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34 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When Hershey and Chase determined that a bacterial virus labeled with 35S did not enter the bacterium and give rise to a new generation of viral particles, they were able to eliminate _____ as the genetic material. A. RNA B. DNA C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates E. Lipids |
C. Proteins |
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DNA replication in bacteria can be initiated anywhere along the circular chromosome. A. True B. False |
B. False |
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What is the first protein to bind to the oriC region of the DNA molecule to start the replication process? A. DNA polymerase B. Primase C. DnaA D. Gyrase E. DnaI |
C. Dna A |
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After the DNA is unwound at the site of DNA replication initiation, what binds to the unwound DNA to prevent it from re-annealing? A. DNA gyrase B. Single-stranded DNA binding proteins C. DnaA D. DNA polymerase E. Helicase |
B. Single-stranded DNA binding proteins |
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Termination of DNA replication in E. coli involves what? A. Ter sites and proteins (Tus & topoisomerase) B. Helicase and ter sites C. Telomerase and DNA polymerase D. Ter sites and DnaG E. Telomerase and exonuclease |
A. Ter sites and proteins (Tus & topoisomerase) |
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When we talk about the genetic code being redundant, what does this mean? |
A. Most amino acids are coded for by more than one codon |
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Initiation of translation in bacteria starts with the binding of the 30S ribosomal subunit to the mRNA molecule. The ribosomal binding site is nearer the _________ end of the mRNA molecule and is called the ________. A. 3’; Pribnow box B. 3’; Shine-Dalgarno sequence C. 3’; Rho sequence D. 5’; Shine-Dalgarno sequence E. 5’; Rho sequence |
D. 5' Shine-Dalgarno sequence |
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The mRNA of bacterial cells is often polycistronic. What does this term mean? A. It can be translated more than once B. It contains the code for multiple peptides C. It can be translated from either end D. It is transcribed from multiple sites on the chromosome E. The translated protein may be modified in different ways |
B. It contains the code for multiple peptides |
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A desirable property for a good cloning vector is: A. A piece of DNA that is able to replicate autonomously within a bacterial cell B. A piece of DNA that has been well characterized including known restriction sites C. A piece of DNA that includes easily detectable marker genes D. All of these choices |
D. All of these choices |
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What is the term for cells that can take up extracellular DNA? A. Porous B. Competent C. Conjugant D. Susceptible E. Primed |
B. Competent |
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What is the term for the direct transfer of DNA from a living donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium? A. Transduction B. Transformation C. Transfection D. Conjugation E. Electroporation |
D. Conjugation |
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All of the following mechanisms are targets of gene expression control except A. Translation B. Transcription C. Post-translation D. DNA replication E. All of these are under gene control |
D. DNA replication |
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In positive control, the function of the activator molecule is to A. Increase the affinity of RNA polymerase to the promoter B. Bind with repressor molecules to prevent them from blocking the operator C. Increase the affinity of the inducer molecule to the promoter D. Bind with inducer molecules to increase their affinity to the promoter |
A. Increase the affinity of RNA polymerase to the promoter |
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In the presence of lactose A. An inducer molecule binds to the lac repressor molecule B. The lac repressor binds to the operator C. Genes of the lac operon are not expressed D. All of the choices |
A. An inducer molecule binds to the lac repressor molecule |
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During negative regulation of gene expression the repressor protein binds to the operator to inhibit transcription. What is the effector molecule that controls the activity of the repressor protein called? A. Co-repressor B. Inducer C. Activator D. Co-repressor (Trp) or inducer (allolactose) E. Co-repressor or activator |
D. Co-repressor (Trp) or inducer (allolactose) |
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When does repression of the lac operon occur? A. When allolactose binds to the operator region B. When allolactose binds to the repressor protein C. When the repressor protein binds to the operator region D. When allolactose binds to β-galactosidase E. When the repressor protein binds to the promoter |
C. When the repressor protein binds to the operator region |
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Which of the following is not an example of gene regulation through RNA modifications? A. Attenuation B. Catabolite repression C. Riboswitches D. Antisense RNA |
Ch. 13 |
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Two component regulatory systems get their name based on the presence of: A. A sensor kinase that detects an environmental stimulus and a response regulator that regulates transcription B. Multiple processes that regulate both transcription and translation in the same metabolic pathway C. Linkages between receptors outside the cell and a signal cascade inside the cell D. None of these choices |
Ch.13 |
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Microbes can regulate gene expression at multiple points in the protein synthesis process. At what level is this control most efficient? A. Initiation of transcription B. Synthesis of mRNA C. Initiation of translation D. Post-translational modification |
Ch.13 |
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What is an effector molecule? A. A protein that binds to an operator region of a gene B. An activator protein for gene expression C. A small RNA molecule that inhibits translation of mRNA D. A small molecule that binds to a protein to regulate its activity E. A small molecule that binds to the operator region of a gene |
Ch. 13 |
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The correct sequence of steps in the Sanger sequencing method is A. Clone DNA fragments into vectors - synthesize new DNA strands – separate newly synthesized DNA strands by gel electrophoresis B. Synthesize new DNA strands – separate newly synthesized DNA strands by gel electrophoresis – clone DNA fragments into vectors C. Synthesize new DNA strands – clone DNA fragments into vectors – separate newly synthesized DNA strands by gel electrophoresis D. Separate newly synthesized strands by gel electrophoresis – clone DNA fragments into vectors – synthesize new DNA strands |
A. Clone DNA fragments into vectors --> synthesize new DNA strands --> separate newly synthesized DNA strands by gel electrophoresis |
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The Sanger method of sequencing uses special nucleotides that are called ________ nucleotides. A. Ribo B. Deoxy C. Dideoxy D. Deribo E. Tri- |
C. Dideoxy |
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What is a transcriptome? A. The coding region on the chromosome B. The coding region on the chromosome minus the introns C. The coding region on the chromosome plus the control regions D. The transcripts encoded for by the genes within a genome E. The amount of RNA in the cell |
D. The transcripts encoded for by the genes within a genome |
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What is metagenomics? A. A culture-dependent method that may be used to determine genome sequences B. A culture-dependent method that may be used to find new enzymes C. A culture-dependent method that may be used to study groups of microbes in an ecosystem D. A culture-independent method that may be used to document microbial community composition E. A culture-independent method that may be used for the isolation of different organisms |
Either D. or E. |
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Viral nomenclature is based on A. The geographic location where the virus was first discovered B. The disease the virus causes C. The physical characteristics of the virus D. All of the above |
ad |
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Most viruses with helical capsid symmetry contain _______ as their nucleic acid. A. Single-stranded DNA B. Single-stranded RNA C. Double-stranded DNA D. Double-stranded RNA E. RNA/DNA dimer |
afdasf |
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A prion is A. A subcellular infectious agent with a naked RNA genome B. A subcellular infectious agent with a protein coated RNA genome C. An abnormally shaped protein D. An abnormally shaped RNA molecule |
gafdg |
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The influenza virus, like many enveloped RNA viruses, enters host cells via A. Endocytosis B. Direct injection C. Active transport D. Outer membrane porins |
sdfsdGF |
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Class III viruses, double-stranded RNA viruses, utilize the following polymerase for genome synthesis A. Host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerase B. Host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase C. Viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase D. Viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase E. Viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase |
sgfsag |
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For most double-stranded DNA eukaryal viruses, DNA replication occurs in the _________ and translation occurs in the __________. A. Cytoplasm, cytoplasm B. Cytoplasm, nucleus C. Nucleus, nucleus D. Nucleus, cytoplasm E. Mitochondria, cytoplasm |
sdf |
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Most enveloped viruses exit the cell by the following process A. Exocytosis B. Budding C. Golgi transport D. Cell lysis E. Cytokinesis |
dSF |
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An HIV mutant has been identified that is resistant to the drug AZT. Most likely the mutation occurred in the viral gene that encodes for A. The DNA integrase B. The viral attachment protein C. Reverse transcriptase D. Membrane fusion protein (gp41) E. Viral mRNA polymerase |
fsF |
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Why do RNA viruses have a high mutation rate? A. Their RNA is a single stranded molecule B. Their RNA contains unusual nucleotides C. Their RNA-dependent RNA polymerases lack a proofreading function D. Their RNA is quickly degraded by nucleases E. Their RNA is not methylated after synthesis |
DSFsdfsdfsdf |
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This is an example of a virus known to undergo evolutionary change by re-assortment: A. Influenza virus B. Papilloma virus C. Hepatitis type B virus D. Herpes virus E. Adenovirus |
dsf |
