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478 Cards in this Set

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THE LUNGS ARE THE SITES OF _____________________ IN THE BODY.

gas exchange

AIR ENTERS THE RESPIRATORY TRACT THROUGH THE ____________________ OF THE NOSE.

external nares

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE CILIA IN THE RESPIRATORY TRACT?

to trap harmful particles and keep them away from the lungs

AIR PASSES THROUGH THE PHARYNX INTO THE _________________.

larynx

WHAT PASSES THROUGH THE LARYNX?

only air

WHAT ARE THE SEVEN STEPS IN AIR PASSAGE INTO THE BODY?

mouth or nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

WHAT IS SURFACTANT?

a detergent that coats alveoli that lowers the surface tension and prevents the alveolus from collapsing on itself

____________________ SURROUND EACH ALVEOLUS TO CARRY OXYGEN AND CARBON DIOXIDE FOR EXCHANGE.

capillaries

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE ALVEOLI?

serve as the site of gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE BRONCHI/BRONCHIOLES?

carry air from the trachea into the lungs; smooth muscle tissue in their walls helps to regulate airflow into the lungs

THE LUNGS ARE CONTAINED IN THE ________________ CAVITY.

thoracic

WHAT SEPARATES THE RESPIRATORY ORGANS AND THE DIGESTIVE ORGANS IN THE BODY CAVITY?

the diaphragm

WHAT IS THE DIAPHRAGM NECESSARY FOR?

inspiration

WHAT ARE PLEURAE?

membranes that surround each lung that act as closed sacs against which the lungs grow

THE SURFACE OF THE PLEURAE ADJACENT TO THE LUNG IS CALLED THE _____________ SURFACE; ALL OTHER PARTS OF THE PLEURAE ARE _______________ SURFACES.

visceral; parietal

WHAT IS THE SPACE WITHIN THE PLEURAE OF THE LUNGS CALLED?

the intrapleural space

WHAT TWO MUSCLES ARE USED TO EXPAND THE THORACIC CAVITY?

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

AN INCREASE IN VOLUME IN THE INTRAPLEURAL SPACE LEADS TO A _______________ IN PRESSURE IN THE INTRAPLEURAL SPACE.

decrease

WHAT IS NEGATIVE-PRESSURE BREATHING?

the rib cage expands and the diaphragm contracts, expanding the chest cavity; this causes the pressure in the chest cavity to decrease, and the lungs expand to fill the space since they are full of high-pressure atmospheric air

IS INHALATION OR EXHALATION THE ACTIVE PROCESS?

inhalation

WHEN WE NEED TO PUSH AIR OUT OF THE LUNGS RAPIDLY, WHAT MUSCLES ARE USED?

internal intercostal muscles

THE VENTILATION CENTERS IN THE BRAIN ARE LOCATED IN THE _______________.

medulla

WHAT DRIVES RESPIRATION?

the partial pressure of CO2 causes respiratory rate to increase and counter the higher pressure of CO2; only when oxygen levels are very low does oxygen drive respiration

WHAT DOES A SPIROMETER DO?

measures the amount of air normally present in the lungs and the rate at which ventilation occurs

WHAT IS THE TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY IN HEALTHY HUMANS?

six to seven liters

WHAT IS THE TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY?

a measure of the maximum amount of air that can be held in the lungs

WHAT IS THE VITAL CAPACITY?

the greatest volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs after taking the deepest possible breath

WHAT IS THE RESIDUAL VOLUME?

the volume of air still remaining in the lungs after the most forcible expiration possible

WHY MUST THERE ALWAYS BE SOME AIR LEFT IN THE LUNGS AFTER EXHALATION?

otherwise the lungs would collapse

TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY IS THE SUM OF _________________ AND _________________.

vital capacity and residual capacity

WHAT IS THE TIDAL VOLUME?

the amount of air we take in by shallowly breathing in only what we need

WHAT IS THE EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME?

the additional amount of air that can be expired from the lungs by determined effort after normal expiration

WHAT IS THE INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME?

the additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after the inspiration of a normal tidal volume

TIDAL VOLUME, EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME, AND INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME ADD TO WHAT?

the vital capacity

HOW IS GAS EXCHANGE MEDIATED IN THE ALVEOLI?

partial pressures of CO2 and O2

WHAT WAS ONE OF THE MOST INFLUENTIAL THEORIES OF HUMAN BODY FUNCTION UP UNTIL THE 19TH CENTURY? WHAT DID IT SAY?

Humoural theory; the human body is composed of four fluids or humours--black bile, yellow bile, lymph, and blood

WHAT ARE THE THREE COMPONENTS OF THE CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM?

heart, blood vessels, and blood

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE RIGHT SIDE OF THE HEART?

to accept deoxygenated blood from the body and move it to the lungs for oxygenation

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE LEFT SIDE OF THE HEART?

to receive oxygenated blood from the lungs and circulate it to the rest of the body

WHAT ARE THE TWO CHAMBER TYPES FOUND IN THE HEART?

atria; ventricles

WHAT IS THE LARGEST ARTERY IN THE BODY?

the aorta

WHAT ARE THE THREE DIVISIONS OF ARTERIES FROM LARGEST TO SMALLEST?

arteries -> arterioles -> capillaries

WHAT ARE THE THREE DIVISIONS OF VEINS FROM LARGEST TO SMALLEST?

veins -> venules -> capillaries

DEOXYGENATED BLOOD ENTERS THE HEART THROUGH THE _________________ AND _____________________.

superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

WHAT ARE THE LARGEST VEINS IN THE BODY?

the superior and inferior vena cava

WHAT IS A PORTAL SYSTEM?

any system of blood vessels that has a capillary network at each end

WHAT DOES THE HEPATIC PORTAL SYSTEM CONNECT?

vasculature of the digestive tract and the liver

WHAT DOES THE HYPOPHYSEAL PORTAL SYSTEM CONNECT?

vasculature of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland

WHAT STRUCTURE FORMS THE BASE OF THE HEART?

the exterior wall of the right ventricle

THE HEART IS ONLY COMPRISED OF _____________ MUSCLE, AND THIS MUSCLE IS ONLY FOUND HERE.

cardiac

WHICH SIDE OF THE HEART IS MORE MUSCULAR? WHY?

left; it circulates blood to the entire body so it must be able to generate higher pressures than the right side

WHY ARE THERE VALVES IN THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM?

because it is critical that blood only moves in one direction

WHAT SEPARATE THE ATRIA AND VENTRICLES?

atrioventricular valves

WHAT IS THE RIGHT ATRIOVENTRICULAR VALVE CALLED?

tricuspid valve

WHAT IS THE LEFT ATRIOVENTRICULAR VALVE CALLED?

bicuspid valve or mitral valve

WHAT SEPARATES THE VENTRICLES FROM THE SURROUNDING VASCULATURE?

semilunar valves

WHAT IS THE RIGHT SEMILUNAR VALVE CALLED?

the pulmonic valve

WHAT IS THE LEFT SEMILUNAR VALVE CALLED?

the aortic valve

WHAT IS DIASTOLE?

ventricular relaxation

WHAT IS SYSTOLE?

ventricular contraction

WHAT ARE THE TWO PHASES OF A HEARTBEAT?

systole and diastole

WHAT HAPPENS DURING SYSTOLE (3)?

ventricles contract, AV valves close, blood enters aorta and pulmonary artery

WHAT HAPPENS DURING DIASTOLE (3)?

the ventricles relax, the semilunar valves close, and blood from the atria fills the ventricles

WHAT IS CARDIAC OUTPUT?

the measure of the total blood volume pumped by the ventricle in a minute

IS THERE A DIFFERENCE IN THE VOLUME OF BLOOD THAT PASSES THROUGH EACH VENTRICLE?

no

CARDIAC OUTPUT IS THE PRODUCT OF _______________ AND _______________.

heart rate and stroke volume

WHAT IS HEART RATE?

the number of beats per minute

WHAT IS STROKE VOLUME?

the volume of blood pumped per beat

WHAT IS THE AVERAGE TOTAL VOLUME OF BLOOD IN HUMANS?

5 liters

WHAT IS TYPICAL CARDIAC OUTPUT FOR HUMANS? WHY IS THIS SIGNIFICANT?

5L/min; the average blood volume is 5L

WHAT FOUR STRUCTURES ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE RHYTHMIC CONTRACTION OF THE HEART?

1. sinoatrial (SA) node


2. atrioventricular (AV) node


3. bundle of His (AV bundle)


4. Purkinje fibers

WHERE IS THE SITE OF IMPULSE INITIATION IN THE HEART?

sinoatrial (SA) node

WHAT IS ATRIAL KICK?

the extra blood volume pumped into the ventricles caused by the increase in pressure in the atria

THE SA NODE HAS AN INTRINSIC SIGNAL OF ______-_______ SIGNALS PER MINUTE.

60-100

PARASYMPATHETIC NEUROTRANSMITTERS SLOW THE HEART VIA THE ____________ NERVE AND SYMPATHETIC NEUROTRANSMITTERS SPEED UP THE HEART.

vagus

WHAT DO BETA BLOCKERS DO?

block sympathetic beta receptors and reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, which reduces the cardiac workload and the heart's need for oxygen

WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR TYPES OF BLOOD VESSELS?

arteries, veins, and capillaries

WHAT ARE ARTERIES?

strong, thick-walled structures that always carry blood away from the heart

WHAT ARE THE ONLY TWO ARTERIES THAT CARRY DEOXYGENATED BLOOD?

pulmonary artery and fetal umbilical artery

WHAT ARE VEINS?

thin-walled and inelastic vessels that transport blood to the heart

WHAT ARE THE ONLY TWO VEINS THAT CARRY OXYGENATED BLOOD?

pulmonary vein and fetal umbilical vein

DO ARTERIES OR VEINS HAVE MORE SMOOTH MUSCLE?

arteries

ARE ARTERIES AND VEINS MADE FROM THE SAME OR DIFFERENT STRUCTURES?

same

ARTERIES OFFER _________ RESISTANCE TO THE FLOW OF BLOOD.

higher

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF OUR TOTAL BLOOD VOLUME MAY BE IN VENOUS CIRCULATION AT ANY GIVEN MOMENT?

75%

WHERE IS VENOUS PRESSURE THE HIGHEST?

in the large, anti-gravity veins of the legs

HOW DO VEINS PREVENT BACKFLOW IN VENOUS CIRCULATION?

larger veins have one-way valves that are closed if blood starts to flow backward

WHAT CAUSES VARICOSE VEINS?

failure of the venous valves

HOW DO VEINS MOVE BLOOD FORWARD TOWARD THE HEART?

they use support of surrounding skeletal muscle the help move the blood against gravity

WHAT ARE CAPILLARIES?

blood vessels with a single endothelial layer, which allows for exchange of nutrients and gases

HOW SMALL ARE CAPILLARIES?

so small that blood cells must transverse them single file

WHAT CAUSES A BRUISE?

broken capillaries that cause blood to escape from the circulatory system

WHAT IS BLOOD PRESSURE A MEASURE OF?

the force per unit area that is exerted on the wall of the blood vessels

WHAT IS THE DEVICE CALLED THAT IS USED TO MEASURE BLOOD PRESSURE?

sphygmomanometer

WHAT DO SPHYGMOMANOMETERS MEASURE (BESIDES BLOOD PRESSURE)?

the gauge pressure in the circulatory system (pressure above atmospheric pressure)

THE LARGEST BLOOD PRESSURE DROP OCCURS WHERE? WHY IS THIS NECESSARY?

across the arterioles; because the veins and capillaries are thin-walled and could not support the pressure in the arteries

BY VOLUME, BLOOD IS ____% LIQUID AND _____% CELLS.

55; 45

WHAT IS PLASMA?

the liquid portion of the blood that is an aqueous mixture of nutrients, salts, respiratory gases, hormones, and blood proteins

WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR CELLULAR COMPONENTS OF THE BLOOD?

erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets

WHAT ARE ERYTHROCYTES?

specialized cells designed for oxygen transport (RBC)

HOW DO RED BLOOD CELLS CARRY OXYGEN?

using hemoglobin (each cell has about 250 million molecules of hemoglobin)

WHAT IS THE NAME FOR THE SHAPE OF RED BLOOD CELLS?

biconcave

WHAT ARE THE BLOOD STEM CELLS?

hematopoietic stem cells

WHERE IS THE ENVIRONMENTAL NICHE OF HSCs?

in the bone marrow surrounded by stromal cells

AS RED BLOOD CELLS MATURE, THEY LOSE _________, ____________, AND __________. WHY DOES THIS HAPPEN?

mitochondria, nuclei, and other membranous organelles; to make room for more oxygen storage

WHAT IS THE SIGNIFICANCE OF RED BLOOD CELLS NOT HAVING MITOCHONDRIA? WHAT IS THE SIGNIFICANCE OF THEM NOT HAVING NUCLEI?

cannot do aerobic respiration; cannot divide

ABOUT HOW MANY ERTHYROCYTES ARE PRESENT IN ONE MILLILITER OF BLOOD?

5 million

WHEN DOES LEUKOCYTE NUMBER INCREASE?

during infection

WHAT ARE LEUKOCYTES?

white blood cells; crucial parts of the immune system that act as our defenders against pathogens and foreign cells

WHAT ARE THE TWO BROAD CLASSES OF LEUKOCYTES?

granulocytes and agranulocytes

WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF GRANULOCYTES?

neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

HOW ARE GRANULOCYTES AND AGRANULOCYTES DIFFERENT?

granulocytes have cytoplasmic granules that are visible under microscopy; agranulocytes appear smoother

WHAT IS THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF GRANULOCYTES? WHAT FUNCTIONS ARE THEY INVOLVED IN (4)?

they contain materials that are toxic to invading microbes and are involved in inflammatory reactions, allergies, pus formation, and destruction of bacteria and parasites

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF AGRANULOCYTES?

monocytes and lymphocytes

WHAT IS THE SPECIFIC IMMUNE RESPONSE? WHAT CELLS (PRIMARILY) DOES THIS USE?

the body's targeted fight against particular pathogens such as viruses and bacteria; lymphocytes

WHAT ARE THE THREE LOCATIONS OF LYMPHOCYTE MATURATION?

spleen, lymph nodes, thymus

WHAT ARE T-CELLS?

a type of lymphocyte cell that matures in the thymus and is responsible for killing virally infected cells and activating other immune cells

WHAT ARE B-CELLS?

a type of lymphocyte cell that matures in either the spleen or the lymph nodes and is responsible for antibody generation

WHAT DO MONOCYTES DO?

phagocytize foreign matter such as bacteria

ONCE MONOCYTES LEAVE THE BONE MARROW, WHAT ARE THEY CALLED? WHAT ARE THEY CALLED IN THE BRAIN?

macrophages; microglia

WHAT ARE PLATELETS?

cell fragments derived from the breakup of cells (megakaryocytes) in the bone marrow that function to clot blood

WHAT ARE MEGAKARYOCYTES?

large bone marrow cells that are responsible for the production of blood platelets

WHAT ARE ANTIGENS?

surface proteins expressed by a cell that may initiate an organism's immune system

WHAT ARE THE TWO ANTIGEN GROUPS RELATED TO BLOOD?

ABO group and Rh factor

WHAT IS THE UNIVERSAL RBC RECIPIENT?

AB

WHAT IS THE UNIVERSAL RBC DONOR?

O

WHY IS MATCHING BLOOD TYPE CRITICAL?

because if the recipient's body has antibodies against the blood, then hemolysis (the rupture or destruction of red blood cells) will occur which can be fatal

WHAT IS ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS?

a condition where the mother has antibodies to the fetus' blood and the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and attack the fetal erythrocytes, resulting in their death

HOW ARE RED BLOOD CELLS DESTROYED?

they circulate for about 120 days and then they are destroyed in the liver or spleen and are recycled for parts

WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR FUNCTIONS OF THE CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM?

1. circulation of nutrients and wastes


2. production and delivery of immune cells


3. resistance against damaged blood vessels

WHAT IS HEMOGLOBIN?

a protein in the blood that carries oxygen using a heme group; it is made up of four separate but interacting chains/subunits

WHAT DOES COOPERATIVE BINDING MEAN IN REGARD TO HEMOGLOBIN?

as the first oxygen binds to the heme group, it induces a conformational shift in the shape of the hemoglobin, which makes it easier for subsequent molecules of oxygen to bind; the opposite is also true; once one oxygen leaves, it makes it easier for others to leave

WHAT IS THE SHAPE OF THE CLASSIC HEMOGLOBIN-BINDING CURVE?

sigmoidal

DOES HEMOGLOBIN HAVE A HIGHER AFFINITY FOR OXYGEN OR CARBON DIOXIDE?

oxygen

MOST OF THE CARBON DIOXIDE CARRIED IN THE BLOOD IS CARRIED AS ____________.

bicarbonate ions

INCREASED PROTON CONCENTRATION SHIFTS THE HEMOGLOBIN BINDING CURVE TO THE __________.

right

WHAT IS THE BOHR EFFECT?

a decrease in the amount of oxygen associated with hemoglobin and other respiratory compounds in response to a lowered blood pH resulting from an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood

WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT BUFFER SYSTEM FOR THE BLOOD?

carbonic acid-bicarbonate solutions

WHAT MUST BLOOD pH CENTER AROUND?

7.4

WHAT IS AN INCREASED BLOOD ACIDITY CALLED?

acidosis

WHAT IS AN INCREASED BLOOD BASICITY CALLED?

alkalosis

WHAT ARE TWO WAYS IN WHICH THE BODY CAN DEAL WITH ALTERED BLOOD pH?

increase or decrease respiration rate and kidneys can increase or decrease the amount of bicarbonate ion secreted into the nephron filtrate

HOW DO CARBOHYDRATES AND AMINO ACIDS ENTER THE BLOOD?

they are absorbed in the small intestine capillaries and enter circulation via the hepatic portal system

HOW DO FATS ENTER THE BLOOD?

fats are absorbed into lateals in the small intestine and they bypass the liver and enter systemic circulation via the thoracic duct

HOW DO WASTES ENTER THE BLOOD?

they enter throughout the body as they travel down their concentration gradients from tissues into the capillaries

WHAT ARE THE TWO GRADIENTS THAT ARE ESSENTIAL FOR MAINTAINING A PROPER BALANCE OF FLUID VOLUME IN THE BODY? WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR THESE FORCES?

hydrostatic and oncotic (osmotic) pressures; Starling forces

HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE IS ____________ IN ARTERIOLES THAN IN VENULES.

higher

WHAT CAUSES EDEMA?

accumulation of excess fluid in the interstitium

THROUGH WHAT STRUCTURE DOES LYMPHATIC FLUID RETURN TO THE CENTRAL CIRCULATORY SYSTEM?

thoracic duct

WHAT IS HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE?

the pressure exerted by a fluid at equilibrium at a given point within the fluid, due to the force of gravity

WHAT IS ONCOTIC PRESSURE?

a form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins, notably albumin, in a blood vessel's plasma (blood/liquid) that usually tends to pull water into the circulatory system

HOW DO PLATELETS SENSE INJURY?

they come into contact with collagen, which is most likely released from damaged connective tissue

WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT CHEMICAL RELEASED BY PLATELETS? WHAT DOES IT DO?

thromboplastin; converts prothrombin to thrombin; thrombin then converts fibrinogen into fibrin, which makes little fibers that aggregate in a woven structure like a net

WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR THE PROCESS OF BLOOD CLOTTING?

thrombus formation

WHAT ARE NONSPECIFIC DEFENSES?

things like the skin that serve as a barrier against all infection

WHAT ARE THE FOUR MAJOR ORGANS OF THE IMMUNE SYSTEM?

lymph nodes, spleen, bone marrow, thymus

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE THYMUS?

secretes thymosin, which is a hormone that stimulates T-cell maturation

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE SPLEEN?

blood storage and filters blood and lymph

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE LYMPH NODES?

filter lymph and help attack bacteria and viruses

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE BONE MARROW?

immune cell production

WHAT IS INNATE IMMUNITY?

nonspecific defense mechanisms that come into play immediately or within hours of an antigen's appearance in the body; these mechanisms include physical barriers such as skin, chemicals in the blood, and immune system cells that attack foreign cells in the body (nonspecific immunity); response carried out without learning

WHAT IS ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY?

antigen-specific immune response; takes longer but is highly specific

WHAT ARE THE TWO SUBCLASSIFICATIONS OF THE SPECIFIC IMMUNE SYSTEM?

humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity

WHAT IS AUTOIMMUNITY?

a condition where a person's immune system does not recognize its own cells and attacks them as if they were foreign invader cells

WHAT ARE ALLERGIES?

an oversensitization to a particular foreign particle by the immune system; the foreign particle is marked as dangerous, even though it is not

WHAT IS THE FIRST LINE OF IMMUNE DEFENSE?

the skin

HOW DO THE TEARS PROTECT AGAINST INFECTION?

contain lysozyme

HOW DOES SWEAT PROTECT AGAINST INFECTION?

it contains an enzyme that degrades bacterial cell walls

WHAT IS AN EXAMPLE OF A CHEMICAL THAT CALLS MACROPHAGES TO A SITE OF INFLAMMATION?

histamine

WHAT DOES HISTAMINE CAUSE?

vasodilation that allows macrophages to move out of the bloodstream and into the tissue

NONSPECIFIC IMMUNITY WORKS BEST WITH WHAT TYPES OF FOREIGN INVADERS?

extracellular pathogens, like bacteria

WHAT ARE FIVE TYPES OF CELLS THAT ARE INVOLVED IN INNATE IMMUNITY?

macrophages, mast cells, granulocytes, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells

WHAT IS INTERFERON?

a protein that prevents viral replication and dispersion

WHAT IS THE DOWNFALL OF THE INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM?

it cannot be adapted to act more efficiently over time

WHAT IS IMMUNOLOGICAL MEMORY?

the ability of the immune system to respond more rapidly and effectively to a pathogen that has been encountered previously

WHAT DO MACROPHAGES DO?

engulf and consume pathogen invaders

WHAT DO MAST CELLS DO?

release histamine and other chemicals that promote inflammation

WHAT DO DENDRITIC CELLS DO?

present antigens to adaptive immune cells, which induces the cells to attack bearers of that antigen

WHAT DO NATURAL KILLER CELLS DO?

destroy the body's own cells that are infected with pathogens or cancerous cells

WHAT TWO CELLS TYPES ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY?

T-cells and B-cells

HUMORAL IMMUNITY INVOLVES THE PRODUCTION OF _______________.

antibodies

WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR ANTIBODIES?

immunoglobulins

WHAT ARE THE TWO PARTS OF ANTIBODIES CALLED? WHAT IS THE OTHER REGION CALLED?

heavy chain and light chain; constant region

EACH ANTIGEN HAS A ________________________ AT THE TWO TOP TIPS OF THE Y SHAPE.

antigen-binding region

HOW DO ANTIBODIES WORK?

they have specific antigen-binding regions that have amino acid sequences that will only bind to one antigenic sequence

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE CONSTANT REGION OF AN ANTIBODY?

recruitment and binding of other immune modulators

WHAT TWO INTERACTIONS HOLD THE HEAVY AND LIGHT CHAINS TOGETHER?

disulfide bonds and noncovalent interactions

WHY DO WE NOT WANT ALL OF OUR B-CELLS TO BE ACTIVE AT ONCE?

antibody production is an energetically expensive process, so there is no reason to expend excess energy producing antibodies that are not needed

WHAT ARE THE TWO DAUGHTER CELLS OF B-CELLS?

plasma cells and memory cells

WHAT DO PLASMA CELLS DO?

produce large amounts of antibodies

WHAT DO MEMORY CELLS DO?

stay in the lymph nodes for use upon re-exposure to the same antigen

WHAT IS THE PRIMARY RESPONSE IN HUMORAL IMMUNITY?

the initial activation of B-cells to form plasma cells and memory cells specifically for a pathogen the first time it is encountered

WHAT IS THE SECONDARY RESPONSE IN HUMORAL IMMUNITY?

the second time a pathogen is encountered, the memory cells are already there, so the response will be more rapid and robust

HOW DO VACCINES WORK?

they expose the immune system to a certain pathogen to create antibodies and memory cells for it so that upon exposure a second time, the immune system can easily get rid of it

WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR TYPES OF T-CELLS?

helper T-cells, suppressor T-cells, and killer (cytotoxic) T-cells

WHAT DO HELPER T-CELLS DO?

they coordinate immune response by secreting lymphokines, which are capable of recruiting other immune cells

WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR HELPER T-CELLS? WHY?

T4 cells; because they express CD4 cell-surface proteins

WHAT DISEASE DESTROYS HELPER T-CELLS? WHAT DOES THIS LOSS CAUSE?

HIV; prevention of adequate immune response to infection

WHAT ARE CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS?

cells that are capable of directly killing virally infected cells by secreting toxic chemicals

WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS? WHY?

T8 cells; because they express the cell-surface protein CD8

WHAT DO SUPPRESSOR T-CELLS DO?

help to tone down the immune response once the infection has been adequately contained

T-CELLS BIND DO ANTIGENS PRESENTED BY _________________________________ MOLECULES AT A CELL'S SURFACE.

major histocompatibility complex I

WHAT CAN BE USED TO PREVENT ORGAN REJECTION DUE TO IMMUNOLOGICAL RESPONSE?

immunosuppressants

WHAT ARE IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS?

drugs that prevent activation of the immune system

HOW ARE MAJOR HISTOCOMPATIBILITY COMPLEX I PROTEINS EXPRESSED?

cells regularly degrade some of their proteins and present them to T-cells using MHC class I receptors

WHAT ARE THE TWO FORMS OF IMMUNIZATIONS?

active and passive

WHAT IS ACTIVE IMMUNIZATION?

an immunization where the immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific pathogen by either natural or artificial means

WHAT IS PASSIVE IMMUNIZATION?

an immunization that results from the transfer of antibodies to an individual from an immunized individual

WHAT IS THE MAJOR DIFFERENCE BETWEEN NATURAL AND ARTIFICIAL MEANS OF IMMUNIZATION?

artificial immunization is not accompanied by an actual infection caused by that pathogen

THE LYMPH SYSTEM PARALLELS THE ________ SYSTEM.

venous

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF HAVING LYMPH TISSUE AROUND THE CAPILLARIES?

it collects the excess fluid that escapes the capillaries and returns it to the circulatory system

WHAT IS AN ANALGESIC?

a medication that acts to relieve pain

WHAT IS HOMEOSTASIS?

the tendency toward a relatively stable equilibrium between interdependent elements that are maintained by physiological processes

WHAT IS THE FUNCTIONAL UNIT OF THE KIDNEY?

the nephron

WHAT ARE THE TWO MAJOR PARTS OF THE KIDNEY?

cortex and medulla

WHAT IS A RENAL HILUM?

a deep slit in the center of the kidney's medial surface

WHAT IS THE RENAL PELVIS?

the widest part of the ureter

THE _______________, ____________________, AND ____________________ ENTER AND EXIT THROUGH THE RENAL HILUM.

renal artery, renal vein, ureter

THE KIDNEY HAS ONE OF THE FEW _____________________________ IN THE BODY.

portal systems

THE RENAL ARTERY BRANCHES OUT AND TRAVELS THROUGH THE MEDULLA AND INTO THE CORTEX AS ______________________.

afferent arterioles

THE CAPILLARIES DERIVED FROM AFFERENT ARTERIOLES ARE KNOWN AS _________________.

glomeruli

AFTER BLOOD FROM THE AFFERENT ARTERIOLES PASSES THROUGH THE GLOMERULI IN THE KIDNEYS, THE __________________________ LEAD THE BLOOD AWAY FROM IT.

efferent arterioles

WHAT IS UNIQUE ABOUT PORTAL SYSTEM CAPILLARIES?

the glomerular capillaries lead to a second set of arterioles and not to venules

WHAT IS BOWMAN'S CAPSULE?

the cuplike structure in the kidney that surrounds the complex net of capillaries; a capsule-shaped membranous structure surrounding the glomerulus of each nephron in the kidneys

FROM BOWMAN'S CAPSULE, WHAT ARE THE DISTINCT AREAS OF THE TUBULES IN THE KIDNEY, IN ORDER (5)?

1. proximal convoluted tubule


2. descending limbs of the loop of Henle


3. ascending limbs of the loop of Henle


4. distal convoluted tubule


5. collecting duct

WHAT ARE THE THREE MAIN FUNCTIONS OF THE KIDNEYS?

1. filtration


2. secretion


3. reabsorption

IN THE KIDNEYS, APPROXIMATELY _______ PERCENT OF THE BLOOD THAT PASSES THROUGH THE GLOMERULUS IS FILTERED INTO BOWMAN'S SPACE.

20

WHAT IS THE COLLECTED FLUID IN THE KIDNEYS CALLED?

filtrate

WHAT IS DIFFERENT BETWEEN BLOOD AND THE FILTRATE IN THE KIDNEYS?

the filtrate doesn't have cells or proteins in it because the filter has the ability to select via size

HOW DO THE GLOMERULI FILTER THE BLOOD?

molecules that are larger than the glomerulus pores will remain in the blood; everything else is filtered out

AFTER BLOOD IS FILTERED IN THE GLOMERULI IN THE KIDNEY, WHERE ARE THE NEXT TWO PLACES THAT IT GOES?

efferent arterioles and the vasa recta

THE KIDNEYS CAN FILTER THE ENTIRE BLOOD VOLUME ABOUT ______ TIMES PER DAY.

36

IN ADDITION TO THEIR ABILITY TO FILTER BLOOD, NEPHRONS CAN SECRETE __________, ____________, ___________, AND _____________ INTO THE TUBULE BY BOTH ACTIVE AND PASSIVE TRANSPORT.

salts, acids, bases, and urea

WHAT ARE TWO PURPOSES OF KIDNEY SECRETION?

to get rid of ions that are in excess in the blood and to excrete wastes that are too large for the glomerulus pores

WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF KIDNEY REABSORPTION?

to sort through the filtered materials and allow important materials such as glucose and amino acids to re-enter the blood

THE KIDNEYS MAKE USE OF __________________ AND _________________ GRADIENTS TO SUPPORT ALL OF THEIR TASKS.

selective permeability; osmolarity

WHAT MUST BE TRUE ABOUT COMPOUNDS THAT ARE MEANT TO BE REABSORBED?

they must be able to leave the filtrate via selective permeability

WHAT HAPPENS WHEN A COMPOUND THAT WAS MEANT TO BE REABSORBED CANNOT LEAVE THE FILTRATE?

it gets excreted

WHAT MATERIALS CAN BE REABSORBED BY THE PROXIMAL AND DISTAL TUBULES?

most substances, including water

WHAT MATERIALS CAN BE REABSORBED BY THE ASCENDING LIMBS OF THE LOOP OF HENLE?

permeable to salt (NOT water)

WHAT MATERIALS CAN BE REABSORBED BY THE DESCENDING LIMBS OF THE LOOP OF HENLE?

permeable to water (NOT salt)

WHEN THE BODY IS WELL HYDRATED, THE COLLECTING DUCT WILL BE FAIRLY IMPERMEABLE TO ______________.

salt AND water

WHEN THE BODY NEEDS WATER, WHAT DO THE KIDNEYS DO TO HELP THIS?

antidiuretic hormones signal the collecting ducts in the kidneys to become permeable to water so that more water can be reabsorbed into the blood

WHAT IS THE INTERSTITIUM?

the tissue surrounding the kidney tubules

HOW DOES THE KIDNEY CONTROL HOW MUCH WATER IS REABSORBED?

alters the osmolarity of the interstitium and the selective permeability of the kidney tubule

WHAT IS A COUNTERCURRENT MULTIPLIER SYSTEM?

a mechanism that expends energy to create a concentration gradient

WHAT TWO HORMONES ARE USED TO ALTER THE PERMEABILITY OF THE COLLECTING DUCT?

aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

WHAT IS ALDOSTERONE?

a steroid hormone that is secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to decreased blood volume; it alters the ability of the collecting duct to reabsorb sodium (water moves with sodium); this increases blood pressure

WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR THE ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE?

vasopressin

WHAT IS VASOPRESSIN?

a peptide hormone that directly alters the permeability of the collecting duct in the kidneys; it makes the ducts leaky so more water can be reabsorbed; this increases blood pressure

WHAT TWO SUBSTANCES INTERFERE WITH VASOPRESSIN (MAKING YOU PEE MORE)?

caffeine and alcohol

ALDOSTERONE __________ BLOOD PRESSURE AND VASOPRESSIN _____________ BLOOD PRESSURE.

increases; increases

HOW DOES ALDOSTERONE ALTER BLOOD PRESSURE?

by increasing sodium reabsorption, which causes water to follow and also be reabsorbed

HOW DOES VASOPRESSIN ALTER BLOOD PRESSURE?

by altering the permeability of the collecting duct by making the duct more leaky to water so that it will re-enter the interstitium

THE ______________ IS ESSENTIALLY THE POINT OF NO RETURN IN THE KIDNEYS (THINGS GET EXCRETED AFTER THIS POINT).

collecting duct

URINE IS EXCRETED THROUGH THE ___________ AND IS STORED IN THE ___________.

urethra; bladder

WHAT ARE THREE COMPOUNDS THAT SHOULD ALWAYS BE ABSENT FROM HEALTHY URINE?

glucose, blood, and proteins

DOES THE KIDNEY REGULATE ACID-BASE BALANCE?

yes

HOW DOES THE KIDNEY REMOVE SOLUBLE, NITROGENOUS WASTE?

removal of soluble nitrogenous waste


Urine = concentrated urea in water, with some salt.


Urea = harmless form of toxic ammonia = nitrogenous waste.


Amino acids → Ammonia → Urea → peed out

IN ADDITION TO ASSISTING WITH DIGESTION, WHAT OTHER TWO FUNCTIONS DOES THE LIVER SERVE?

regulates blood-glucose levels and assisting with elimination of nitrogenous waste through urea

THE LIVER CAN MAKE GLUCOSE USING WHAT BIOLOGICAL PROCESS?

gluconeogenesis

THE LIVER IS A STORAGE SITE FOR _________.

glucose

HOW DOES THE BODY PREVENT BUILDUP OF TOXIC AMMONIA?

it combines it with carbon dioxide (e.g. in the liver) after deamination of amino acids to make urea

WHERE IS BILE PRODUCED?

the liver

THE LARGE INTESTINE CAN EXCRETE SUBSTANCES LIKE _____________ AND ______________ TO MAINTAIN HOMEOSTASIS.

calcium and iron

SKIN MAKES UP ABOUT _____% OF OUR BODY WEIGHT, ON AVERAGE.

16

WHAT ARE THE THREE LAYERS OF THE SKIN FROM OUTERMOST TO INNERMOST?

1. epidermis


2. dermis


3. hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)

WHAT ARE THE FIVE STRATA OF THE EPIDERMIS FROM THE SURFACE OF THE SKIN IN?

1. stratum corneum


2. stratum lucidum


3. stratum granulosum


4. stratum spinosum


5. stratum basalis

WHICH LAYER OF THE EPIDERMIS IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ITS PROLIFERATION?

stratum basalis; all overlying layers result from skin cells that have been pushed up from the stratum basalis

WHAT ARE THE TWO LAYERS OF THE DERMIS FROM OUTSIDE IN?

1. papillary layer


2. reticular layer

WHAT DOES THE PAPILLARY LAYER OF THE DERMIS CONSIST OF?

loose connective tissue

WHICH LAYER OF THE SKIN IS A LAYER OF CONNECTIVE TISSUE THAT CONNECTS OUR SKIN TO OUR BODIES?

hypodermis

WHAT ARE MELANOCYTES?

epidermal cells that secrete melanin, which helps keep us safe from UV light and DNA damage

WHAT DOES MELANIN DO?

protects the skin cells from UV light and subsequent DNA damage

WHAT IS THERMOREGULATION?

the process that allows the human body to maintain its core internal temperature

WHAT ARE ANIMALS THAT MAINTAIN A CONSTANT BODY TEMPERATURE CALLED?

endotherms or homeotherms

WHAT ARE ANIMALS CALLED WHOSE BODY TEMPERATURE DEPENDS ON THE EXTERNAL ENVIRONMENT?

ectotherms or poikilotherms

WHAT IS TORPOR?

a state of physical or mental inactivity; decreased arousal and bodily activity

WHAT IS ESTIVATION?

prolonged torpor or dormancy of an animal during a hot or dry period

WHAT IS HIBERNATION?

a state of inactivity and metabolic depression in endotherms that occurs in the winter months

WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF SIGNALING USED BY THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM?

autocrine, paracrine, endocrine

WHAT IS AUTOCRINE SIGNALING?

a form of cell signaling in which a cell secretes a hormone or chemical messenger that binds to autocrine receptors on that same cell, leading to changes in the cell

WHAT IS PARACRINE SIGNALING?

a form of cell-cell communication in which a cell produces a signal to induce changes in nearby cells, altering the behavior or differentiation of those cells

WHAT IS ENDOCRINE SIGNALING?

signaling that occurs when endocrine cells release hormones that act on distant target cells in the body

LIST EIGHT ORGANS IN THE BODY CAPABLE OF ENDOCRINE SIGNALING.

1. hypothalamus


2. pituitary gland


3. testes/ovaries (gonads)


4. pineal gland


5. kidneys


6. gastrointestinal glands


7. heart


8. thymus

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE ISLETS OF LANGERHANS?

make the hormones insulin and glucagon to help maintain glucose homeostasis

WHAT ARE THE TWO VARIETIES OF HORMONES?

peptides and steriods

WHERE IS THE HYPOTHALAMUS LOCATED?

in the forebrain directly above the pituitary gland and below the thalamus

HOW DOES THE HYPOTHALAMUS CONTROL THE PITUITARY GLAND (BROAD)?

paracrine signaling into a portal system that directly connects the two organs

WHAT ARE THE TWO PARTS OF THE PITUITARY GLAND CALLED?

the anterior and posterior pituitary gland

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE PORTAL SYSTEM THAT IS USED BY THE HYPOTHALAMS/PITUITARY GLAND?

hypophyseal portal system

_________________ IS THE MEDICAL NAME FOR THE PITUITARY GLAND.

hypophysis

WHAT ARE THE SEVEN PRODUCTS OF THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY?

1. FSH


2. LH


3. ACTH


4. TSH


5. Prolactin


6. Endorphins


7. GH


(FLAT PEG)

IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF GONADOTROPIN-RELEASING HORMONE (GnRH) LEADS TO THE RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY?

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)

IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF GROWTH HORMONE-RELEASING HORMONE (GHRH) LEADS TO THE RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY?

growth hormone (GH)

IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF PROLACTIN INHIBITORY FACTOR (PIF) LEADS TO BLOCKED RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY?

Prolactin

IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF THYROID-RELEASING HORMONE (TRH) LEADS TO THE RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY?

thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF CORTICOTROPIN-RELEASING FACTOR (CRF) LEADS TO THE RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

HOW DO THE PITUITARY AND THE HYPOTHALAMUS REGULATE THE AMOUNT OF HORMONES IN CIRCULATION? WHY IS THIS IMPORTANT?

feedback inhibition; too much hormone or too little hormone can be detrimental to health

WHICH LOBE OF THE PITUITARY HAS A DIRECT CONNECTION WITH THE HYPOTHALAMUS?

the anterior

HOW DOES THE HYPOTHALAMUS COMMUNICATE WITH THE POSTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND?

neuronal signaling

WHAT ARE THE TWO HORMONES RELEASED BY THE POSTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND?

oxytocin and vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone)

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF ROLES THAT ANTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND HORMONES CAN HAVE?

direct or tropic

WHAT ARE DIRECT HORMONES?

hormones that bind to receptors on the target cells and have a direct effect

WHAT ARE TROPIC HORMONES?

hormones that bind to receptors on cells and cause the release of effector hormones (acting as an intermediate)

WHICH OF THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY HORMONES ARE TROPIC?

FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH

WHICH OF THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY HORMONES ARE DIRECT?

Prolactin, Endorphins, GH

WHAT DOES GROWTH HORMONE (GH) DO?

promotes growth of bone and muscle along with preventing glucose uptake in certain cells and stimulating the breakdown of fatty acids

IN CHILDREN, AN EXCESS OF GROWTH HORMONE CAN CAUSE _______________. A DEFICIT OF GROWTH HORMONE CAN CAUSE ________________.

gigantism; dwarfism

WHAT DOES AN EXCESS OF GROWTH HORMONE IN ADULTS CAUSE?

acromegaly; abnormal growth of the hands, feet, and face

WHAT DOES PROLACTIN DO?

stimulates milk production in the mammary glands

WHAT DO ENDORPHINS DO?

decrease the perception of pain

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF ADRENOCORTICOTROPIC HORMONE?

it induces the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids, like cortisol

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THYROID STIMULATING HORMONE?

stimulates the thyroid to take up iodine and release thyroid hormone

WHAT DOES OXYTOCIN DO?

helps maintain rhythmic contractions during childbirth and may also stimulate milk production

BLOOD OSMOLARITY IS SENSED BY _________________ AND BLOOD VOLUME IS SENSED BY _______________.

osmoreceptors and baroreceptors

WHAT ARE THE TWO MAJOR FUNCTIONS OF THE THYROID GLAND?

basal metabolic rate and calcium homeostasis

THE THYROID CONTROLS BASAL METABOLIC RATE WITH _______________ AND _________________ AND CALCIUM LEVELS WITH _________________.

thyroxine and triiodothyronine; calcitonin

HOW ARE THE THYROID HORMONES PRODUCED?

iodination of the amino acid tyrosine in follicular cells of the thyroid

WHAT IS HYPOTHYROIDISM? WHAT ARE TWO THINGS THAT CAN CAUSE IT?

thyroid hormones are secreted in insufficient amounts or not at all; iodine deficiency and inflammation of the thyroid

WHAT IS CRETINISM?

mental retardation and developmental delay caused by hypothyroidism at birth

WHAT IS HYPERTHYROIDISM? WHAT ARE TWO THINGS THAT CAN CAUSE IT?

an excess production of thyroid hormones; a tumor or overstimulation of the thyroid

CALCITONIN IS PRODUCED BY ___________ IN THE THYROID.

C-cells

WHAT ARE THE THREE WAYS IN WHICH CALCITONIN DECREASES THE AMOUNT OF CALCIUM CIRCULATING IN THE PLASMA?

1. increased excretion from kidneys


2. decreased absorption from the gut


3. increased storage in bone

WHAT ARE THE PARATHYROID GLANDS?

four small pea-shaped structures that sit on the posterior surface of the thyroid

WHAT DOES PARATHYROID HORMONE DO?

serves as an antagonist to calcitonin and increases calcium levels in the plasma AND activates vitamin D to its active form

WHAT HORMONES ARE SECRETED BY THE ADRENAL CORTEX?

corticosteroids

WHAT ARE THE THREE FUNCTIONAL CLASSES OF CORTICOSTEROIDS?

glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and cortical sex hormones

WHAT ARE TWO EXAMPLES OF GLUCOCORTICOIDS?

cortisol and cortisone

WHAT IS THE STRESS HORMONE?

cortisol

WHAT ARE THREE FUNCTIONS OF GLUCOCORTICOIDS?

1. increase gluconeogenesis


2. decrease protein synthesis


3. decrease inflammation and immune response

WHAT ARE THE THREE STEPS IN THE PRECURSOR MOLECULE THAT STIMULATES ALDOSTERONE?

angiotensinogen -> angiotensin I -> angiotensin II

WHAT ARE THE MALE SEX HORMONES CALLED?

androgens

WHAT TWO HORMONES ARE SECRETED BY THE ADRENAL MEDULLA?

epinephrine and norepinephrine

EPINEPHRINE AND NOREPINEPHRINE ARE TWO HORMONES THAT BELONG TO A CLASS OF MOLECULES CALLED ___________________.

catecholamines

HOW DOES EPINEPHRINE AFFECT BLOOD SUGAR?

it increases the conversion of glycogen back to glucose in both liver and muscle tissue

WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF ISLET CELLS IN THE PANCREAS?

alpha, beta, and delta

WHAT DO ALPHA ISLET CELLS IN THE PANCREAS DO?

secrete glucagon

WHAT DO BETA ISLET CELLS IN THE PANCREAS DO?

produce insulin

WHAT DO DELTA ISLET CELLS IN THE PANCREAS DO?

make somatostatin

GLUCAGON STIMULATES WHAT FOUR THINGS?

breakdown of fats, breakdown of proteins, breakdown of glycogen to glucose, stimulation of gluconeogenesis

INSULIN STIMULATES WHAT FOUR THINGS?

storage of glucose as glycogen, fat synthesis, protein synthesis, and glycolysis

WHAT IS HYPOGLYCEMIA?

low blood glucose levels

WHAT IS DIABETES MELLITUS?

excess glucose in the blood caused by underproduction of insulin, insufficient secretion of insulin, or insensitivity to insulin

WHAT IS HYPERGLYCEMIA?

high blood glucose levels

WHAT IS POLYURIA?

increased frequency of urination

WHAT IS POLYDIPSIA?

increased thirst

WHAT CAUSES TYPE I DIABETES?

autoimmune destruction of the beta islet cells in the pancreas

WHAT CAUSES TYPE II DIABETES?

the body resisting the effects of insulin at its receptor

WHAT DOES SOMATOSTATIN DO?

inhibits both insulin and glucagon

WHAT IS ANDROGEN INSENSITIVITY SYNDROME? WHAT CAUSES IT?

a disease where a genetic male has secondary female characteristics; lack of testosterone receptors or deficient testosterone production

WHAT ARE THE TWO HORMONES THAT ARE IMPORTANT TO THE STIMULATION OF STRUCTURES IN THE GONADS?

FSH and LH

WHAT DOES ESTROGEN DO?

stimulates the development and maintenance of secondary female characteristics as well as a thickening of the endometrium each month in preparation for pregnancy

WHAT TWO STRUCTURES SECRETE ESTROGENS?

corpus luteum and ovarian follicles

WHAT DOES PROGESTERONE DO? WHERE IS IT RELEASED FROM?

stimulates the development and maintenance of the emdometrium; corpus luteum

WHAT IS THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE?

the growing and shedding of the endometrial lining in females every month

WHAT ARE THE FOUR PHASES OF THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE?

follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase, menstruation

WHAT IS THE DECIDUA?

the thick layer of modified mucous membrane that lines the uterus during pregnancy and is shed with the afterbirth

THE FOLLICULAR PHASE BEGINS WITH ________________________. WHAT HAPPENS DURING THIS PHASE?

menstrual flow; the uterine lining of the previous cycle is shed

WHAT IS OVULATION? WHAT CAUSES IT?

the release of the ovum from the ovary into the abdominal cavity; surges in GnRH, LH and FSH levels (surge in LH is especially important)

WHAT HAPPENS DURING THE LUTEAL PHASE OF MENSTRUATION?

LH causes the ruptured follicle to form the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone and causes progesterone levels to rise while estrogen levels remain high; this causes negative feedback on GnRH, LH, and FSH, which prevents multiple eggs from developing in the same cycle

WHAT HAPPENS DURING THE MENSTRUATION PHASE OF THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE?

if implantation doesn't occur, hCG is not produced to stimulate the corpus luteum, so progesterone levels decline and the uterine lining is sloughed off.

IF FERTILIZATION OCCURS, THE CORPUS LUTEUM IS MAINTAINED BY _________.

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

WHAT HORMONE CHANGES ACCOMPANY MENOPAUSE?

decreased estrogen and progesterone and increased FSH and LH (no feedback) due to decreased responsiveness of the ovaries

WHAT HORMONE IS SECRETED BY THE PINNEAL GLAND?

melatonin

WHAT ARE CIRCADIAN RYTHYMS?

physical, mental and behavioral changes that follow a roughly 24-hour cycle, responding primarily to light and darkness in an organism's environment

WHAT ARE THREE IMPORTANT GASTROINTESTINAL PEPTIDES?

secretin, gastrin, cholecystokinin

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF ERYTHROPOIETIN? WHERE IS IT PRODUCED?

to stimulate the bone marrow to produce erythrocytes (RBC); kidneys

WHAT HORMONE IS SECRETED BY THE HEART? WHAT IS ITS FUNCTION?

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP); helps regulate salt and water balance

WHAT HORMONE IS RELEASED BY THE THYMUS? WHAT IS ITS FUNCTION?

thymosin; important for proper T-cell development and differentiation

WHAT HAPPENS TO THE THYMUS IN ADULTHOOD?

it atrophies

WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR CLASSES OF HORMONES?

peptide hormones, steroid hormones, and amino acid-derived hormones

WHAT IS A MAJOR EXAMPLE OF A SECOND MESSENGER?

cAMP

WHAT CATALYZES THE CONVERSION OF AMP TO cAMP?

adenylyl cyclase

PEPTIDE HORMONES ACT AS _____________ MESSENGERS.

primary

WHAT IS A SIGNALING CASCADE?

a series of chemical reactions which are initiated by a stimulus (first messenger) acting on a receptor that is transduced to the cell interior through second messengers

CAN SIGNALING PATHWAYS BE AMPLIFIED ALONG THE WAY?

yes

THE ACTIONS OF cAMP ARE TERMINATED BY _______________________.

phosphodiesterase

ALL STEROID HORMONES ARE DERIVED FROM _______________.

cholesterol

WHAT IS DIMERIZATION?

the act of hormones or ligands pairing up with other receptor-hormone complexes

ARE THE EFFECTS OF STERIODS OR PEPTIDES LONGER LIVED? WHICH HAPPENS FASTER?

steroids; peptides

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE CELL BODY OF A NEURON?

the soma

WHAT ARE DENDRITES?

neuronal structures (appendages) that receive information via signaling

WHAT IS THE AXON HILLOCK?

the enlarged part of the beginning of the axon where action potentials begin

WHAT IS AN AXON?

a neuronal structure (appendage) that is specialized to carry electrical messages

THE NEURONS ARE MYELINATED BY _______________ IN THE CNS AND _______________ IN THE PNS.

oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells

WHAT ARE THE GAPS IN THE MYELIN CALLED?

nodes of Ranvier

WHAT IS THE SPACE BETWEEN NEURONS CALLED?

the synaptic cleft or synapse

WHAT IS THE END OF THE AXON CALLED?

nerve terminal, axon terminal, or synaptic bouton

WHAT IS THE RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL?

the potential difference (voltage) across the cell membrane in a cell at rest

WHAT TWO THINGS DO NEURONS USE TO MAINTAIN A NEGATIVE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT?

selective permeability and Na+/K+ ATPase pumps

WHAT IONS ARE MORE HIGHLY CONCENTRATED INSIDE THE NEURON?

potassium

WHAT IONS ARE MORE HIGHLY CONCENTRATED OUTSIDE THE NEURON?

chloride, sodium, calcium

THE NEURONAL MEMBRANE AT REST IS MOST PERMEABLE TO WHICH ION?

potassium

WHAT DO Na+/K+ ATPase PUMPS DO?

pump three Na+ outside the cell for every two K+ pumped into the cell

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF EFFECTS THAT A NEURON CAN HAVE?

excitatory or inhibitory

WHAT IS HYPERPOLARIZATION?

a change in a cell's membrane potential that makes it more negative

WHAT IS DEPOLARIZATION?

a change in a cell's membrane potential that makes it more positive

WHAT IS THE THRESHOLD VALUE FOR A NEURON (APPROXIMATELY)?

-55/-40 mV

WHAT IS THE APPROXIMATE RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL OF A NEURON?

-65/-70 mV

WHAT ARE ION CHANNELS CALLED THAT RESPOND TO VOLTAGE CHANGES?

voltage-gated ion channels

WHAT ARE THE TWO VOLTAGE-GATED ION CHANNELS THAT ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE CONDUCTION OF ACTION POTENTIALS?

Na+ and K+

ION MOVEMENT IN NEURONS WORKS ON WHAT TWO GRADIENTS?

electric and chemical (electrochemical)

WHAT IS THE PROCESS OF RESTORING THE RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL CALLED?

repolarization

WHAT IS THE MOVEMENT OF AN ACTION POTENTIAL DOWN AN AXON CALLED?

impulse propogation

THE ONE-WAY FLOW OF ACTION POTENTIALS DOWN AN AXON IS A DIRECT RESULT OF ______________________.

(absolute) refractory periods

FASTEST CONDUCTION OCCURS IN NEURONS THAT ARE _____________ (LENGTH), _________________ (DIAMETER), AND _______________________ (MYELINATION?).

short; large in diameter; myelinated

WHAT IS TRANSMISSION IN MYELINATED AXONS CALLED?

saltatory conduction

IF THE NEURON SIGNALS TO A GLAND OR MUSCLE, THAT CELL IS TERMED AN __________________________.

effector cell

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF NEURONAL TRANSMISSION?

electrical and chemical

ARE MOST SYNAPSES IN THE BRAIN ELECTRICAL OR CHEMICAL?

chemical

WHAT ARE NEUROTRANSMITTERS?

chemical substances that are released at the end of a nerve fiber by the arrival of a nerve impulse and diffuse across the synapse or junction

NEUROTRANSMITTER RELEASE IS DEPENDENT ON WHAT ION?

calcium

WHAT ARE THE THREE WAYS IN WHICH NEUROTRANSMITTER CAN BE REMOVED FROM THE SYNAPSE?

reuptake, break down, or diffusion

WHAT ARE AFFERENT NEURONS?

neurons that carry information toward the brain (CNS)

WHAT ARE EFFERENT NEURONS?

neurons that carry information away from the brain (CNS)

WHAT ARE INTERNEURONS?

neurons that are involved in local circuits that connect neurons to other neurons and are involved in reflex activity

WHAT IS A NERVE?

a bundle of many neurons

WHAT ARE GANGLIA?

clusters of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS

WHAT ARE CLUSTERS OF NEURONAL CELL BODIES CALLED IN THE CNS?

nuclei

WHAT ARE THE TWO COMPONENTS OF THE CNS?

brain and spinal cord

WHAT ARE THE THREE DIVISIONS OF THE BRAIN?

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain

HOW IS WHITE MATTER DIFFERENT FROM GRAY MATTER?

white matter is myelinated which makes it appear white

WHAT ARE THE TWO DIVISIONS OF THE FOREBRAIN?

telencephalon and diencephalon

WHAT ARE THE FOUR DIVISIONS OF THE CEREBRAL CORTEX?

frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital

WHAT IS THE LARGE NEURONAL CONNECTION THAT IS USED TO COMMUNICATE BETWEEN CEREBRAL HEMISPHERES?

corpus callosum

WHAT ARE THE TWO COMPONENTS OF THE DIENCEPHALON?

thalamus and hypothalamus

WHAT ARE THE THREE STRUCTURES THAT MAKE UP THE HINDBRAIN?

cerebellum, medulla oblongata, and pons

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE CEREBELLUM?

involuntary muscle coordination, balance, and learned/rythmic behaviors

WHAT THREE FUNCTIONS IS THE MEDULLA RESPONSIBLE FOR?

respiration rate, heart rate, and gastrointestinal tone

WHAT ARE THE FOUR SECTIONS OF THE SPINAL CORD?

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral

WHAT PROTECTS THE SPINAL COLUMN?

vertebral column

IS THE GRAY MATTER IN THE SPINAL CORD INTERIOR OR EXTERIOR?

interior

WHERE ARE THE CELL BODIES OF SENSORY NEURONS FOUND?

dorsal root ganglia

HOW MANY CRANIAL NERVES ARE THERE? HOW MANY SPINAL NERVES ARE THERE?

12; 31

WHAT IS THE SOMATIC NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSIBLE FOR?

voluntary movement

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF REFLEX ARCS?

monosynaptic and polysynaptic

WHAT ARE MONOSYNAPTIC REFLEX ARCS?

reflexes where there is a single connection between the sensory input and motor output neurons

WHAT IS THE KNEE-JERK REFLEX? WHAT TYPE OF REFLEX ARC IS IT?

when the patellar tendon is stretched, the body compensates by contracting the muscle and kicking the leg; monosynaptic

WHAT IS A POLYSYNAPTIC REFLEX ARC?

a reflex arc where there is at least one interneuron involved between the sensory input and the motor output neurons

WHAT IS THE WITHDRAWAL REFLEX? WHAT TYPE OF REFLEX ARC IS IT?

when you step on something sharp, you immediately withdraw your leg; polysynaptic

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF NEURONS CALLED IN THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM?

preganglionic and postganglionic

WHAT ARE PREGANGLIONIC NEURONS?

neurons in the ANS whose cell bodies are in the CNS with axons traveling to the PNS

WHAT ARE POSTGANGLIONIC NEURONS?

neurons in the ANS whose cell bodies receive signals from the preganglionic neurons and transmit that to the target cell

WHAT IS THE SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM, PUT SIMPLY?

fight or flight

WHAT IS THE PARASYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM, PUT SIMPLY?

rest and digest

WHAT NERVE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR MOST OF THE PARASYMPATHETIC RESPONSES?

vagus

WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF SENSORY RECEPTORS?

interoceptors, proprioceptors, exteroceptors

WHAT DO INTEROCEPTORS DO?

monitor internal environmental parameters, like blood volume, blood pH, and partial pressure of CO3

WHAT DO PROPRIOCEPTORS DO?

sense the body's position in space

WHAT DO EXTEROCEPTORS DO?

monitor the external environment and respond to it

WHAT DO NOCICEPTORS DO?

sense pain and relay that information to the brain

WHAT IS THE WHITE OF THE EYE?

the sclera

WHAT SUPPLIES THE EYE WITH NUTRIENTS AND OXYGEN?

choroid

WHAT IS THE INNERMOST LAYER OF THE EYE CALLED?

the retina

WHAT DO PHOTORECEPTORS DO?

transduce light into electrical information that the brain can process

LIGHT FIRST PASSES THROUGH THE ____________.

cornea

WHAT DOES THE CORNEA DO?

bends and focuses incoming light


LIGHT RAYS MOVE THROUGH THE ____________ INTO THE EYE.

pupil

WHAT IS THE MUSCLE IN THE EYE THAT CONTROLS PUPIL SIZE CALLED?

iris

THE _________ DOES THE FINAL FOCUSING OF LIGHT BEFORE IT ENTERS THE INNER EYE.

lens

__________ ADJUST THE THICKNESS OF THE LENS, WHICH FOCUSES THE IMAGE ON THE RETINA/

cilliary muscles

WHAT ARE THE TWO MAIN TYPES OF PHOTORECEPTORS?

rods and cones

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE PIGMENT THAT RODS HAVE?

rhodopsin

WHAT IS THE PATH OF LIGHT FROM THE RETINA TO THE BRAIN?

photoreceptors -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells -> optic nerve

WHY DO WE HAVE A BLIND SPOT?

the optic nerve takes up a space on the retina, so there are no photoreceptors here

WHAT IS THE PHYSICAL EAR CALLED?

the auricle or pinna

THE ________________ IS THE BEGINNING OF THE MIDDLE EAR.

tympanic membrane

WHAT ARE THE THREE OSSICLES IN THE MIDDLE EAR?

malleus, incus, stapes

THE STAPES TRANSMITS SOUND SIGNAL TO THE COCHLEA VIA WHAT?

the oval window

THE INNER EAR IS MADE UP OF WHAT TWO STRUCTURES?

cochlea and semicircular canals

THE MOVEMENT OF THE OSSICLES ON THE OVAL WINDOW CREATES FLUID WAVES IN THE INNER EAR THAT DEPOLARIZE THE ________________ WHICH TRANSLATE THE SOUND INTO A NERVE IMPULSE.

hair cells

THE ACTION POTENTIAL FROM THE HAIR CELLS GOES TO THE ___________________.

auditory nerve

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE TWO IMPORTANT FLUIDS IN THE SEMICIRCULAR CANALS?

endolymph and perilymph

WHAT ARE THE TWO CHEMICAL SENSES?

olfaction and gustatation

WHAT ARE THE FIVE TASTES?

sour, sweet, bitter, salty, umami

WHERE DOES "SMELL" PRIMARILY TAKE PLACE?

the olfactory epithelium

WHAT IS UNIQUE ABOUT THE SENSE OF SMELL?

it has a direct connection to the limbic system and can bypass the thalamus