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478 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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THE LUNGS ARE THE SITES OF _____________________ IN THE BODY. |
gas exchange |
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AIR ENTERS THE RESPIRATORY TRACT THROUGH THE ____________________ OF THE NOSE. |
external nares |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE CILIA IN THE RESPIRATORY TRACT? |
to trap harmful particles and keep them away from the lungs |
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AIR PASSES THROUGH THE PHARYNX INTO THE _________________. |
larynx |
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WHAT PASSES THROUGH THE LARYNX? |
only air
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WHAT ARE THE SEVEN STEPS IN AIR PASSAGE INTO THE BODY? |
mouth or nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli |
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WHAT IS SURFACTANT?
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a detergent that coats alveoli that lowers the surface tension and prevents the alveolus from collapsing on itself |
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____________________ SURROUND EACH ALVEOLUS TO CARRY OXYGEN AND CARBON DIOXIDE FOR EXCHANGE. |
capillaries |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE ALVEOLI? |
serve as the site of gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE BRONCHI/BRONCHIOLES? |
carry air from the trachea into the lungs; smooth muscle tissue in their walls helps to regulate airflow into the lungs |
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THE LUNGS ARE CONTAINED IN THE ________________ CAVITY. |
thoracic |
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WHAT SEPARATES THE RESPIRATORY ORGANS AND THE DIGESTIVE ORGANS IN THE BODY CAVITY? |
the diaphragm |
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WHAT IS THE DIAPHRAGM NECESSARY FOR?
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inspiration |
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WHAT ARE PLEURAE? |
membranes that surround each lung that act as closed sacs against which the lungs grow
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THE SURFACE OF THE PLEURAE ADJACENT TO THE LUNG IS CALLED THE _____________ SURFACE; ALL OTHER PARTS OF THE PLEURAE ARE _______________ SURFACES. |
visceral; parietal |
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WHAT IS THE SPACE WITHIN THE PLEURAE OF THE LUNGS CALLED? |
the intrapleural space |
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WHAT TWO MUSCLES ARE USED TO EXPAND THE THORACIC CAVITY? |
diaphragm and external intercostal muscles |
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AN INCREASE IN VOLUME IN THE INTRAPLEURAL SPACE LEADS TO A _______________ IN PRESSURE IN THE INTRAPLEURAL SPACE. |
decrease |
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WHAT IS NEGATIVE-PRESSURE BREATHING?
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the rib cage expands and the diaphragm contracts, expanding the chest cavity; this causes the pressure in the chest cavity to decrease, and the lungs expand to fill the space since they are full of high-pressure atmospheric air |
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IS INHALATION OR EXHALATION THE ACTIVE PROCESS? |
inhalation |
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WHEN WE NEED TO PUSH AIR OUT OF THE LUNGS RAPIDLY, WHAT MUSCLES ARE USED? |
internal intercostal muscles |
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THE VENTILATION CENTERS IN THE BRAIN ARE LOCATED IN THE _______________. |
medulla |
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WHAT DRIVES RESPIRATION? |
the partial pressure of CO2 causes respiratory rate to increase and counter the higher pressure of CO2; only when oxygen levels are very low does oxygen drive respiration |
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WHAT DOES A SPIROMETER DO? |
measures the amount of air normally present in the lungs and the rate at which ventilation occurs |
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WHAT IS THE TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY IN HEALTHY HUMANS? |
six to seven liters |
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WHAT IS THE TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY? |
a measure of the maximum amount of air that can be held in the lungs |
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WHAT IS THE VITAL CAPACITY? |
the greatest volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs after taking the deepest possible breath |
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WHAT IS THE RESIDUAL VOLUME? |
the volume of air still remaining in the lungs after the most forcible expiration possible |
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WHY MUST THERE ALWAYS BE SOME AIR LEFT IN THE LUNGS AFTER EXHALATION? |
otherwise the lungs would collapse |
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TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY IS THE SUM OF _________________ AND _________________. |
vital capacity and residual capacity |
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WHAT IS THE TIDAL VOLUME? |
the amount of air we take in by shallowly breathing in only what we need |
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WHAT IS THE EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME? |
the additional amount of air that can be expired from the lungs by determined effort after normal expiration |
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WHAT IS THE INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME? |
the additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after the inspiration of a normal tidal volume |
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TIDAL VOLUME, EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME, AND INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME ADD TO WHAT? |
the vital capacity |
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HOW IS GAS EXCHANGE MEDIATED IN THE ALVEOLI? |
partial pressures of CO2 and O2 |
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WHAT WAS ONE OF THE MOST INFLUENTIAL THEORIES OF HUMAN BODY FUNCTION UP UNTIL THE 19TH CENTURY? WHAT DID IT SAY? |
Humoural theory; the human body is composed of four fluids or humours--black bile, yellow bile, lymph, and blood |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE COMPONENTS OF THE CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM? |
heart, blood vessels, and blood |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE RIGHT SIDE OF THE HEART? |
to accept deoxygenated blood from the body and move it to the lungs for oxygenation |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE LEFT SIDE OF THE HEART? |
to receive oxygenated blood from the lungs and circulate it to the rest of the body |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO CHAMBER TYPES FOUND IN THE HEART? |
atria; ventricles |
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WHAT IS THE LARGEST ARTERY IN THE BODY? |
the aorta |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE DIVISIONS OF ARTERIES FROM LARGEST TO SMALLEST? |
arteries -> arterioles -> capillaries |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE DIVISIONS OF VEINS FROM LARGEST TO SMALLEST?
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veins -> venules -> capillaries |
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DEOXYGENATED BLOOD ENTERS THE HEART THROUGH THE _________________ AND _____________________. |
superior vena cava and inferior vena cava |
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WHAT ARE THE LARGEST VEINS IN THE BODY? |
the superior and inferior vena cava |
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WHAT IS A PORTAL SYSTEM? |
any system of blood vessels that has a capillary network at each end |
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WHAT DOES THE HEPATIC PORTAL SYSTEM CONNECT? |
vasculature of the digestive tract and the liver |
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WHAT DOES THE HYPOPHYSEAL PORTAL SYSTEM CONNECT? |
vasculature of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland |
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WHAT STRUCTURE FORMS THE BASE OF THE HEART? |
the exterior wall of the right ventricle |
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THE HEART IS ONLY COMPRISED OF _____________ MUSCLE, AND THIS MUSCLE IS ONLY FOUND HERE. |
cardiac |
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WHICH SIDE OF THE HEART IS MORE MUSCULAR? WHY? |
left; it circulates blood to the entire body so it must be able to generate higher pressures than the right side |
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WHY ARE THERE VALVES IN THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM? |
because it is critical that blood only moves in one direction |
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WHAT SEPARATE THE ATRIA AND VENTRICLES? |
atrioventricular valves |
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WHAT IS THE RIGHT ATRIOVENTRICULAR VALVE CALLED? |
tricuspid valve |
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WHAT IS THE LEFT ATRIOVENTRICULAR VALVE CALLED? |
bicuspid valve or mitral valve |
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WHAT SEPARATES THE VENTRICLES FROM THE SURROUNDING VASCULATURE? |
semilunar valves |
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WHAT IS THE RIGHT SEMILUNAR VALVE CALLED? |
the pulmonic valve |
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WHAT IS THE LEFT SEMILUNAR VALVE CALLED? |
the aortic valve |
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WHAT IS DIASTOLE? |
ventricular relaxation |
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WHAT IS SYSTOLE? |
ventricular contraction |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO PHASES OF A HEARTBEAT? |
systole and diastole |
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WHAT HAPPENS DURING SYSTOLE (3)? |
ventricles contract, AV valves close, blood enters aorta and pulmonary artery |
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WHAT HAPPENS DURING DIASTOLE (3)? |
the ventricles relax, the semilunar valves close, and blood from the atria fills the ventricles |
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WHAT IS CARDIAC OUTPUT? |
the measure of the total blood volume pumped by the ventricle in a minute |
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IS THERE A DIFFERENCE IN THE VOLUME OF BLOOD THAT PASSES THROUGH EACH VENTRICLE? |
no |
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CARDIAC OUTPUT IS THE PRODUCT OF _______________ AND _______________. |
heart rate and stroke volume |
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WHAT IS HEART RATE? |
the number of beats per minute |
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WHAT IS STROKE VOLUME? |
the volume of blood pumped per beat |
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WHAT IS THE AVERAGE TOTAL VOLUME OF BLOOD IN HUMANS? |
5 liters |
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WHAT IS TYPICAL CARDIAC OUTPUT FOR HUMANS? WHY IS THIS SIGNIFICANT? |
5L/min; the average blood volume is 5L |
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WHAT FOUR STRUCTURES ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE RHYTHMIC CONTRACTION OF THE HEART? |
1. sinoatrial (SA) node 2. atrioventricular (AV) node 3. bundle of His (AV bundle) 4. Purkinje fibers |
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WHERE IS THE SITE OF IMPULSE INITIATION IN THE HEART? |
sinoatrial (SA) node |
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WHAT IS ATRIAL KICK? |
the extra blood volume pumped into the ventricles caused by the increase in pressure in the atria |
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THE SA NODE HAS AN INTRINSIC SIGNAL OF ______-_______ SIGNALS PER MINUTE. |
60-100 |
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PARASYMPATHETIC NEUROTRANSMITTERS SLOW THE HEART VIA THE ____________ NERVE AND SYMPATHETIC NEUROTRANSMITTERS SPEED UP THE HEART. |
vagus |
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WHAT DO BETA BLOCKERS DO?
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block sympathetic beta receptors and reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, which reduces the cardiac workload and the heart's need for oxygen |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR TYPES OF BLOOD VESSELS? |
arteries, veins, and capillaries |
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WHAT ARE ARTERIES? |
strong, thick-walled structures that always carry blood away from the heart |
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WHAT ARE THE ONLY TWO ARTERIES THAT CARRY DEOXYGENATED BLOOD? |
pulmonary artery and fetal umbilical artery |
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WHAT ARE VEINS? |
thin-walled and inelastic vessels that transport blood to the heart |
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WHAT ARE THE ONLY TWO VEINS THAT CARRY OXYGENATED BLOOD? |
pulmonary vein and fetal umbilical vein |
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DO ARTERIES OR VEINS HAVE MORE SMOOTH MUSCLE? |
arteries |
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ARE ARTERIES AND VEINS MADE FROM THE SAME OR DIFFERENT STRUCTURES? |
same |
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ARTERIES OFFER _________ RESISTANCE TO THE FLOW OF BLOOD. |
higher |
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WHAT PERCENTAGE OF OUR TOTAL BLOOD VOLUME MAY BE IN VENOUS CIRCULATION AT ANY GIVEN MOMENT? |
75% |
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WHERE IS VENOUS PRESSURE THE HIGHEST? |
in the large, anti-gravity veins of the legs |
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HOW DO VEINS PREVENT BACKFLOW IN VENOUS CIRCULATION? |
larger veins have one-way valves that are closed if blood starts to flow backward |
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WHAT CAUSES VARICOSE VEINS? |
failure of the venous valves |
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HOW DO VEINS MOVE BLOOD FORWARD TOWARD THE HEART? |
they use support of surrounding skeletal muscle the help move the blood against gravity |
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WHAT ARE CAPILLARIES? |
blood vessels with a single endothelial layer, which allows for exchange of nutrients and gases |
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HOW SMALL ARE CAPILLARIES? |
so small that blood cells must transverse them single file |
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WHAT CAUSES A BRUISE? |
broken capillaries that cause blood to escape from the circulatory system |
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WHAT IS BLOOD PRESSURE A MEASURE OF? |
the force per unit area that is exerted on the wall of the blood vessels |
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WHAT IS THE DEVICE CALLED THAT IS USED TO MEASURE BLOOD PRESSURE? |
sphygmomanometer |
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WHAT DO SPHYGMOMANOMETERS MEASURE (BESIDES BLOOD PRESSURE)? |
the gauge pressure in the circulatory system (pressure above atmospheric pressure) |
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THE LARGEST BLOOD PRESSURE DROP OCCURS WHERE? WHY IS THIS NECESSARY? |
across the arterioles; because the veins and capillaries are thin-walled and could not support the pressure in the arteries |
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BY VOLUME, BLOOD IS ____% LIQUID AND _____% CELLS. |
55; 45 |
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WHAT IS PLASMA? |
the liquid portion of the blood that is an aqueous mixture of nutrients, salts, respiratory gases, hormones, and blood proteins |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR CELLULAR COMPONENTS OF THE BLOOD? |
erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets |
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WHAT ARE ERYTHROCYTES? |
specialized cells designed for oxygen transport (RBC) |
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HOW DO RED BLOOD CELLS CARRY OXYGEN? |
using hemoglobin (each cell has about 250 million molecules of hemoglobin) |
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WHAT IS THE NAME FOR THE SHAPE OF RED BLOOD CELLS? |
biconcave |
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WHAT ARE THE BLOOD STEM CELLS? |
hematopoietic stem cells |
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WHERE IS THE ENVIRONMENTAL NICHE OF HSCs? |
in the bone marrow surrounded by stromal cells |
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AS RED BLOOD CELLS MATURE, THEY LOSE _________, ____________, AND __________. WHY DOES THIS HAPPEN? |
mitochondria, nuclei, and other membranous organelles; to make room for more oxygen storage |
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WHAT IS THE SIGNIFICANCE OF RED BLOOD CELLS NOT HAVING MITOCHONDRIA? WHAT IS THE SIGNIFICANCE OF THEM NOT HAVING NUCLEI? |
cannot do aerobic respiration; cannot divide |
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ABOUT HOW MANY ERTHYROCYTES ARE PRESENT IN ONE MILLILITER OF BLOOD? |
5 million |
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WHEN DOES LEUKOCYTE NUMBER INCREASE? |
during infection |
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WHAT ARE LEUKOCYTES? |
white blood cells; crucial parts of the immune system that act as our defenders against pathogens and foreign cells |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO BROAD CLASSES OF LEUKOCYTES? |
granulocytes and agranulocytes |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF GRANULOCYTES? |
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils |
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HOW ARE GRANULOCYTES AND AGRANULOCYTES DIFFERENT? |
granulocytes have cytoplasmic granules that are visible under microscopy; agranulocytes appear smoother |
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WHAT IS THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF GRANULOCYTES? WHAT FUNCTIONS ARE THEY INVOLVED IN (4)? |
they contain materials that are toxic to invading microbes and are involved in inflammatory reactions, allergies, pus formation, and destruction of bacteria and parasites |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF AGRANULOCYTES? |
monocytes and lymphocytes |
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WHAT IS THE SPECIFIC IMMUNE RESPONSE? WHAT CELLS (PRIMARILY) DOES THIS USE? |
the body's targeted fight against particular pathogens such as viruses and bacteria; lymphocytes |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE LOCATIONS OF LYMPHOCYTE MATURATION? |
spleen, lymph nodes, thymus |
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WHAT ARE T-CELLS? |
a type of lymphocyte cell that matures in the thymus and is responsible for killing virally infected cells and activating other immune cells |
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WHAT ARE B-CELLS? |
a type of lymphocyte cell that matures in either the spleen or the lymph nodes and is responsible for antibody generation |
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WHAT DO MONOCYTES DO? |
phagocytize foreign matter such as bacteria |
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ONCE MONOCYTES LEAVE THE BONE MARROW, WHAT ARE THEY CALLED? WHAT ARE THEY CALLED IN THE BRAIN? |
macrophages; microglia |
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WHAT ARE PLATELETS? |
cell fragments derived from the breakup of cells (megakaryocytes) in the bone marrow that function to clot blood |
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WHAT ARE MEGAKARYOCYTES? |
large bone marrow cells that are responsible for the production of blood platelets |
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WHAT ARE ANTIGENS? |
surface proteins expressed by a cell that may initiate an organism's immune system |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO ANTIGEN GROUPS RELATED TO BLOOD? |
ABO group and Rh factor |
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WHAT IS THE UNIVERSAL RBC RECIPIENT? |
AB |
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WHAT IS THE UNIVERSAL RBC DONOR? |
O |
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WHY IS MATCHING BLOOD TYPE CRITICAL? |
because if the recipient's body has antibodies against the blood, then hemolysis (the rupture or destruction of red blood cells) will occur which can be fatal |
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WHAT IS ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS? |
a condition where the mother has antibodies to the fetus' blood and the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and attack the fetal erythrocytes, resulting in their death |
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HOW ARE RED BLOOD CELLS DESTROYED? |
they circulate for about 120 days and then they are destroyed in the liver or spleen and are recycled for parts |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR FUNCTIONS OF THE CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM? |
1. circulation of nutrients and wastes 2. production and delivery of immune cells 3. resistance against damaged blood vessels |
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WHAT IS HEMOGLOBIN? |
a protein in the blood that carries oxygen using a heme group; it is made up of four separate but interacting chains/subunits |
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WHAT DOES COOPERATIVE BINDING MEAN IN REGARD TO HEMOGLOBIN? |
as the first oxygen binds to the heme group, it induces a conformational shift in the shape of the hemoglobin, which makes it easier for subsequent molecules of oxygen to bind; the opposite is also true; once one oxygen leaves, it makes it easier for others to leave |
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WHAT IS THE SHAPE OF THE CLASSIC HEMOGLOBIN-BINDING CURVE? |
sigmoidal |
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DOES HEMOGLOBIN HAVE A HIGHER AFFINITY FOR OXYGEN OR CARBON DIOXIDE? |
oxygen |
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MOST OF THE CARBON DIOXIDE CARRIED IN THE BLOOD IS CARRIED AS ____________. |
bicarbonate ions |
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INCREASED PROTON CONCENTRATION SHIFTS THE HEMOGLOBIN BINDING CURVE TO THE __________. |
right |
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WHAT IS THE BOHR EFFECT? |
a decrease in the amount of oxygen associated with hemoglobin and other respiratory compounds in response to a lowered blood pH resulting from an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood |
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WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT BUFFER SYSTEM FOR THE BLOOD? |
carbonic acid-bicarbonate solutions |
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WHAT MUST BLOOD pH CENTER AROUND? |
7.4 |
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WHAT IS AN INCREASED BLOOD ACIDITY CALLED? |
acidosis |
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WHAT IS AN INCREASED BLOOD BASICITY CALLED? |
alkalosis |
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WHAT ARE TWO WAYS IN WHICH THE BODY CAN DEAL WITH ALTERED BLOOD pH? |
increase or decrease respiration rate and kidneys can increase or decrease the amount of bicarbonate ion secreted into the nephron filtrate |
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HOW DO CARBOHYDRATES AND AMINO ACIDS ENTER THE BLOOD? |
they are absorbed in the small intestine capillaries and enter circulation via the hepatic portal system |
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HOW DO FATS ENTER THE BLOOD? |
fats are absorbed into lateals in the small intestine and they bypass the liver and enter systemic circulation via the thoracic duct |
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HOW DO WASTES ENTER THE BLOOD? |
they enter throughout the body as they travel down their concentration gradients from tissues into the capillaries |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO GRADIENTS THAT ARE ESSENTIAL FOR MAINTAINING A PROPER BALANCE OF FLUID VOLUME IN THE BODY? WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR THESE FORCES? |
hydrostatic and oncotic (osmotic) pressures; Starling forces |
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HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE IS ____________ IN ARTERIOLES THAN IN VENULES. |
higher |
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WHAT CAUSES EDEMA? |
accumulation of excess fluid in the interstitium |
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THROUGH WHAT STRUCTURE DOES LYMPHATIC FLUID RETURN TO THE CENTRAL CIRCULATORY SYSTEM? |
thoracic duct |
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WHAT IS HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE? |
the pressure exerted by a fluid at equilibrium at a given point within the fluid, due to the force of gravity |
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WHAT IS ONCOTIC PRESSURE? |
a form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins, notably albumin, in a blood vessel's plasma (blood/liquid) that usually tends to pull water into the circulatory system |
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HOW DO PLATELETS SENSE INJURY? |
they come into contact with collagen, which is most likely released from damaged connective tissue |
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WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT CHEMICAL RELEASED BY PLATELETS? WHAT DOES IT DO? |
thromboplastin; converts prothrombin to thrombin; thrombin then converts fibrinogen into fibrin, which makes little fibers that aggregate in a woven structure like a net |
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WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR THE PROCESS OF BLOOD CLOTTING? |
thrombus formation |
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WHAT ARE NONSPECIFIC DEFENSES? |
things like the skin that serve as a barrier against all infection |
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WHAT ARE THE FOUR MAJOR ORGANS OF THE IMMUNE SYSTEM? |
lymph nodes, spleen, bone marrow, thymus |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE THYMUS? |
secretes thymosin, which is a hormone that stimulates T-cell maturation |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE SPLEEN? |
blood storage and filters blood and lymph |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE LYMPH NODES? |
filter lymph and help attack bacteria and viruses |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE BONE MARROW? |
immune cell production |
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WHAT IS INNATE IMMUNITY? |
nonspecific defense mechanisms that come into play immediately or within hours of an antigen's appearance in the body; these mechanisms include physical barriers such as skin, chemicals in the blood, and immune system cells that attack foreign cells in the body (nonspecific immunity); response carried out without learning |
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WHAT IS ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY? |
antigen-specific immune response; takes longer but is highly specific |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO SUBCLASSIFICATIONS OF THE SPECIFIC IMMUNE SYSTEM? |
humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity |
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WHAT IS AUTOIMMUNITY? |
a condition where a person's immune system does not recognize its own cells and attacks them as if they were foreign invader cells |
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WHAT ARE ALLERGIES? |
an oversensitization to a particular foreign particle by the immune system; the foreign particle is marked as dangerous, even though it is not |
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WHAT IS THE FIRST LINE OF IMMUNE DEFENSE? |
the skin |
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HOW DO THE TEARS PROTECT AGAINST INFECTION? |
contain lysozyme |
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HOW DOES SWEAT PROTECT AGAINST INFECTION? |
it contains an enzyme that degrades bacterial cell walls |
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WHAT IS AN EXAMPLE OF A CHEMICAL THAT CALLS MACROPHAGES TO A SITE OF INFLAMMATION? |
histamine |
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WHAT DOES HISTAMINE CAUSE? |
vasodilation that allows macrophages to move out of the bloodstream and into the tissue |
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NONSPECIFIC IMMUNITY WORKS BEST WITH WHAT TYPES OF FOREIGN INVADERS? |
extracellular pathogens, like bacteria
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WHAT ARE FIVE TYPES OF CELLS THAT ARE INVOLVED IN INNATE IMMUNITY? |
macrophages, mast cells, granulocytes, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells |
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WHAT IS INTERFERON? |
a protein that prevents viral replication and dispersion |
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WHAT IS THE DOWNFALL OF THE INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM? |
it cannot be adapted to act more efficiently over time |
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WHAT IS IMMUNOLOGICAL MEMORY? |
the ability of the immune system to respond more rapidly and effectively to a pathogen that has been encountered previously |
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WHAT DO MACROPHAGES DO? |
engulf and consume pathogen invaders |
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WHAT DO MAST CELLS DO? |
release histamine and other chemicals that promote inflammation |
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WHAT DO DENDRITIC CELLS DO? |
present antigens to adaptive immune cells, which induces the cells to attack bearers of that antigen |
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WHAT DO NATURAL KILLER CELLS DO? |
destroy the body's own cells that are infected with pathogens or cancerous cells |
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WHAT TWO CELLS TYPES ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY? |
T-cells and B-cells |
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HUMORAL IMMUNITY INVOLVES THE PRODUCTION OF _______________. |
antibodies |
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WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR ANTIBODIES? |
immunoglobulins |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO PARTS OF ANTIBODIES CALLED? WHAT IS THE OTHER REGION CALLED? |
heavy chain and light chain; constant region |
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EACH ANTIGEN HAS A ________________________ AT THE TWO TOP TIPS OF THE Y SHAPE. |
antigen-binding region |
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HOW DO ANTIBODIES WORK? |
they have specific antigen-binding regions that have amino acid sequences that will only bind to one antigenic sequence |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE CONSTANT REGION OF AN ANTIBODY? |
recruitment and binding of other immune modulators |
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WHAT TWO INTERACTIONS HOLD THE HEAVY AND LIGHT CHAINS TOGETHER? |
disulfide bonds and noncovalent interactions |
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WHY DO WE NOT WANT ALL OF OUR B-CELLS TO BE ACTIVE AT ONCE? |
antibody production is an energetically expensive process, so there is no reason to expend excess energy producing antibodies that are not needed |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO DAUGHTER CELLS OF B-CELLS? |
plasma cells and memory cells |
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WHAT DO PLASMA CELLS DO? |
produce large amounts of antibodies |
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WHAT DO MEMORY CELLS DO? |
stay in the lymph nodes for use upon re-exposure to the same antigen |
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WHAT IS THE PRIMARY RESPONSE IN HUMORAL IMMUNITY? |
the initial activation of B-cells to form plasma cells and memory cells specifically for a pathogen the first time it is encountered |
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WHAT IS THE SECONDARY RESPONSE IN HUMORAL IMMUNITY? |
the second time a pathogen is encountered, the memory cells are already there, so the response will be more rapid and robust |
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HOW DO VACCINES WORK? |
they expose the immune system to a certain pathogen to create antibodies and memory cells for it so that upon exposure a second time, the immune system can easily get rid of it |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR TYPES OF T-CELLS? |
helper T-cells, suppressor T-cells, and killer (cytotoxic) T-cells |
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WHAT DO HELPER T-CELLS DO? |
they coordinate immune response by secreting lymphokines, which are capable of recruiting other immune cells
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WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR HELPER T-CELLS? WHY? |
T4 cells; because they express CD4 cell-surface proteins
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|
|
WHAT DISEASE DESTROYS HELPER T-CELLS? WHAT DOES THIS LOSS CAUSE? |
HIV; prevention of adequate immune response to infection |
|
|
WHAT ARE CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS? |
cells that are capable of directly killing virally infected cells by secreting toxic chemicals |
|
|
WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS? WHY? |
T8 cells; because they express the cell-surface protein CD8 |
|
|
WHAT DO SUPPRESSOR T-CELLS DO? |
help to tone down the immune response once the infection has been adequately contained |
|
|
T-CELLS BIND DO ANTIGENS PRESENTED BY _________________________________ MOLECULES AT A CELL'S SURFACE. |
major histocompatibility complex I |
|
|
WHAT CAN BE USED TO PREVENT ORGAN REJECTION DUE TO IMMUNOLOGICAL RESPONSE? |
immunosuppressants |
|
|
WHAT ARE IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS? |
drugs that prevent activation of the immune system |
|
|
HOW ARE MAJOR HISTOCOMPATIBILITY COMPLEX I PROTEINS EXPRESSED? |
cells regularly degrade some of their proteins and present them to T-cells using MHC class I receptors |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO FORMS OF IMMUNIZATIONS? |
active and passive |
|
|
WHAT IS ACTIVE IMMUNIZATION? |
an immunization where the immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific pathogen by either natural or artificial means |
|
|
WHAT IS PASSIVE IMMUNIZATION? |
an immunization that results from the transfer of antibodies to an individual from an immunized individual |
|
|
WHAT IS THE MAJOR DIFFERENCE BETWEEN NATURAL AND ARTIFICIAL MEANS OF IMMUNIZATION? |
artificial immunization is not accompanied by an actual infection caused by that pathogen
|
|
|
THE LYMPH SYSTEM PARALLELS THE ________ SYSTEM. |
venous |
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|
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF HAVING LYMPH TISSUE AROUND THE CAPILLARIES? |
it collects the excess fluid that escapes the capillaries and returns it to the circulatory system |
|
|
WHAT IS AN ANALGESIC? |
a medication that acts to relieve pain |
|
|
WHAT IS HOMEOSTASIS? |
the tendency toward a relatively stable equilibrium between interdependent elements that are maintained by physiological processes |
|
|
WHAT IS THE FUNCTIONAL UNIT OF THE KIDNEY? |
the nephron |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO MAJOR PARTS OF THE KIDNEY? |
cortex and medulla |
|
|
WHAT IS A RENAL HILUM? |
a deep slit in the center of the kidney's medial surface |
|
|
WHAT IS THE RENAL PELVIS? |
the widest part of the ureter |
|
|
THE _______________, ____________________, AND ____________________ ENTER AND EXIT THROUGH THE RENAL HILUM. |
renal artery, renal vein, ureter |
|
|
THE KIDNEY HAS ONE OF THE FEW _____________________________ IN THE BODY. |
portal systems |
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THE RENAL ARTERY BRANCHES OUT AND TRAVELS THROUGH THE MEDULLA AND INTO THE CORTEX AS ______________________. |
afferent arterioles |
|
|
THE CAPILLARIES DERIVED FROM AFFERENT ARTERIOLES ARE KNOWN AS _________________. |
glomeruli |
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|
AFTER BLOOD FROM THE AFFERENT ARTERIOLES PASSES THROUGH THE GLOMERULI IN THE KIDNEYS, THE __________________________ LEAD THE BLOOD AWAY FROM IT. |
efferent arterioles |
|
|
WHAT IS UNIQUE ABOUT PORTAL SYSTEM CAPILLARIES? |
the glomerular capillaries lead to a second set of arterioles and not to venules |
|
|
WHAT IS BOWMAN'S CAPSULE? |
the cuplike structure in the kidney that surrounds the complex net of capillaries; a capsule-shaped membranous structure surrounding the glomerulus of each nephron in the kidneys |
|
|
FROM BOWMAN'S CAPSULE, WHAT ARE THE DISTINCT AREAS OF THE TUBULES IN THE KIDNEY, IN ORDER (5)? |
1. proximal convoluted tubule 2. descending limbs of the loop of Henle 3. ascending limbs of the loop of Henle 4. distal convoluted tubule 5. collecting duct |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE THREE MAIN FUNCTIONS OF THE KIDNEYS? |
1. filtration 2. secretion 3. reabsorption |
|
|
IN THE KIDNEYS, APPROXIMATELY _______ PERCENT OF THE BLOOD THAT PASSES THROUGH THE GLOMERULUS IS FILTERED INTO BOWMAN'S SPACE. |
20 |
|
|
WHAT IS THE COLLECTED FLUID IN THE KIDNEYS CALLED? |
filtrate |
|
|
WHAT IS DIFFERENT BETWEEN BLOOD AND THE FILTRATE IN THE KIDNEYS? |
the filtrate doesn't have cells or proteins in it because the filter has the ability to select via size |
|
|
HOW DO THE GLOMERULI FILTER THE BLOOD? |
molecules that are larger than the glomerulus pores will remain in the blood; everything else is filtered out |
|
|
AFTER BLOOD IS FILTERED IN THE GLOMERULI IN THE KIDNEY, WHERE ARE THE NEXT TWO PLACES THAT IT GOES? |
efferent arterioles and the vasa recta
|
|
|
THE KIDNEYS CAN FILTER THE ENTIRE BLOOD VOLUME ABOUT ______ TIMES PER DAY. |
36
|
|
|
IN ADDITION TO THEIR ABILITY TO FILTER BLOOD, NEPHRONS CAN SECRETE __________, ____________, ___________, AND _____________ INTO THE TUBULE BY BOTH ACTIVE AND PASSIVE TRANSPORT. |
salts, acids, bases, and urea |
|
|
WHAT ARE TWO PURPOSES OF KIDNEY SECRETION? |
to get rid of ions that are in excess in the blood and to excrete wastes that are too large for the glomerulus pores |
|
|
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF KIDNEY REABSORPTION? |
to sort through the filtered materials and allow important materials such as glucose and amino acids to re-enter the blood |
|
|
THE KIDNEYS MAKE USE OF __________________ AND _________________ GRADIENTS TO SUPPORT ALL OF THEIR TASKS. |
selective permeability; osmolarity |
|
|
WHAT MUST BE TRUE ABOUT COMPOUNDS THAT ARE MEANT TO BE REABSORBED? |
they must be able to leave the filtrate via selective permeability |
|
|
WHAT HAPPENS WHEN A COMPOUND THAT WAS MEANT TO BE REABSORBED CANNOT LEAVE THE FILTRATE? |
it gets excreted |
|
|
WHAT MATERIALS CAN BE REABSORBED BY THE PROXIMAL AND DISTAL TUBULES? |
most substances, including water |
|
|
WHAT MATERIALS CAN BE REABSORBED BY THE ASCENDING LIMBS OF THE LOOP OF HENLE? |
permeable to salt (NOT water)
|
|
|
WHAT MATERIALS CAN BE REABSORBED BY THE DESCENDING LIMBS OF THE LOOP OF HENLE? |
permeable to water (NOT salt) |
|
|
WHEN THE BODY IS WELL HYDRATED, THE COLLECTING DUCT WILL BE FAIRLY IMPERMEABLE TO ______________. |
salt AND water |
|
|
WHEN THE BODY NEEDS WATER, WHAT DO THE KIDNEYS DO TO HELP THIS? |
antidiuretic hormones signal the collecting ducts in the kidneys to become permeable to water so that more water can be reabsorbed into the blood
|
|
|
WHAT IS THE INTERSTITIUM? |
the tissue surrounding the kidney tubules |
|
|
HOW DOES THE KIDNEY CONTROL HOW MUCH WATER IS REABSORBED? |
alters the osmolarity of the interstitium and the selective permeability of the kidney tubule |
|
|
WHAT IS A COUNTERCURRENT MULTIPLIER SYSTEM? |
a mechanism that expends energy to create a concentration gradient |
|
|
WHAT TWO HORMONES ARE USED TO ALTER THE PERMEABILITY OF THE COLLECTING DUCT? |
aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
|
|
WHAT IS ALDOSTERONE? |
a steroid hormone that is secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to decreased blood volume; it alters the ability of the collecting duct to reabsorb sodium (water moves with sodium); this increases blood pressure |
|
|
WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME FOR THE ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE? |
vasopressin |
|
|
WHAT IS VASOPRESSIN? |
a peptide hormone that directly alters the permeability of the collecting duct in the kidneys; it makes the ducts leaky so more water can be reabsorbed; this increases blood pressure |
|
|
WHAT TWO SUBSTANCES INTERFERE WITH VASOPRESSIN (MAKING YOU PEE MORE)? |
caffeine and alcohol |
|
|
ALDOSTERONE __________ BLOOD PRESSURE AND VASOPRESSIN _____________ BLOOD PRESSURE. |
increases; increases |
|
|
HOW DOES ALDOSTERONE ALTER BLOOD PRESSURE? |
by increasing sodium reabsorption, which causes water to follow and also be reabsorbed |
|
|
HOW DOES VASOPRESSIN ALTER BLOOD PRESSURE? |
by altering the permeability of the collecting duct by making the duct more leaky to water so that it will re-enter the interstitium |
|
|
THE ______________ IS ESSENTIALLY THE POINT OF NO RETURN IN THE KIDNEYS (THINGS GET EXCRETED AFTER THIS POINT). |
collecting duct |
|
|
URINE IS EXCRETED THROUGH THE ___________ AND IS STORED IN THE ___________. |
urethra; bladder |
|
|
WHAT ARE THREE COMPOUNDS THAT SHOULD ALWAYS BE ABSENT FROM HEALTHY URINE? |
glucose, blood, and proteins |
|
|
DOES THE KIDNEY REGULATE ACID-BASE BALANCE? |
yes |
|
|
HOW DOES THE KIDNEY REMOVE SOLUBLE, NITROGENOUS WASTE? |
removal of soluble nitrogenous waste Urine = concentrated urea in water, with some salt. Urea = harmless form of toxic ammonia = nitrogenous waste. Amino acids → Ammonia → Urea → peed out |
|
|
IN ADDITION TO ASSISTING WITH DIGESTION, WHAT OTHER TWO FUNCTIONS DOES THE LIVER SERVE? |
regulates blood-glucose levels and assisting with elimination of nitrogenous waste through urea |
|
|
THE LIVER CAN MAKE GLUCOSE USING WHAT BIOLOGICAL PROCESS? |
gluconeogenesis |
|
|
THE LIVER IS A STORAGE SITE FOR _________. |
glucose |
|
|
HOW DOES THE BODY PREVENT BUILDUP OF TOXIC AMMONIA? |
it combines it with carbon dioxide (e.g. in the liver) after deamination of amino acids to make urea |
|
|
WHERE IS BILE PRODUCED? |
the liver |
|
|
THE LARGE INTESTINE CAN EXCRETE SUBSTANCES LIKE _____________ AND ______________ TO MAINTAIN HOMEOSTASIS. |
calcium and iron |
|
|
SKIN MAKES UP ABOUT _____% OF OUR BODY WEIGHT, ON AVERAGE. |
16 |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE THREE LAYERS OF THE SKIN FROM OUTERMOST TO INNERMOST? |
1. epidermis 2. dermis 3. hypodermis (subcutaneous layer) |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE FIVE STRATA OF THE EPIDERMIS FROM THE SURFACE OF THE SKIN IN? |
1. stratum corneum 2. stratum lucidum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum spinosum 5. stratum basalis |
|
|
WHICH LAYER OF THE EPIDERMIS IS RESPONSIBLE FOR ITS PROLIFERATION? |
stratum basalis; all overlying layers result from skin cells that have been pushed up from the stratum basalis |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO LAYERS OF THE DERMIS FROM OUTSIDE IN? |
1. papillary layer 2. reticular layer |
|
|
WHAT DOES THE PAPILLARY LAYER OF THE DERMIS CONSIST OF? |
loose connective tissue |
|
|
WHICH LAYER OF THE SKIN IS A LAYER OF CONNECTIVE TISSUE THAT CONNECTS OUR SKIN TO OUR BODIES? |
hypodermis |
|
|
WHAT ARE MELANOCYTES? |
epidermal cells that secrete melanin, which helps keep us safe from UV light and DNA damage |
|
|
WHAT DOES MELANIN DO? |
protects the skin cells from UV light and subsequent DNA damage |
|
|
WHAT IS THERMOREGULATION? |
the process that allows the human body to maintain its core internal temperature |
|
|
WHAT ARE ANIMALS THAT MAINTAIN A CONSTANT BODY TEMPERATURE CALLED? |
endotherms or homeotherms |
|
|
WHAT ARE ANIMALS CALLED WHOSE BODY TEMPERATURE DEPENDS ON THE EXTERNAL ENVIRONMENT? |
ectotherms or poikilotherms |
|
|
WHAT IS TORPOR? |
a state of physical or mental inactivity; decreased arousal and bodily activity |
|
|
WHAT IS ESTIVATION? |
prolonged torpor or dormancy of an animal during a hot or dry period |
|
|
WHAT IS HIBERNATION? |
a state of inactivity and metabolic depression in endotherms that occurs in the winter months |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF SIGNALING USED BY THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM? |
autocrine, paracrine, endocrine |
|
|
WHAT IS AUTOCRINE SIGNALING? |
a form of cell signaling in which a cell secretes a hormone or chemical messenger that binds to autocrine receptors on that same cell, leading to changes in the cell |
|
|
WHAT IS PARACRINE SIGNALING? |
a form of cell-cell communication in which a cell produces a signal to induce changes in nearby cells, altering the behavior or differentiation of those cells |
|
|
WHAT IS ENDOCRINE SIGNALING? |
signaling that occurs when endocrine cells release hormones that act on distant target cells in the body |
|
|
LIST EIGHT ORGANS IN THE BODY CAPABLE OF ENDOCRINE SIGNALING. |
1. hypothalamus 2. pituitary gland 3. testes/ovaries (gonads) 4. pineal gland 5. kidneys 6. gastrointestinal glands 7. heart 8. thymus |
|
|
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE ISLETS OF LANGERHANS? |
make the hormones insulin and glucagon to help maintain glucose homeostasis |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO VARIETIES OF HORMONES? |
peptides and steriods |
|
|
WHERE IS THE HYPOTHALAMUS LOCATED? |
in the forebrain directly above the pituitary gland and below the thalamus |
|
|
HOW DOES THE HYPOTHALAMUS CONTROL THE PITUITARY GLAND (BROAD)? |
paracrine signaling into a portal system that directly connects the two organs |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO PARTS OF THE PITUITARY GLAND CALLED? |
the anterior and posterior pituitary gland |
|
|
WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE PORTAL SYSTEM THAT IS USED BY THE HYPOTHALAMS/PITUITARY GLAND? |
hypophyseal portal system |
|
|
_________________ IS THE MEDICAL NAME FOR THE PITUITARY GLAND.
|
hypophysis |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE SEVEN PRODUCTS OF THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY? |
1. FSH 2. LH 3. ACTH 4. TSH 5. Prolactin 6. Endorphins 7. GH (FLAT PEG) |
|
|
IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF GONADOTROPIN-RELEASING HORMONE (GnRH) LEADS TO THE RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY? |
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH)
|
|
|
IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF GROWTH HORMONE-RELEASING HORMONE (GHRH) LEADS TO THE RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY? |
growth hormone (GH)
|
|
|
IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF PROLACTIN INHIBITORY FACTOR (PIF) LEADS TO BLOCKED RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY? |
Prolactin |
|
|
IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF THYROID-RELEASING HORMONE (TRH) LEADS TO THE RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY? |
thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) |
|
|
IN THE HYPOTHALAMUS, THE RELEASE OF CORTICOTROPIN-RELEASING FACTOR (CRF) LEADS TO THE RELEASE OF WHAT FROM THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY? |
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) |
|
|
HOW DO THE PITUITARY AND THE HYPOTHALAMUS REGULATE THE AMOUNT OF HORMONES IN CIRCULATION? WHY IS THIS IMPORTANT? |
feedback inhibition; too much hormone or too little hormone can be detrimental to health |
|
|
WHICH LOBE OF THE PITUITARY HAS A DIRECT CONNECTION WITH THE HYPOTHALAMUS? |
the anterior |
|
|
HOW DOES THE HYPOTHALAMUS COMMUNICATE WITH THE POSTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND? |
neuronal signaling |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO HORMONES RELEASED BY THE POSTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND? |
oxytocin and vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF ROLES THAT ANTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND HORMONES CAN HAVE? |
direct or tropic |
|
|
WHAT ARE DIRECT HORMONES? |
hormones that bind to receptors on the target cells and have a direct effect |
|
|
WHAT ARE TROPIC HORMONES? |
hormones that bind to receptors on cells and cause the release of effector hormones (acting as an intermediate) |
|
|
WHICH OF THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY HORMONES ARE TROPIC? |
FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH |
|
|
WHICH OF THE ANTERIOR PITUITARY HORMONES ARE DIRECT?
|
Prolactin, Endorphins, GH |
|
|
WHAT DOES GROWTH HORMONE (GH) DO? |
promotes growth of bone and muscle along with preventing glucose uptake in certain cells and stimulating the breakdown of fatty acids |
|
|
IN CHILDREN, AN EXCESS OF GROWTH HORMONE CAN CAUSE _______________. A DEFICIT OF GROWTH HORMONE CAN CAUSE ________________. |
gigantism; dwarfism |
|
|
WHAT DOES AN EXCESS OF GROWTH HORMONE IN ADULTS CAUSE? |
acromegaly; abnormal growth of the hands, feet, and face |
|
|
WHAT DOES PROLACTIN DO? |
stimulates milk production in the mammary glands |
|
|
WHAT DO ENDORPHINS DO? |
decrease the perception of pain |
|
|
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF ADRENOCORTICOTROPIC HORMONE? |
it induces the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids, like cortisol |
|
|
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THYROID STIMULATING HORMONE? |
stimulates the thyroid to take up iodine and release thyroid hormone |
|
|
WHAT DOES OXYTOCIN DO? |
helps maintain rhythmic contractions during childbirth and may also stimulate milk production |
|
|
BLOOD OSMOLARITY IS SENSED BY _________________ AND BLOOD VOLUME IS SENSED BY _______________. |
osmoreceptors and baroreceptors |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO MAJOR FUNCTIONS OF THE THYROID GLAND? |
basal metabolic rate and calcium homeostasis |
|
|
THE THYROID CONTROLS BASAL METABOLIC RATE WITH _______________ AND _________________ AND CALCIUM LEVELS WITH _________________. |
thyroxine and triiodothyronine; calcitonin |
|
|
HOW ARE THE THYROID HORMONES PRODUCED? |
iodination of the amino acid tyrosine in follicular cells of the thyroid |
|
|
WHAT IS HYPOTHYROIDISM? WHAT ARE TWO THINGS THAT CAN CAUSE IT? |
thyroid hormones are secreted in insufficient amounts or not at all; iodine deficiency and inflammation of the thyroid |
|
|
WHAT IS CRETINISM? |
mental retardation and developmental delay caused by hypothyroidism at birth |
|
|
WHAT IS HYPERTHYROIDISM? WHAT ARE TWO THINGS THAT CAN CAUSE IT? |
an excess production of thyroid hormones; a tumor or overstimulation of the thyroid |
|
|
CALCITONIN IS PRODUCED BY ___________ IN THE THYROID. |
C-cells |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE THREE WAYS IN WHICH CALCITONIN DECREASES THE AMOUNT OF CALCIUM CIRCULATING IN THE PLASMA? |
1. increased excretion from kidneys 2. decreased absorption from the gut 3. increased storage in bone |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE PARATHYROID GLANDS? |
four small pea-shaped structures that sit on the posterior surface of the thyroid |
|
|
WHAT DOES PARATHYROID HORMONE DO? |
serves as an antagonist to calcitonin and increases calcium levels in the plasma AND activates vitamin D to its active form |
|
|
WHAT HORMONES ARE SECRETED BY THE ADRENAL CORTEX? |
corticosteroids |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE THREE FUNCTIONAL CLASSES OF CORTICOSTEROIDS? |
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and cortical sex hormones |
|
|
WHAT ARE TWO EXAMPLES OF GLUCOCORTICOIDS? |
cortisol and cortisone |
|
|
WHAT IS THE STRESS HORMONE? |
cortisol |
|
|
WHAT ARE THREE FUNCTIONS OF GLUCOCORTICOIDS?
|
1. increase gluconeogenesis 2. decrease protein synthesis 3. decrease inflammation and immune response |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE THREE STEPS IN THE PRECURSOR MOLECULE THAT STIMULATES ALDOSTERONE? |
angiotensinogen -> angiotensin I -> angiotensin II |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE MALE SEX HORMONES CALLED? |
androgens |
|
|
WHAT TWO HORMONES ARE SECRETED BY THE ADRENAL MEDULLA? |
epinephrine and norepinephrine |
|
|
EPINEPHRINE AND NOREPINEPHRINE ARE TWO HORMONES THAT BELONG TO A CLASS OF MOLECULES CALLED ___________________. |
catecholamines |
|
|
HOW DOES EPINEPHRINE AFFECT BLOOD SUGAR? |
it increases the conversion of glycogen back to glucose in both liver and muscle tissue |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF ISLET CELLS IN THE PANCREAS? |
alpha, beta, and delta |
|
|
WHAT DO ALPHA ISLET CELLS IN THE PANCREAS DO? |
secrete glucagon |
|
|
WHAT DO BETA ISLET CELLS IN THE PANCREAS DO? |
produce insulin |
|
|
WHAT DO DELTA ISLET CELLS IN THE PANCREAS DO? |
make somatostatin |
|
|
GLUCAGON STIMULATES WHAT FOUR THINGS? |
breakdown of fats, breakdown of proteins, breakdown of glycogen to glucose, stimulation of gluconeogenesis |
|
|
INSULIN STIMULATES WHAT FOUR THINGS? |
storage of glucose as glycogen, fat synthesis, protein synthesis, and glycolysis |
|
|
WHAT IS HYPOGLYCEMIA? |
low blood glucose levels |
|
|
WHAT IS DIABETES MELLITUS? |
excess glucose in the blood caused by underproduction of insulin, insufficient secretion of insulin, or insensitivity to insulin |
|
|
WHAT IS HYPERGLYCEMIA? |
high blood glucose levels |
|
|
WHAT IS POLYURIA? |
increased frequency of urination |
|
|
WHAT IS POLYDIPSIA? |
increased thirst |
|
|
WHAT CAUSES TYPE I DIABETES? |
autoimmune destruction of the beta islet cells in the pancreas |
|
|
WHAT CAUSES TYPE II DIABETES? |
the body resisting the effects of insulin at its receptor |
|
|
WHAT DOES SOMATOSTATIN DO? |
inhibits both insulin and glucagon |
|
|
WHAT IS ANDROGEN INSENSITIVITY SYNDROME? WHAT CAUSES IT? |
a disease where a genetic male has secondary female characteristics; lack of testosterone receptors or deficient testosterone production |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE TWO HORMONES THAT ARE IMPORTANT TO THE STIMULATION OF STRUCTURES IN THE GONADS? |
FSH and LH |
|
|
WHAT DOES ESTROGEN DO?
|
stimulates the development and maintenance of secondary female characteristics as well as a thickening of the endometrium each month in preparation for pregnancy |
|
|
WHAT TWO STRUCTURES SECRETE ESTROGENS? |
corpus luteum and ovarian follicles |
|
|
WHAT DOES PROGESTERONE DO? WHERE IS IT RELEASED FROM? |
stimulates the development and maintenance of the emdometrium; corpus luteum |
|
|
WHAT IS THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE? |
the growing and shedding of the endometrial lining in females every month |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE FOUR PHASES OF THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE? |
follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase, menstruation |
|
|
WHAT IS THE DECIDUA? |
the thick layer of modified mucous membrane that lines the uterus during pregnancy and is shed with the afterbirth |
|
|
THE FOLLICULAR PHASE BEGINS WITH ________________________. WHAT HAPPENS DURING THIS PHASE? |
menstrual flow; the uterine lining of the previous cycle is shed |
|
|
WHAT IS OVULATION? WHAT CAUSES IT? |
the release of the ovum from the ovary into the abdominal cavity; surges in GnRH, LH and FSH levels (surge in LH is especially important) |
|
|
WHAT HAPPENS DURING THE LUTEAL PHASE OF MENSTRUATION? |
LH causes the ruptured follicle to form the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone and causes progesterone levels to rise while estrogen levels remain high; this causes negative feedback on GnRH, LH, and FSH, which prevents multiple eggs from developing in the same cycle |
|
|
WHAT HAPPENS DURING THE MENSTRUATION PHASE OF THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE? |
if implantation doesn't occur, hCG is not produced to stimulate the corpus luteum, so progesterone levels decline and the uterine lining is sloughed off. |
|
|
IF FERTILIZATION OCCURS, THE CORPUS LUTEUM IS MAINTAINED BY _________. |
hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) |
|
|
WHAT HORMONE CHANGES ACCOMPANY MENOPAUSE? |
decreased estrogen and progesterone and increased FSH and LH (no feedback) due to decreased responsiveness of the ovaries |
|
|
WHAT HORMONE IS SECRETED BY THE PINNEAL GLAND?
|
melatonin |
|
|
WHAT ARE CIRCADIAN RYTHYMS? |
physical, mental and behavioral changes that follow a roughly 24-hour cycle, responding primarily to light and darkness in an organism's environment |
|
|
WHAT ARE THREE IMPORTANT GASTROINTESTINAL PEPTIDES? |
secretin, gastrin, cholecystokinin |
|
|
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF ERYTHROPOIETIN? WHERE IS IT PRODUCED? |
to stimulate the bone marrow to produce erythrocytes (RBC); kidneys |
|
|
WHAT HORMONE IS SECRETED BY THE HEART? WHAT IS ITS FUNCTION? |
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP); helps regulate salt and water balance
|
|
|
WHAT HORMONE IS RELEASED BY THE THYMUS? WHAT IS ITS FUNCTION? |
thymosin; important for proper T-cell development and differentiation |
|
|
WHAT HAPPENS TO THE THYMUS IN ADULTHOOD? |
it atrophies |
|
|
WHAT ARE THE THREE MAJOR CLASSES OF HORMONES? |
peptide hormones, steroid hormones, and amino acid-derived hormones |
|
|
WHAT IS A MAJOR EXAMPLE OF A SECOND MESSENGER? |
cAMP |
|
|
WHAT CATALYZES THE CONVERSION OF AMP TO cAMP? |
adenylyl cyclase |
|
|
PEPTIDE HORMONES ACT AS _____________ MESSENGERS. |
primary |
|
|
WHAT IS A SIGNALING CASCADE? |
a series of chemical reactions which are initiated by a stimulus (first messenger) acting on a receptor that is transduced to the cell interior through second messengers |
|
|
CAN SIGNALING PATHWAYS BE AMPLIFIED ALONG THE WAY? |
yes |
|
|
THE ACTIONS OF cAMP ARE TERMINATED BY _______________________.
|
phosphodiesterase |
|
|
ALL STEROID HORMONES ARE DERIVED FROM _______________. |
cholesterol |
|
|
WHAT IS DIMERIZATION?
|
the act of hormones or ligands pairing up with other receptor-hormone complexes |
|
|
ARE THE EFFECTS OF STERIODS OR PEPTIDES LONGER LIVED? WHICH HAPPENS FASTER? |
steroids; peptides |
|
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WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE CELL BODY OF A NEURON? |
the soma |
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WHAT ARE DENDRITES? |
neuronal structures (appendages) that receive information via signaling |
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WHAT IS THE AXON HILLOCK? |
the enlarged part of the beginning of the axon where action potentials begin |
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WHAT IS AN AXON? |
a neuronal structure (appendage) that is specialized to carry electrical messages |
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THE NEURONS ARE MYELINATED BY _______________ IN THE CNS AND _______________ IN THE PNS. |
oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells |
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WHAT ARE THE GAPS IN THE MYELIN CALLED? |
nodes of Ranvier |
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WHAT IS THE SPACE BETWEEN NEURONS CALLED? |
the synaptic cleft or synapse |
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WHAT IS THE END OF THE AXON CALLED? |
nerve terminal, axon terminal, or synaptic bouton |
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WHAT IS THE RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL? |
the potential difference (voltage) across the cell membrane in a cell at rest |
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WHAT TWO THINGS DO NEURONS USE TO MAINTAIN A NEGATIVE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT? |
selective permeability and Na+/K+ ATPase pumps |
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WHAT IONS ARE MORE HIGHLY CONCENTRATED INSIDE THE NEURON? |
potassium |
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WHAT IONS ARE MORE HIGHLY CONCENTRATED OUTSIDE THE NEURON? |
chloride, sodium, calcium |
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THE NEURONAL MEMBRANE AT REST IS MOST PERMEABLE TO WHICH ION? |
potassium |
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WHAT DO Na+/K+ ATPase PUMPS DO? |
pump three Na+ outside the cell for every two K+ pumped into the cell |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF EFFECTS THAT A NEURON CAN HAVE? |
excitatory or inhibitory |
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WHAT IS HYPERPOLARIZATION? |
a change in a cell's membrane potential that makes it more negative |
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WHAT IS DEPOLARIZATION? |
a change in a cell's membrane potential that makes it more positive |
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WHAT IS THE THRESHOLD VALUE FOR A NEURON (APPROXIMATELY)? |
-55/-40 mV |
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WHAT IS THE APPROXIMATE RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL OF A NEURON? |
-65/-70 mV |
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WHAT ARE ION CHANNELS CALLED THAT RESPOND TO VOLTAGE CHANGES? |
voltage-gated ion channels |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO VOLTAGE-GATED ION CHANNELS THAT ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE CONDUCTION OF ACTION POTENTIALS? |
Na+ and K+
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ION MOVEMENT IN NEURONS WORKS ON WHAT TWO GRADIENTS? |
electric and chemical (electrochemical) |
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WHAT IS THE PROCESS OF RESTORING THE RESTING MEMBRANE POTENTIAL CALLED? |
repolarization |
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WHAT IS THE MOVEMENT OF AN ACTION POTENTIAL DOWN AN AXON CALLED? |
impulse propogation |
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THE ONE-WAY FLOW OF ACTION POTENTIALS DOWN AN AXON IS A DIRECT RESULT OF ______________________. |
(absolute) refractory periods |
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FASTEST CONDUCTION OCCURS IN NEURONS THAT ARE _____________ (LENGTH), _________________ (DIAMETER), AND _______________________ (MYELINATION?). |
short; large in diameter; myelinated |
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WHAT IS TRANSMISSION IN MYELINATED AXONS CALLED? |
saltatory conduction |
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IF THE NEURON SIGNALS TO A GLAND OR MUSCLE, THAT CELL IS TERMED AN __________________________. |
effector cell |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF NEURONAL TRANSMISSION? |
electrical and chemical |
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ARE MOST SYNAPSES IN THE BRAIN ELECTRICAL OR CHEMICAL? |
chemical |
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WHAT ARE NEUROTRANSMITTERS? |
chemical substances that are released at the end of a nerve fiber by the arrival of a nerve impulse and diffuse across the synapse or junction |
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NEUROTRANSMITTER RELEASE IS DEPENDENT ON WHAT ION? |
calcium |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE WAYS IN WHICH NEUROTRANSMITTER CAN BE REMOVED FROM THE SYNAPSE? |
reuptake, break down, or diffusion |
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WHAT ARE AFFERENT NEURONS? |
neurons that carry information toward the brain (CNS) |
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WHAT ARE EFFERENT NEURONS? |
neurons that carry information away from the brain (CNS)
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WHAT ARE INTERNEURONS? |
neurons that are involved in local circuits that connect neurons to other neurons and are involved in reflex activity |
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WHAT IS A NERVE? |
a bundle of many neurons |
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WHAT ARE GANGLIA? |
clusters of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS |
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WHAT ARE CLUSTERS OF NEURONAL CELL BODIES CALLED IN THE CNS? |
nuclei |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO COMPONENTS OF THE CNS?
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brain and spinal cord |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE DIVISIONS OF THE BRAIN?
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forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain |
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HOW IS WHITE MATTER DIFFERENT FROM GRAY MATTER? |
white matter is myelinated which makes it appear white |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO DIVISIONS OF THE FOREBRAIN?
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telencephalon and diencephalon |
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WHAT ARE THE FOUR DIVISIONS OF THE CEREBRAL CORTEX?
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frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital |
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WHAT IS THE LARGE NEURONAL CONNECTION THAT IS USED TO COMMUNICATE BETWEEN CEREBRAL HEMISPHERES?
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corpus callosum |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO COMPONENTS OF THE DIENCEPHALON?
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thalamus and hypothalamus |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE STRUCTURES THAT MAKE UP THE HINDBRAIN?
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cerebellum, medulla oblongata, and pons |
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WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE CEREBELLUM?
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involuntary muscle coordination, balance, and learned/rythmic behaviors |
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WHAT THREE FUNCTIONS IS THE MEDULLA RESPONSIBLE FOR? |
respiration rate, heart rate, and gastrointestinal tone |
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WHAT ARE THE FOUR SECTIONS OF THE SPINAL CORD? |
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral |
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WHAT PROTECTS THE SPINAL COLUMN? |
vertebral column |
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IS THE GRAY MATTER IN THE SPINAL CORD INTERIOR OR EXTERIOR? |
interior |
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WHERE ARE THE CELL BODIES OF SENSORY NEURONS FOUND?
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dorsal root ganglia |
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HOW MANY CRANIAL NERVES ARE THERE? HOW MANY SPINAL NERVES ARE THERE? |
12; 31 |
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WHAT IS THE SOMATIC NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSIBLE FOR?
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voluntary movement |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF REFLEX ARCS?
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monosynaptic and polysynaptic |
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WHAT ARE MONOSYNAPTIC REFLEX ARCS?
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reflexes where there is a single connection between the sensory input and motor output neurons |
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WHAT IS THE KNEE-JERK REFLEX? WHAT TYPE OF REFLEX ARC IS IT? |
when the patellar tendon is stretched, the body compensates by contracting the muscle and kicking the leg; monosynaptic |
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WHAT IS A POLYSYNAPTIC REFLEX ARC? |
a reflex arc where there is at least one interneuron involved between the sensory input and the motor output neurons |
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WHAT IS THE WITHDRAWAL REFLEX? WHAT TYPE OF REFLEX ARC IS IT? |
when you step on something sharp, you immediately withdraw your leg; polysynaptic |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF NEURONS CALLED IN THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM? |
preganglionic and postganglionic |
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WHAT ARE PREGANGLIONIC NEURONS? |
neurons in the ANS whose cell bodies are in the CNS with axons traveling to the PNS |
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WHAT ARE POSTGANGLIONIC NEURONS? |
neurons in the ANS whose cell bodies receive signals from the preganglionic neurons and transmit that to the target cell |
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WHAT IS THE SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM, PUT SIMPLY? |
fight or flight |
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WHAT IS THE PARASYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM, PUT SIMPLY? |
rest and digest |
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WHAT NERVE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR MOST OF THE PARASYMPATHETIC RESPONSES? |
vagus |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF SENSORY RECEPTORS? |
interoceptors, proprioceptors, exteroceptors |
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WHAT DO INTEROCEPTORS DO? |
monitor internal environmental parameters, like blood volume, blood pH, and partial pressure of CO3 |
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WHAT DO PROPRIOCEPTORS DO? |
sense the body's position in space |
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WHAT DO EXTEROCEPTORS DO? |
monitor the external environment and respond to it |
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WHAT DO NOCICEPTORS DO? |
sense pain and relay that information to the brain |
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WHAT IS THE WHITE OF THE EYE? |
the sclera |
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WHAT SUPPLIES THE EYE WITH NUTRIENTS AND OXYGEN? |
choroid |
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WHAT IS THE INNERMOST LAYER OF THE EYE CALLED? |
the retina |
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WHAT DO PHOTORECEPTORS DO? |
transduce light into electrical information that the brain can process |
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LIGHT FIRST PASSES THROUGH THE ____________. |
cornea |
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WHAT DOES THE CORNEA DO? |
bends and focuses incoming light
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LIGHT RAYS MOVE THROUGH THE ____________ INTO THE EYE. |
pupil |
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WHAT IS THE MUSCLE IN THE EYE THAT CONTROLS PUPIL SIZE CALLED? |
iris |
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THE _________ DOES THE FINAL FOCUSING OF LIGHT BEFORE IT ENTERS THE INNER EYE. |
lens |
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__________ ADJUST THE THICKNESS OF THE LENS, WHICH FOCUSES THE IMAGE ON THE RETINA/ |
cilliary muscles |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO MAIN TYPES OF PHOTORECEPTORS? |
rods and cones |
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WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE PIGMENT THAT RODS HAVE? |
rhodopsin |
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WHAT IS THE PATH OF LIGHT FROM THE RETINA TO THE BRAIN? |
photoreceptors -> bipolar cells -> ganglion cells -> optic nerve |
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WHY DO WE HAVE A BLIND SPOT? |
the optic nerve takes up a space on the retina, so there are no photoreceptors here |
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WHAT IS THE PHYSICAL EAR CALLED?
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the auricle or pinna |
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THE ________________ IS THE BEGINNING OF THE MIDDLE EAR. |
tympanic membrane |
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WHAT ARE THE THREE OSSICLES IN THE MIDDLE EAR?
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malleus, incus, stapes |
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THE STAPES TRANSMITS SOUND SIGNAL TO THE COCHLEA VIA WHAT?
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the oval window |
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THE INNER EAR IS MADE UP OF WHAT TWO STRUCTURES?
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cochlea and semicircular canals |
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THE MOVEMENT OF THE OSSICLES ON THE OVAL WINDOW CREATES FLUID WAVES IN THE INNER EAR THAT DEPOLARIZE THE ________________ WHICH TRANSLATE THE SOUND INTO A NERVE IMPULSE.
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hair cells |
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THE ACTION POTENTIAL FROM THE HAIR CELLS GOES TO THE ___________________. |
auditory nerve |
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WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE TWO IMPORTANT FLUIDS IN THE SEMICIRCULAR CANALS?
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endolymph and perilymph |
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WHAT ARE THE TWO CHEMICAL SENSES?
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olfaction and gustatation |
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WHAT ARE THE FIVE TASTES?
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sour, sweet, bitter, salty, umami |
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WHERE DOES "SMELL" PRIMARILY TAKE PLACE? |
the olfactory epithelium |
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WHAT IS UNIQUE ABOUT THE SENSE OF SMELL? |
it has a direct connection to the limbic system and can bypass the thalamus |
