. IgE binds to mast cells or basophils.
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Which type of hypersensitivity is allergic contact dermatitis?
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
D. Type IV |
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Which of the following is true concerning systemic anaphylaxis?
A. Asthma is a type of systemic anaphylaxis. B. Injected antigens combine with IgE antibodies on the surface of certain cells, causing them to release histamines and other inflammatory mediators. C. Anaphylactic shock results from an increase in blood pressure, which is caused by blood vessel constriction. D. Systemic anaphylaxis frequently occurs as a result of exposure to inhaled allergens. |
B. Injected antigens combine with IgE antibodies on the surface of certain cells, causing them to release histamines and other inflammatory mediators.
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Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n)?
A. bone marrow transplant. B. skin graft. C. blood transfusion. D. Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus. |
A. bone marrow transplant.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Antibodies attach to receptors on thyroid gland cells. B. Antibodies coat acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions. C. T cytotoxic cells attack joint tissue. D. Immune complexes of IgM, IgG, and complement are involved. |
D. Immune complexes of IgM, IgG, and complement are involved.
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Which of the following is a xenotransplantation product?
A. transplantation of tissue from one area on a person's body to another B. transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her older brother C. transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her twin sister D. the replacement of a human's heart valve with a pig's heart valve |
D. the replacement of a human's heart valve with a pig's heart valve
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Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following EXCEPT?
A. DiGeorge syndrome. B. autoimmune diseases. c. cyclosporine. D. Hodgkin's disease. |
B. autoimmune diseases.
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All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT?
A. there is no known animal model of natural immunity for HIV infection. B. vaccines are not effective against viral infections. C. small, inexpensive animals which could be used for HIV vaccine research are not available. D. HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be effective to treat the world-wide pandemic. |
B. vaccines are not effective against viral infections.
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Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?
A. There may be persistent yeast infections. B. Infection may initially be asymptomatic. C. Virions may remain latent. D. All of the answers are correct. |
D. All of the answers are correct.
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What is meant by selective toxicity?
A. Chemotherapeutic agents should work on many different targets on a pathogen. B. Chemotherapeutic agents should act against the pathogen and not the host. C. Chemotherapeutic agents should have only one mode of action. D. Chemotherapeutic agents should work on certain types of pathogens |
B. Chemotherapeutic agents should act against the pathogen and not the host.
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Why are chemotherapeutic agents that work on the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria a good choice of drug?
A. Bacteria are especially sensitive to these compounds. B. Humans and other animal hosts lack peptidoglycan cell walls. C. The drugs also work against DNA gyrase. D. They are less expensive that other chemotherapeutic agents. |
B. Humans and other animal hosts lack peptidoglycan cell walls.
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Why is polymyxin only used on the skin?
A. It can also damage living human cell membranes, but the drug is safely used on the skin, where the outer layers of cells are dead. B. It is sensitive to degradation by acid, making oral delivery unsuitable. C. It can disrupt the metabolic pathways found in humans. D. It has no effect on bacteria that live in the GI tract. |
A. It can also damage living human cell membranes, but the drug is safely used on the skin, where the outer layers of cells are dead.
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Quinolones and fluoroquinolones act against what bacterial target?
A. Cell walls B. DNA gyrase C. Cell membranes D. Bacterial ribosomes |
B. DNA gyrase
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Why is it difficult to find good chemotherapeutic agents against viruses?
A. Viruses depend on the host cell's machinery, so it is hard to find a viral target that would leave the host cell unaffected. B. Viruses infect both bacteria and human cells. C. Viruses are not cells, and therefore not sensitive to such compounds. D. There is no effective way to deliver the drug to the virus. |
A. Viruses depend on the host cell's machinery, so it is hard to find a viral target that would leave the host cell unaffected.
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Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria?
A. bacitracin B. cephalosporin C. polymyxin D. polyenes |
C. polymyxin
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Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections?
A. bacitracin B. cephalosporin C. penicillin D. amphotericin B |
D. amphotericin B
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Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against
A. gram-positive bacteria. B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C. gram-negative bacteria. D. helminths. |
D. helminths.
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To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus?
A. Bacillus B. Streptomyces C. Cephalosporium D. Penicillium |
B. Streptomyces
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Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Kirby and Bauer disc-diffusion method B. Florey and Chain identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin C. Ehrlich "magic bullet" theory D. Fleming initial identification of penicillin's effect on gram-positive microbial growth |
B. Florey and Chain identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin
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Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against
A. viruses B. protozoa C. fungi D. bacteria |
D. bacteria |
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Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because?
A. they have more genes than bacteria. B. their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells. C. they do not have ribosomes. D. they replicate inside human cells. |
B. their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
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Why is it more difficult to treat viral infections than it is to treat bacterial infections?
A. Viruses are smaller than human cells. B. Viruses have cell walls. C. Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction. D. Viruses are very similar to human cells. |
C. Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction.
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Sulfanilamides interfere with __________?
A. anaerobic metabolism in protozoa B. folic acid synthesis in bacteria C. protein synthesis in helminths D. protein synthesis in fungi |
B. folic acid synthesis in bacteria
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The antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in the figure. The effect is to?
A.prevent mRNA-ribosome binding in eukaryotes. B. prevent ribosome formation in bacteria. C. prevent transcription in prokaryotes. D. prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
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D. prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
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Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?
1. aminoglycosides 2. cephalosporins 3. griseofulvin 4. polyenes 5. bacitracin A. 4 and 5 B. 3, 4, and 5 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 3 and 4 |
D. 3 and 4 |
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Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A. cephalosporins B. vancomycin C. semisynthetic penicillins D. macrolides |
D. macrolides
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Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin?
A. Mycoplasma B. helminths C. penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Streptococcus pyogenes |
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
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Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?
A. Antihelminthic drugs B. Antifungal drugs C. Nucleotide analogs D. Semisynthetic penicillins |
D. Semisynthetic penicillins
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Which of the following best describes the mode of action of aminoglycosides?
A. They disrupt the cell wall. B. They disrupt the plasma membrane. C. They interfere with purine biosynthesis. D. They interfere with protein synthesis by changing the shape of the ribosome. |
D. They interfere with protein synthesis by changing the shape of the ribosome.
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The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus was the test organism. In the table, the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was?
A. A B. B C. C D. D E. The answer cannot be determined |
E. The answer cannot be determined
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Which statement regarding tests for microbial susceptibility to chemotherapeutic agents is FALSE?
A. During the Kirby-Bauer test, a Petri plate with agar medium is uniformly inoculated with a standardized amount of a test organism. B. During a disk-diffusion test, a clear zone around the test disk indicates that growth was inhibited. C. A broth dilution test is often used to determine MIC and MBC of an antimicrobial drug. D. The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects. |
D. The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects.
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Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE?
A. It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics. B. It is found only in gram-negative bacteria. C. It may be due to decreased uptake of a drug. D. It may be carried on a plasmid.
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B. It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.
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Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together?
A. It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs. B. It can prevent drug resistance. C. It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis. D. Two are always twice as effective as one. |
D. Two are always twice as effective as one.
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Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A. monobactam B. cephalosporin C. penicillin D. streptomycin |
D. streptomycin
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More than half of the antibiotics used today are produced by __________?
A. Streptococcus species B. Fungi C. Streptomyces species D. Plants |
C. Streptomyces species
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Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Azoles inhibit plasma membrane synthesis. B. Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis. C. Amantadine inhibits the release of viral nucleic acid. D. Interferon inhibits glycolysis. |
D. Interferon inhibits glycolysis.
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What is meant when a bacterium is said to become "resistant" to an antibiotic?
A. The antibiotic kills or inhibits the bacterium. B. The antibiotic is metabolized by the bacterium, providing more energy for growth of the cell. C. The bacterium is neither killed nor inhibited by the antibiotic. D. The antibiotic mutates in a way that benefits the bacterium. |
C. The bacterium is neither killed nor inhibited by the antibiotic.
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When a patient is treated with antibiotics, __________.
A. mutations occur in all of the bacterial cells B. sensitive bacterial cells multiply uncontrollably C. the drug will kill or inhibit the growth of all of the sensitive bacterial cells D. the drug will kill or inhibit the growth of all of the resistant bacterial cells |
C. the drug will kill or inhibit the growth of all of the sensitive bacterial cells
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The process of acquiring antibiotic resistance by means of bacteriophage activity is called?
A. transduction. B. R-plasmid acquisition. C. point mutation. D. transformation. |
A. transduction |
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Which of the following mutations would not result in antibiotic resistance?
A. Missense mutation B. Nonsense mutation C. Silent mutation D. Frameshift insertion |
C. Silent mutation
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R-plasmids are most likely acquired via?
A. Transduction B. Transformation C. Bacterial conjuagation D. Translation |
C. Bacterial conjuagation
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Which of the following drugs does NOT act by competitive inhibition?
A. sulfonamide B. trimethoprim C. ethambutol D. streptomycin |
D. streptomycin
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Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population?
A. Scalp B. Armpits C. Forearms D. Feet
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B. Armpits |
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Warts are caused by? A. poxvirus. B. parvovirus. C. herpesvirus. D. papillomavirus. |
D. papillomavirus.
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Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of?
A. chickenpox B. fifth disease C. measles D. rubella |
C. measles |
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A possible complication of chickenpox is?
A. encephalitis. B. congenital rubella syndrome. C. fever blisters. D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. |
A. encephalitis.
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Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Sties B. Carbuncles C. Acne D. Boils |
C. Acne |
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A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by?
A. Propionibacterium acnes. B. herpes simplex virus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Acanthamoeba. |
A. Propionibacterium acnes.
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Dermatophytes are fungi that can infect the __________ because they can grow on/in __________?
A. outer skin; keratin B. oil glands; sebum C. vagina; mucosal secretions D. mouth; saliva
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A. outer skin; keratin
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The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is?
A. neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia. B. trachoma. C. keratoconjunctivitis. D. pinkeye. |
B. trachoma.
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All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT?
A. Staphylococcus. B. Propionibacterium. C. Corynebacterium. D. Streptococcus. |
D. Streptococcus.
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All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT?
A. rod-shaped. B. production of pyocyanin. C. gram-positive cell wall. D. growth in moist environments. |
C. gram-positive cell wall.
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All of the following are characteristic of the Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci EXCEPT?
A. The ability to damage cell membranes. B. methicillin resistance. C. M proteins. D. hyaluronidase production. |
B. methicillin resistance.
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Which of the following cause(s) ringworm?
A. Mycobacterium B. Microsporum C. Epidermophyton D. Microsporum and Epidermophyton E. Microsporum, Epidermophyton, and Mycobacterium |
D. Microsporum and Epidermophyton
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Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis?
A. Buruli ulcer. B. sporotrichosis. C. erysipelas. D. Athlete's foot. |
B. sporotrichosis.
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Exfoliative toxin is responsible for?
A. Thrush B. Scalded Skin Syndrome C. Fever Blisters D. Impetigo |
B. Scalded Skin Syndrome |
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Scabies is transmitted by? A. Soil B. Respiratory Secretions C. Fomites D. Water |
C. Fomites |
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A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has?
A. Smallpox B. Chickenpox C. Measles D. Mumps |
B. Chickenpox |
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Buruli ulcer is caused by? A. A virus B. A fungus C. Acid fast bacteria D. Mite |
C. Acid fast bacteria |
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The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B. Microsporum. C. Candida. D. Staphylococcus aureus. |
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
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A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to?
A. herpes simplex virus. B. varicella-zoster virus. C. Candida albicans. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. |
B. varicella-zoster virus.
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You have a culture of bacteria that you suspect is either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Is there any morphological difference between the two?
A. Yes. S. aureus tends to grow in clusters, whereas S. pyogenes tends to grow in chains. B. Yes. S. aureus is a coccus, whereas S. pyogenes is a bacillus (rod). C. No. There is absolutely no difference in the appearance of the cells. D. Yes. S. aureus is gram-positive, and S. pyogenes is gram-negative.
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A. Yes. S. aureus tends to grow in clusters, whereas S. pyogenes tends to grow in chains.
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Which of the following statements concerning necrotizing fasciitis is FALSE?
A. The tissue damage is mainly due to the production of endotoxin, which stimulates a severe immune response. B. It is often associated with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome. C. It may be caused by several different organisms, but Streptococcus pyogenes is the most common. D. Some cases require limb amputation. |
A. The tissue damage is mainly due to the production of endotoxin, which stimulates a severe immune response.
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A child presents with large red patches of skin. The top layers are peeling off. Because the parents report that the child hasn't been burned, you suspect that the lesions are due to infection with __________? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
A. Staphylococcus aureus
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Which of the following is NOT a fungal infection?
A. Ringworm B. Pediculosis C. Jock Itch D. Thrush |
B. Pediculosis |
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The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small eight-legged animals. The etiology is?
A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. C. Sarcoptes. D. Candida. |
C. Sarcoptes.
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In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)?
A. Congenital complications may occur. B. They can be controlled by vaccination. C. Encephalitis is a possible complication. D. They have a similar type of rash. |
B. They can be controlled by vaccination.
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The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is?
A. Elimination of the mosquito population B. Treatment of infected humans C. Treatment of uninfected humans D. Treatment of infected wild animals |
A. Elimination of the mosquito population |
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All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT?
A. Initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine. B. infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water. C. the majority of cases are asymptomatic. D. most cases result in muscle paralysis.
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D. most cases result in muscle paralysis.
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Which of the following is an accurate description of Cryptococcus neoformans?
A. It is a bacterium that is found in the soil. It causes meningitis and is especially dangerous to pregnant women. B. It is an ameba that inhabits freshwater and can cause rapidly fatal meningitis. C. It is a mycobacterium; infection with this organism can cause disfiguring nodules all over the body. D. It is a fungus found in dried pigeon droppings. When inhaled, it is especially dangerous to immunocompromised individuals and can cause fatal meningitis. |
D. It is a fungus found in dried pigeon droppings. When inhaled, it is especially dangerous to immunocompromised individuals and can cause fatal meningitis.
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Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by?
A. mosquito bites. B. exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual. C. ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material. D. swimming in warm ponds or streams. |
D. swimming in warm ponds or streams.
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Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT?
A. rabies. B. sheep scrapie. C. kuru. D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. |
A. rabies.
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Whitney went on a mission trip to Africa with her church group. They visited for two weeks and worked with doctors in the area to provide information about tropical diseases and the availability of treatment and vaccines. About a month after returning home, she started having headaches, fever, and severe joint pain. She went to the doctor and was diagnosed with African sleeping sickness. What is the causative agent of this disease?
A. Leishmania braziliensis B. Giardia intestinalis C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Trypanosoma brucei |
D. Trypanosoma brucei
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The Big Picture Activity mentions multiple strategies for reducing the incidence of NTD. Which of the following would you recommend as a successful strategy for preventing the transmission of African sleeping sickness?
A. providing adequate supplies of vaccines and antimicrobial therapies B. giving pets and livestock antibacterials and antiparasitics to block transmission of disease to humans C. preventing contact with insects such as mosquitoes, kissing bugs, fleas, etc., through the use of chemicals D. sanitizing drinking water and providing waste management to prevent sewage from contaminating the water |
C. preventing contact with insects such as mosquitoes, kissing bugs, fleas, etc., through the use of chemicals
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As mentioned previously, African sleeping sickness is transmitted via a biological vector. Which of the following vectors is responsible for transmitting Trypanosoma brucei?
A. Kissing bug B. Copepods C. Tsetse fly D. Sand fly |
C. Tsetse fly |
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Improved water sanitation and hygiene services are listed in the Big Picture activity as a method of prevention for NTDs. Why is water sanitation a possible method of prevention?
A. All NTDs can be transmitted via contaminated water. B. The ability to bathe in clean water can help in the reduction of disease transmission. C. Biological vectors cannot grow in clean water, so transmission is interrupted. D. Clean water contains antibiotics that kill organisms and reduce disease transmission. |
B. The ability to bathe in clean water can help in the reduction of disease transmission.
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All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT?
A. Mycobacterium leprae. B. Cryptococcus neoformans. C. Haemophilus influenzae. D. Streptococcus pneumoniae. |
A. Mycobacterium leprae.
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The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through?
A. the parenteral route. B. direct penetration into nerves. C. the circulatory system. D. the gastrointestinal system. |
C. the circulatory system.
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Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE?
A. Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash. B. A healthy carrier state can exist. C. It is encapsulated. D. It is a gram-positive anaerobe |
D. It is a gram-positive anaerobe
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Which of the following statements about leprosy is FALSE?
A. It is rarely fatal. B. Diagnosis is based on skin biopsy. C. Patients with leprosy must be isolated. D. The etiologic agent is acid-fast. |
C. Patients with leprosy must be isolated.
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All of the following organisms are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT?
A. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Neisseria meningitidis. C. Listeria monocytogenes. D. Cryptococcus neoformans. |
C. Listeria monocytogenes.
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A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT?
A. Haemophilus influenza. B. Listeria monocytogenes. C. Clostridium botulinum. D. Streptococcus pneumoniae. |
C. Clostridium botulinum.
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A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansen's disease. All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT?
A. disfiguring nodules form all over the body. B. infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected individual. C. the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage. D. treatment will include injections of penicillin. |
D. treatment will include injections of penicillin.
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Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
A. botulism B. tetanus C. streptococcal pneumonia D. polio |
C. streptococcal pneumonia
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A one-year-old boy was listless, irritable, and sleepy. Capsulated Gram-negative rods were cultured from his cerebrospinal fluid. His symptoms were caused by?
A. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Clostridium tetani. C. a prion. D. Neisseria meningitidis. |
A. Haemophilus influenzae.
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. poliomyelitis multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine B. rabies virus destroys cells of the CNS C. botulism stimulates transmission of nerve impulse D. tetanus releases potent neurotoxin |
C. botulism stimulates transmission of nerve impulse
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All of the following are true of M. leprae EXCEPT?
A. it invades cells of the PNS. B. it survives ingestion by macrophages. C. it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours. D. it can be cultured in armadillos. |
C. it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.
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A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy. What was the cause of death?
A. Hansen's disease B. meningococcal meningitis C. rabies D. poliomyelitis |
C. rabies
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Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning the Sabin and Salk vaccines?
A. The Salk vaccine is cheaper to make than the Sabin vaccine. B. The Salk vaccine is more effective in conferring immunity. C. The Sabin vaccine is slightly more dangerous because it is made from live, attenuated virus, and the virus occasionally reverts back to its pathogenic form. D. The Salk vaccine is easier to administer because it is given orally. |
C. The Sabin vaccine is slightly more dangerous because it is made from live, attenuated virus, and the virus occasionally reverts back to its pathogenic form.
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If a person in the United States is exposed to rabies, which animal is the most likely culprit?
A. domestic cats B. domestic dogs C. wild raccoon D. wild bats |
D. wild bats
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Which statement regarding arboviral encephalitis is FALSE?
A. The incidence of disease increases during summer months. B. The most effective preventive measure for arboviral infections is vaccination. C. Horses, as well as humans, are frequently affected by arboviruses. D. Most human cases of West Nile virus (WNV) are subclinical or very mild. |
B. The most effective preventive measure for arboviral infections is vaccination.
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All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT?
A. all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts. B. it is transmitted by the tsetse fly. C. it is also known as "sleeping sickness." D. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease. |
A. all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.
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All of the following are true of chronic fatigue syndrome EXCEPT?
A. it is a psychological disorder. B. it may be triggered by a viral infection. C. it may have a genetic component. D. it often begins with flu-like symptoms that do not go away. |
A. it is a psychological disorder.
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All of the following microorganisms can directly cause meningitis EXCEPT?
A. protozoa. B. mosquitoes. C. bacteria. D. fungi. |
B. mosquitoes.
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Which of the following statements concerning the blood-brain barrier is FALSE?
A. Penicillin is useless against infections of the brain because it is completely incapable of crossing the barrier. B. Inflammation can alter the blood-brain barrier, increasing the likelihood that a substance can cross. C. Substances that are lipid-soluble can cross the blood-brain barrier readily. D. Most antibiotics cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. |
A. Penicillin is useless against infections of the brain because it is completely incapable of crossing the barrier.
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