Micro Ch. 19 And 20

Front 1

1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share?A) nosocomial infections
B) protein A antiphagocytic factor
C) hyaluronidase enzyme
D) enterotoxins
E) staphylokinase

Back 1

B) protein A antiphagocytic factor

Front 2

2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria?
A) mycoplasmas
B) Mycobacterium
C) Clostridium
D) Propionibacterium
E) Nocardia

Back 2

A) mycoplasmas

Front 3

3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci?
A) It has a capsule.
B) It can produce coagulase.
C) It produces catalase.
D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands.
E) It produces lipase.

Back 3

B) It can produce coagulase.

Front 4

4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why?
A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers.
B) They produce coagulase.
C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another.
D) They produce β-lactamase.
E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots.

Back 4

D) They produce β-lactamase.

Front 5

5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis?
A) erysipelas
B) endocarditis
C) scarlet fever
D) toxic shock syndrome
E) staphylococcal food poisoning

Back 5

D) toxic shock syndrome

Front 6

6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely
A) Enterococcus.
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus).

Back 6

D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

Front 7

7) Streptococci are frequently classified by
A) Lancefield antigen designations.
B) the type of enzymes the bacteria produce.
C) their staining properties.
D) their ability to produce a capsule.
E) the diseases they produce.

Back 7

A) Lancefield antigen designations.

Front 8

8) How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells?
A) They produce coagulase, allowing the bacteria to hide within blood clots.
B) They grow in chains or pairs.
C) They produce streptokinase, which breaks down blood clots
.D) They have hyaluronic acid capsules.
E) They have protein M in their capsule, which destabilizes complement and interferes with opsonization.

Back 8

D) They have hyaluronic acid capsules.

Front 9

9) Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection?
A) glomerulonephritis caused by the group A streptococci
B) scarlet fever
C) rheumatic fever
D) impetigo
E) toxic shock syndrome

Back 9

C) rheumatic fever

Front 10

10) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE?
A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus.
B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia.
C) It causes death in over 50% of cases.
D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma.
E) It involves toxemia.

Back 10

D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma.

Front 11

11) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases?
A) neonatal bacteremia
B) neonatal meningitis
C) neonatal pneumonia
D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis
E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia

Back 11

E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia

Front 12

12) Which of the following statements regarding Streptococcus pyogenes is FALSE?
A) It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization.
B) It is beta-hemolytic.
C) It has group A Lancefield antigens.
D) It produces streptolysins.
E) It can be lysogenized by a temperate bacteriophage to produce erythrogenic toxins.

Back 12

A) It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization.

Front 13

13) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains?
A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall
B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces
C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis
D) the type of toxins it produces
E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar

Back 13

C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis

Front 14

14) Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis may progress to
A) scarlet fever.
B) necrotizing fasciitis.
C) rheumatic fever.
D) scarlet fever or necrotizing fasciitis.
E) scarlet fever or rheumatic fever.

Back 14

E) scarlet fever or rheumatic fever.

Front 15

15) The Quellung reaction is used to diagnose
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Streptococcus agalactiae.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Streptococcus equisimilis.

Back 15

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Front 16

16) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with
A) Streptococcus agalactiae.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Streptococcus mutans.
D) Enterococcus.
E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Back 16

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Front 17

17) Which of the following staphylococcal virulence factors produce the signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome?
A) hyaluronidase
B) staphylokinase
C) exfoliative toxin
D) leukocidin
E) coagulase

Back 17

C) exfoliative toxin

Front 18

18) During a stay in the hospital, an accident victim develops symptoms of bacteremia. A blood sample shows the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs. Lab tests determine that the bacteria are nonhemolytic and bile salt tolerant. The bacteremia is likely due to
A) Enterococcus.
B) Mycoplasma.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) Streptococcus.
E) Listeria.

Back 18

A) Enterococcus.

Front 19

19) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries?
A) viridans streptococci
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Streptococcus equisimilis
E) Streptococcus arginosus

Back 19

A) viridans streptococci

Front 20

20) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from
A) the airborne endospores it produces.
B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope.
C) the black eschars it produces on human skin.
D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia.
E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals.

Back 20

C) the black eschars it produces on human skin.

Front 21

21) Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE?A) It is primarily a disease of humans.
B) It produces endospores.
C) It has a capsule.
D) It normally dwells in the soil and can survive in the environment for centuries or longer.
E) It can be lethal even after treatment because antimicrobial drugs do not inactivate accumulated anthrax toxin.

Back 21

A) It is primarily a disease of humans.

Front 22

22) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known?
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Clostridium tetani
D) Clostridium botulinum
E) Corynebacterium species

Back 22

D) Clostridium botulinum

Front 23

23) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Enterococcus species
E) Clostridium botulinum

Back 23

A) Clostridium difficile

Front 24

24) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action?
A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts.
B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair.
C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin.
D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat.
E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing.

Back 24

B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair.

Front 25

25) Which of the following statements concerning tetanus is FALSE?
A) Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails.
B) Its toxin causes simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair.
C) It is a small, motile, obligate anaerobe.
D) It produces a terminal endospore that gives the cell a distinctive "lollipop" appearance.
E) Its diagnostic feature is characteristic muscle contractions, which are often noted too late to save the patient.

Back 25

A) Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails.

Front 26

26) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to
A) produce powerful toxins.
B) form very resistant endospores.
C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host.
D) easily become a pathogen in humans.
E) resist most antimicrobial agents.

Back 26

C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host.

Front 27

27) Which of the following bacteria divide by "snapping division" in which daughter cells remain attached in characteristic V-shapes?
A) staphylococci
B) enterococci
C) Corynebacterium
D) Listeria
E) Mycobacterium

Back 27

C) Corynebacterium

Front 28

28) Which of the following statements about diphtheria is FALSE?
A) Although all species of Corynebacterium are pathogenic, the agent of diphtheria is the most widely known.
B) Its toxin destroys elongation factor, which is needed to synthesize polypeptides in eukaryotes.
C) It produces a characteristic pseudomembrane that can adhere to the tonsils, uvula, palate, pharynx, and larynx.
D) Its growth on Loeffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium.
E) Its toxin can be absorbed into the blood from cutaneous lesions and can lead to cardiac arrhythmia, coma, and death.

Back 28

D) Its growth on Loeffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium.

Front 29

29)Members of the genus Mycoplasma are pleomorphic and stain Gram-negativebecause they

A)lack cell walls.

B)have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.C)lack cytoplasmic membranes.

D)have mycolic acid in their cell walls.

E)have a rudimentary cell wall.

Back 29

A) lack cell walls.

Front 30

30)The pathogenicity of primary tuberculosis is due to the fact that themycobacteria

A)are not phagocytized.

B)prevent fusion of lysosomes with phagosomes.

C)form a pseudomembrane.

D)destroy helper T cells.

E)are carried by macrophages to a variety of sites.

Back 30

B) prevent fusion of lysosomes with phagosomes.

Front 31

31)A sample of fluid from the lungs contains microbes that grow in filaments orclumps. The cells stain poorly in the Gram stain and are a pink-red whenacid-fast stained. The bacteria in the sample are

A)Mycobacterium species

.B)Mycoplasma species.

C)Nocardia species.

D)Actinomyces species.

E)not identifiable with this information.

Back 31

A) Mycobacterium species

Front 32

32)Under what conditions does infection with Mycobacterium leprae developinto tuberculoid leprosy?

A)in the absence of a cell-mediated immune response

B)when the immune system develops a vigorous cell-mediated response

C)when a strong antibody-mediated immune response develops

D)when the innate respond is vigorous enough to clear the infection

E)with pre-existing immunity as a result of immunization

Back 32

B) when the immune system develops a vigorous cell-mediated response

Front 33

33)The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that formyellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neitherantifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective intreating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with

A)Actinomyces.

B)Mycobacterium.

C)Nocardia.

D)Propionibacterium.

E)Streptococcus.

Back 33

A) Actinomyces.

Front 34

34)What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium?

A)acne

B)food poisoning

C)pneumonitis

D)folliculitis

E)a sty

Back 34

A) acne

Front 35

35)Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling,pus production, and draining sores, is caused by

A)systemic tuberculosis.

B)Nocardia.

C)Actinomyces.

D)penicillin-resistant staphylococci.

E)cutaneous anthrax.

Back 35

B) Nocardia.

Front 36

36)The skin lesions characteristic of cutaneous infections with Bacillusanthracis areA)eschars.

B)acne.

C)impetigo.

D)scarlatina.

E)pus-filled ulcers.

Back 36

A) eschars.

Front 37

37)The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunisticinfections of the

A)skin.

B)lungs.

C)central nervous system.

D)cardiovascular system.

E)skin, lungs, and central nervous system.port.

Back 37

E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system. port.

Front 38

38)Enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from otherGram-positive cocci because enterococci

A)have a glycocalyx.

B)produce catalase enzyme.

C)produce hemolysins.

D)can grow in the presence of bile salts.

E)are highly sensitive to antibiotics.

Back 38

D) can grow in the presence of bile salts.

Front 39

39)Infections with Streptococcus pyogenes may progress to ________,characterized by a skin rash that peels after about a week and a bright redswollen tongue.

A)pyoderma

B)toxic shock syndrome

C)scarlatina

D)rheumatic fever

E)scalded skin syndrome

Back 39

C) scarlatina

Front 40

40)Increased sebum secretion can fuel the overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen________ in its normal habitat, leading to disease.A)Propionibacterium acnes

B)Streptococcus agalactiae

C)viridians streptococci

D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae

E)Actinomyceso

Back 40

A) Propionibacterium acnes

Front 41

41)Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of

A)acne.

B)furuncles.

C)pharyngitis.

D)primary atypical pneumonia

E)otitis media.

Back 41

E) otitis media.

Front 42

42)Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes respiratory disease by

A)infecting and killing alveolar macrophages.

B)triggering inflammatory mediator release.

C)attaching to, inhibiting, and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cellsof the trachea.

D)paralyzing the respiratory muscles.

E)killing the epithelial cells of the alveoli.

Back 42

C) attaching to, inhibiting, and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.

Front 43

43)Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of infection with Mycobacteriumleprae?

A)blister-like lesions

B)a distinctive red rash that lasts for days

C)pus-filled abscesses

D)loss of the sense of touch

E)severe inflammation with swelling alveoli

Back 43

D) loss of the sense of touch

Front 44

44)Which of the following is NOT a feature of the pathogenesis of Clostridiumperfringens?

A)inhibiting sensory neuron function

B)edema due to increased vascular permeability

C)lysis of erythrocytes

D)cytotoxicity

E)reducing blood pressure

Back 44

A) inhibiting sensory neuron function

Front 45

45)Which of the following bacteria can cause pharygitis?

A)Streptococcus anginosus

B)Streptococcus equisimilus

C)Streptococcus pyogenes

D)both Streptococcus equisimilus and S. pyogenes

E)Streptococcus anginosus, S. equisimilus, and S. pyogenes

Back 45

D) both Streptococcus equisimilus and S. pyogenes

Front 46

T/F Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is long-lasting because ingestedbacteria produce enterotoxins in the digestive system.

Back 46

False

Front 47

T/F Staphylococcus aureus can produce a toxin that dissolves the desmosomesthat hold the adjoining cytoplasmic membranes of cells together and causes thepatient's skin cells to separate from each other.

Back 47

True

Front 48

T/F A person comes into the clinic with a wound that is severely inflamed, verypainful, and turning black and "bubbly." The diagnosis is leprosy.

Back 48

False

Front 49

T/F GroupA streptococci are considered more virulent if their cytoplasmic membranecontains M protein.

Back 49

True

Front 50

T/F Streptococcuspyogenes commonly causesstreptococcal toxic shock syndrome in otherwise healthy people.

Back 50

False

Front 51

T/F Therespiratory infection known as "walking pneumonia" is caused by Mycoplasmapneumoniae.

Back 51

True

Front 52

T/F Enterococcihave the ability to secrete bacteriocins, which inhibit the growth of otherbacteria.

Back 52

True

Front 53

T/F Adultfoodborne botulism can be prevented by thoroughly cooking food (minimum 80°C for 20minutes) before it is eaten.

Back 53

True

Front 54

T/F Mycobacteriumtuberculosis isable to persist and be spread in aerosols due to its ability to produceendospores.

Back 54

False

Front 55

1)A "summer cold" that lasts for weeks and is characterized by sorethroat, mild fever, dry cough, and malaise may be (pneumococcal/walking)pneumonia.

Back 55

Walking

Front 56

2)The presence of mycolic acid in the cell walls of the opportunistic pathogen (Actinomyces/Nocardia)results in it Gram staining poorly.

Back 56

Nocardia

Front 57

3)In its role in the development of acne, (Propionibacterium/Staphylococcus/Actinomyces)typically grows in sebaceous glands of the skin.

Back 57

Propionibacterium

Front 58

4)(MRSA/MDR-TB/VRSA) is resistant to numerous antimicrobial agents; therefore,vancomycin is usually used for these infections.-

Back 58

MRSA

Front 59

5)In countries where tuberculosis is common, people are vaccinated with(BCG/DOTS/MDR-TB), which contains attenuated Mycobacterium bovisbacteria.

Back 59

BCG

Front 60

6)Infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriae leads to the formation of(pseudomembranes/tubercles) which can severely impair respiratory function.

Back 60

pseudomembranes

Front 61

7)Successful treatment of diphtheria requires the administration of(antibiotics/antitoxin/immunoglobulin). !

Back 61

antitoxin

Front 62

8)Common sources of Listeria are undercooked meats and vegetables andunpasteurized (eggs/milk/juices).

Back 62

milk

Front 63

9)The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (flaccid/tetanic)paralysis by preventing muscle contraction.

Back 63

flaccid

Front 64

10)Bacterial food poisoning resulting from Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens)contamination is characterized by watery diarrhea accompanied by intestinalcramping but not fever, and it resolves in about a day.

Back 64

perfringens

Front 65

11)(Enterococcus/Staphylococcus) grow at temperatures up to 45°C, atpH levels as high as 9.6, and in 6.5% NaCl, but they lack structural andchemical elements that make them virulent in the intestinal tract.

Back 65

Enterococcus

Front 66

12)The aerobic endospore-former (Clostridium perfringens/Clostridiumdifficile/Bacillus anthracis) is a strict pathogen of humans andanimals.

Back 66

Bacillus Anthracis

Front 67

13)The body limits the migration of Streptococcus (agalactiae/pneumoniae/pyogenes)by binding it to the active sites of secretory IgA, which the bacteria overcomeby secreting secretory IgA protease.

Back 67

pneumoniae

Front 68

14)When streptococcal infections involve the skin and surrounding lymph nodes,triggering pain and inflammation, the condition is known as(erysipelas/folliculitis/pyoderma).

Back 68

erysipelas

Front 69

15)The ability to produce (hyaluronidase/lipase/proteases) enables Staphylococcusaureus to penetrate and spread through tissues.

Back 69

hyaluronidase

Front 70

1)A large number of patrons of a restaurant in a large city develop symptoms offood poisoning. Officials collect several foods that are suspected in theepisode. Which of the Gram-positive bacteria in this chapter may be responsiblefor the food poisoning? How do health officials determine which is the culprit?

Back 70

Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, or Lysteria monocytogenes (food infection)

Front 71

2)A throat swab is taken from a patient with a respiratory infection. After 24hours, 1- to 3-mm colonies develop, which are round, mucoid, nonpigmented, anddimpled in the middle. What is the most likely pathogen, and how could youconfirm the diagnosis on the culture?

Back 71

Streptococcus pneumoniae, bile sensitive

Front 72

3)Compare and contrast the pathogenicity of Clostridium botulinum and Clostridiumtetani, including mechanisms of action of their toxins and diseasemanifestations.

Back 72

Clost. bot. block release of acetylcholine and causes flaccid paralysis, Clost. tet. blocks inhibitory interneurons causes spastic paralysis

Front 73

4)Mycobacterium leprae manifests itself in two different forms in apatient. What are these? What determines which form the patient will develop?

Back 73

2 types are tuberculoid leprosy and lepromais leprosy. Which form that develops depends on the patient's cell mediated immune response

Front 74

5)Why would Clostridium botulinum be a good microorganism to use forbiological warfare?

Back 74

It is very toxic, works quickly and only need 30mg to infect everyone in the U.S.

Front 75

Strains of Neisseria spp. need which of the following structuralfeatures to be pathogenic?A)a capsule

B)fimbriae

C)lipooligosaccharide (LOS) in its wall

D)both a capsule and LOS

E)a capsule, fimbriae and an LOS

Back 75

E) a capsule, fimbriae and an LOS

Front 76

Lipid A causes which of the followingsymptoms?

A)hemorrhaging

B)fever

C)disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)D)fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

E)fever and hemorrhaging

Back 76

D) fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Front 77

Neisseriagonorrhoeaeinfection in men is

A)usually asymptomatic.

B)only symptomatic in advanced stages of disease.

C)an acute painful infection with pus discharge.D)symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis.

E)usually a bladder infection.

Back 77

C) an acute painful infection with pus discharge.

Front 78

Whichof the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE?

A)It causes disease in humans only.

B)The gonococci stick to epithelial cells via fimbriae and capsules.

C)The gonococci secrete a protease that destroys secretory IgA.

D)The gonococci induce lasting immunity.

E)Infected women are often asymptomatic.

Back 78

D) The gonococci induce lasting immunity.

Front 79

Amongthe areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseriagonorrhoeae?

A)the vagina

B)the cervix

C)the uterus

D)the Fallopian tubes

E)the pelvic organs

Back 79

A) the vagina

Front 80

Themajor damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of

A)its invasion into the central nervous system.

B)its presence in the respiratory tract of 40% of healthy individuals.

C)its ability to be transmitted by droplets among people who live in closecontact.

D)the release of the lipid A component of lipooligosaccharide (LOS) into thetissues, triggering serious symptoms.

E)the fact that it can survive in cells after phagocytosis.

Back 80

D) the release of the lipid A component of lipooligosaccharide (LOS) into the tissues, triggering serious symptoms.

Front 81

Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseriameningitidis?

A)the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in phagocytes of the central nervoussystem

B)its inability to ferment maltose

C)the presence of lipid A

D)the lack of lipooligosaccharide

E)the lack of fimbriae

Back 81

A) the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in phagocytes of the central nervous system

Front 82

Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can bedistinguished from each other by

A)the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.

B)the ability to ferment lactose.

C)motility.

D)both motility and the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.

E)both motility and the ability to ferment lactose.

Back 82

E) both motility and the ability to ferment lactose.

Front 83

Whatvirulence factor(s) do all proteobacteria share?

A)proteases that destroy IgA antibodies

B)fimbriae

C)lipid A

D)a glycocalyx

E)both fimbriae and a glycocalyx

Back 83

C) lipid A

Front 84

Whichof the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE?

A)There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains.

B)Up to 40% of the population are carriers.

C)Humans are the only natural carriers.

D)Transmission is via respiratory droplets.

E)It often causes meningitis.

Back 84

A) There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains.

Front 85

Alung specimen from a pneumonia patient contains Gram-negative bacilli. Laboratorytest results on the bacteria show they are nonmotile coliforms with a thickcapsule. Which pathogen is the likely cause of the pneumonia?

A)Escherichia coli

B)Enterobacter

C)Hafnia

D)Klebsiella

E)Serratia

Back 85

D) Klebsiella

Front 86

Whichof the following coliforms is the most common cause of non-nosocomial urinarytract infections?

A)Escherichia coli

B)Serratia marcescens

C)Proteus mirabilis

D)Klebsiella pneumoniae

E)Enterobacter

Back 86

A) Escherichia coli

Front 87

Serratia is a coliformthat

A)is nonmotile.

B)produces red pigment when grown at room temperature.

C)is totally benign in humans.

D)is easy to treat because it is sensitive to most antibiotics.

E)does not grow in hospital supplies such as saline and other salt solutions.

Back 87

B) produces red pigment when grown at room temperature.

Front 88

Whichof the following pairs is mismatched?A)coliform Enterobacteriaceae; rapid lactose fermenters

B)noncoliform opportunistic Enterobacteriaceae; Proteus, Morganella

C)coliform Enterobacteriaceae; opportunistic pathogens

D)nonpathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella

E)noncoliform Enterobacteriaceae; non-lactose-fermenters

Back 88

D) nonpathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella

Front 89

Severalcases of nonbloody diarrhea with nausea, fever, and abdominal pain haveoccurred among a number of people who ate at the same restaurant. Public healthofficers find a food sample containing motile noncoliform, Gram-negativebacteria capable of metabolizing glucose. The "food poisoning"resulted from contamination with

A)Citrobacter.

B)Escherichia coli.

C)Salmonella.

D)Shigella.

E)Yersinia.

Back 89

C) Salmonella.

Front 90

Shigellosiscan be differentiated from salmonellosis by

A)the lack of fever.

B)the presence of bloody diarrhea.

C)the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms.

D)the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms in bloody diarrhea.

E)abdominal cramps and fever.

Back 90

D) the presence of nonmotile noncoliforms in bloody diarrhea.

Front 91

What is the causative pathogen for bubonic andpneumonic plague?

A)Yersinia pestis

B)Yersinia enterocolitica

C)Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

D)Salmonella enterica

E)Salmonella flexneri

Back 91

A) Yersinia pestis

Front 92

Whichof the following bacteria requires heme for its growth?

A)Salmonella

B)Shigella

C)Yersinia

D)Haemophilus

E)Bordetella

Back 92

D) Haemophilus

Front 93

Ayoung woman has a pelvic infection. A specimen contains bacilli that are bilesalt tolerant, as shown by black growth on a bile-esculin agar plate. Herinfection is likely caused by

A)Bacteroides fragilis.

B)Bartonella henselae.

C)Haemophilus ducreyi.

D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Back 93

Bacteroides fragilis.

Front 94

Whichof the following statements concerning Pasteurella is FALSE?

A)It is oxidase positive.

B)It is nonmotile.

C)Humans are typically infected via animal bites.

D)It is fastidious in its growth and must be cultivated on blood or chocolateagar.

E)It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs includingfluoroquinolones.

Back 94

E) It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluoroquinolones.

Front 95

Catscratch disease is caused by

A)Bartonella bacilliformis.

B)Bartonella henselae.

C)Bartonella quintana.

D)Bartonella peliosis.

E)Bartonella angiomatosis.

Back 95

B) Bartonella henselae.

Front 96

Bordetellapertussis causesdisease by

A)the development of pneumonia.

B)interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.C)suppressing the production of mucus by the respiratory lining.

D)forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the larynx.

E)irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.

Back 96

B) interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.

Front 97

Resistanceof Pseudomonas to a wide range of antibacterial agents is partly due toits

A)production of exoenzyme S.

B)use of the Entner-Doudoroff pathway as its major means of catabolizing glucose.

C)ability to utilize a wide range of organic and nitrogen sources.

D)ability to form biofilms.

E)lack of special requirements for growth.

Back 97

D) ability to form biofilms.

Front 98

Whichof the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination?

A)typhoid fever

B)salmonellosis

C)cat scratch disease

D)gonorrhea

E)chancroid

Back 98

A) typhoid fever