• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off

Card Range To Study



Play button


Play button




Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

131 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What happens in transformation? (bacteria)

bacteria take up DNA from their surroundings, the media in which they are immersed

What happens in transduction?

In transduction, genes are transferred via a virus


in conjugation, gram negative bacteria have a special conjugation pilus (sex pilus) that is transferred from that bacterium to another bacteriam. The sex pilus is referred to as the fertility/F factor Plasmid can move from one host bacterium to another through the conjugation pilus

to be an effective therapy, an antisense gene that is incorporated into a genome that contains a target gene must be

regulated in a similar manner as the target gene because it is all about TIMING

what happens to boiling point to water when salt is added?

adding salt reduces the vapor pressure of the liquid. Specifically, as the solute concentration is increased, the rate at which water molecules can break through the liquid surface decreases. Remember that boiling point is defined as the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a solution is equal to the atmospheric pressure. A decrease in vapor pressure makes this point more difficult to achieve, resulting in a higher boiling temperature.

solute does what to boiling point?

raises boiling point because it decreases vapor pressure and v.p = atmospheric pressure

Boiling chips and vacuum distillation, respectively, are used in distillations to:

provide nucleation sites that give the liquid a place to start forming bubbles to prevent superheating; speed up the distillation process by vacuuming the first distillate out of the apparatus.

vacuum distillation

remember that boiling occurs when the Pvap of the substance in question equals the Patm. Typically, we boil substances by increasing the temperature, thereby increasing Pvap. Alternatively, however, we can lower boiling point by reducing Patm, which can be accomplished through the introduction of a vacuum. Vacuum distillation is often used when components have very high boiling points and would otherwise be difficult to distill.

For a monoprotic acid at the equivalence point, Mbase × Vbase = Macid × Vacid = moles acid.

relationship between delta G and Keq

ΔG° < 0 for a given reaction indicates that reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions, and that at equilibrium, the products of the reaction predominate over the reactants. This is indicated by Keq > 1 and can be clearly seen in the relationship between ΔG and Keq:ΔG = -ln Keqwhere Keq > 1 returns a value of ΔG < 0, and Keq < 1 returns a value of ΔG > 0.

In miRNA-directed gene silencing, a small RNA binds to an mRNA and directs degradation of the mRNA or prevents translation of the mRNA. Which of the following terms describes the process through which binding occurs?

hybridization describes a process of binding through complementary nucleotides.

Eosinophils play a major role in the promotion of the inflammatory response, which is marked by increased vasodilation, blood vessel permeability, and pain. The inflammatory response is classified as:

The innate immune system includes nonspecific immune responses. In other words, its responses provide general protection, rather than protection against specific pathogens that have been previously encountered and “remembered.” Inflammation is a function of the innate immune system, as it serves as a general response to infection or injur

Which form of genetic change best explains the loss of the majority of genes from the Y chromosome?

genetic drift: genes were lost partially due to population genetics. Genetic drift encompasses the fact that an adult male who has only female offspring will never pass on his Y chromosome. In other words, even if the male has a well-adapted Y chromosome, it may not be passed to the next generation. The repeated random loss of well-adapted Y chromosomes can result in the degeneration of the chromosome as a whole.

what kind of NS response is dilation of the eyes?

Dilation of the pupils is a classic fight-or-flight response. The fight-or-flight response is part of the sympathetic nervous system. Constriction is part of parasympathetic.

Increasing plasma concentration of aldosterone is most likely to be followed by what?

increased sodium resorption in the distal tubule. Aldosterone is released from the adrenal cortex in response to low blood pressure. Its primary function is to increase sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct. Aldosterone upregulates the sodium-potassium pumps along the lining of the nephron, pumping three sodium ions OUT of the nephron lining (and toward the blood) for every two potassium ions it pumps IN (toward the nephron and away from the blood). Since we have a net solute movement out of the nephron, aldosterone also increases the gradient that favors water reabsorption.

What aspects separate single-crossover events from double-crossover events?

Single-crossover events affect only the ends of chromosome arms, while double-crossover events can affect segments in the middle of chromosome arms.

Troponin isoenzymes are used as an alternative biomarker in the diagnosis of heart attacks. In which of the following muscle types does the troponin complex function in contraction?

Troponin is a complex of three proteins (troponin I, troponin C, and troponin T) required for muscle contraction in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle, but not smooth muscle.

While the blood is buffered primarily through the equilibrium between carbon dioxide and carbonic acid, coupled with hemoglobin, the blood may also be buffered through other plasma proteins. What is a consequence of this?

The amino acid residues that make up the protein may act as Brønsted acids or bases, reducing any shifts in pH. The amino acids that make up a protein may include many acidic or basic side chain groups. Those side chains can either release or absorb protons, allowing them to help buffer the blood through action as a Brønsted-Lowry acid or base.

What are analogous and homologous structures?

Analogous structures are those structures that evolved independently to carry out the same function. Thus, the wing of a bee and the wing of a bird are analogous structures. Homologous structures are those that have a similar evolutionary history, arising from the same source, even if they now have different functions. The forelimbs of mammals (human arm, walrus flipper, bat wing) would all be homologous despite their different functions.

What is a mediating variable?

A mediating variable is one which explains the relationship between two other variables.

a moderator variable?

A moderator variable is one that influences the strength of a relationship between two other variables, As an example consider the relation between social status and frequency of testicular self-exams. Age might be a moderator variable, in that the relation between social status and testicular self-exam might be stronger for older men and less strong or nonexistent for younger men. Education might be a mediator variable in that it explains why there is a relation between self-exam and social status. This would mean when we remove the effect of education, the relation between the two variables disappears.

confounding variable

confounding variable is one which is not typically of interest to the researcher but is an extraneous variable which is related to BOTH the dependent and independent variables.

Abnormal functioning of which brain region(s) plays a role in the development of depression (3 regions)

The frontal lobe is involved in humans’ ability to project future consequences of current actions. Limbic system structures regulate emotion and memory, and the hypothalamus coordinates many hormones, some of which are involved in mood regulation. Therefore, abnormal functioning in any (or all) of the three could produce symptoms similar to depression.

Risk ratios compare the risk of multiple sclerosis among one group with the risk among another group.

Incidence describes the number of new cases of a disease (in this case, multiple sclerosis) during a specific time interval (a year).

Prevalence rates describe how common multiple sclerosis is. More specifically, they tell us how many people (new cases and current cases) have multiple sclerosis within a certain amount of time.

Mortality rates describe the number of deaths caused by multiple sclerosis within a specific population and a certain amount of time.

What is a longitudinal cohort design

A study is a longitudinal cohort design because it follows a group of individuals and assessed them at multiple intervals over a period of two years. (as an example of a study)

what is a cross-sectional design

Cross-sectional designs examine a group of individuals at one point in time.

what is a case control design

Case control designs compare information about individuals with a disease or condition against people without the disease or condition.

what is attrition bias?

Attrition bias occurs when participants drop out of a long-term experiment or study.

At one university, faculty members who behave unethically are required to have a meeting with the dean. After their meeting, their unprofessional behavior decreases. What process does this describe?

Positive refers to adding a stimulus, and punishment refers to a consequence that decreases a behavior. A meeting with the dean was added, and this decreased the behavior (unprofessional behavior), so this is positive punishment.

what are the 3 components of emotion

the three core components of emotion – physiological arousal (how your body reacts to emotions, emotional information or stimuli), expressive displays (how you express your emotions), and subjective experiences (how you feel and interpret your emotions, which is extremely personal and subjective). Conditioned responses are not a core component of emotion.

what are hormones associated with social bonding and love?

β-endorphins and oxytocin

which theory does this example support? As Julia pets her cat, her blood pressure decreases and her brain increases release of oxytocin. She then cognitively interprets how much she loves her cat, and experiences happiness as a result.

The Schachter-Singer theory states that emotion processing has three distinct steps: physiological arousal, cognitive interpretation of the situation, and the experience of the emotion, in that order. Julia pets her cat, which leads to physiological changes in her brain. She then thinks about her love for the cat and feels an emotion — happiness.

which theory is this an example of: .Timothy’s dog runs out of the house without his collar or leash. Timothy’s heart rate increases and he shouts for the dog to come home. His body’s cues and behavior lead him to understand that he is in a scary situation, and he feels afraid.

This statement supports the James-Lange theory of emotion, which states that behavioral and physiological aspects of emotion (like increased heart rate and shouting) lead to cognitive aspects of emotion (like understanding that a situation is scary and feeling afraid).

Annabel is holding her guinea pig on the couch and scratching its ears. As she does this, her brain releases hormones associated with reward. At the same time, she cognitively interprets the situation as happy and calm. She then smiles.

This statement supports the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, which states that physiological and cognitive aspects of emotion occur simultaneously and independently. Annabel’s brain released hormones at the same time that she interpreted the situation as happy and calm. The theory also states that behavioral expression is the last aspect – like when Annabel smiled.

When a subject views the word “red” written in green ink it takes longer for the subject to recognize the word than when viewing the word “red” written in red ink. This phenomenon is known as:

The Stroop effect describes the phenomenon in which it is harder for an individual to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile similar pieces of information.

That participants in Brazil might have interpreted the classifications of “Black” and “White” to be a reflection of social class, rather than race, represents what type of critique of the methodology?

This is a problem with construct validity, or the manner in which the terms of the study are defined.

Which concept is most useful in explaining the results of the relationship between race and social class in the study?

Socialization refers to how individual attitudes are shaped by social factors. As was stated, race is viewed as a fluid concept in Brazil.

What variable could be introduced to the study to evaluate attitudes towards race and class from a symbolic interactionism perspective?

Symbolic interactionism is the view that an individual’s experiences influence his perceptions. Thus, an individual’s experience with race and class would influence how he perceives the images.

Participants’ level of exposure to different races and classes

Based on the methods used by the researcher, which of the following represents an inherent limitation in the study?

The information obtained from this study was self reported as indicated in the third paragraph. It says that the participants independently completed the survey. Self-reported information is always vulnerable to subjective bias.

A parent tells his child that if she spends an hour practicing the piano that evening, she will be allowed to skip her chores the next morning. The parent is using:

You can reinforce a behavior by rewarding it, which is positive reinforcement. Alternatively, you can reinforce a behavior by removing something negative, like chores. Here, the kid gets out of something negative (chores) by increasing a behavior (piano). Thus, the parent is using negative reinforcement.

different memory types

Semantic memory is the type of memory related to facts and information.

Episodic memory is a type of memory related to personal experiences.

Procedural memory is a type of memory related to actions or behaviors, like placing an IV or suturing a wound.

Conditioned memory is a type of memory that is formed based on your associations between two things. For example, if your professor rings a bell at the end of the exam, you will remember the bell as the sign that the exam is over.

what is drive-reduction motivation

Drive-reduction motivation is motivation based on the need to fulfill a certain drive, like hunger or thirst.

What type of conflict are the jurors in the study likely experiencing if they are unsure of the defendant's guilt?

Double approach-avoidant conflicts consist of two options with both appealing and negative characteristics, which seems to represent the jury’s dilemma. If they rule the defendant guilty, they would either be punishing a criminal (approach) or punishing an innocent (avoidant). If they rule the defendant innocent, they would either be letting a criminal walk away unpunished (avoidant) or freeing an innocent (approach).

Cialdini’s 6 principles of persuasion

reciprocity, commitment and consistency, social proof, authority, liking, scarcity.

What best describes the relationship between attribution theory and fundamental attribution error?

Attribution theory relates to an attempt by an individual to interpret actions by assigning causes to them; fundamental attribution error is when an individual interprets another’s actions incorrectly by overemphasizing internal characteristics instead of external events.

What is the binding of Oxygen to Hb considered?

The sigmoidal shape of the curve implies that as each oxygen molecule binds to Hb, the affinity of Hb for oxygen goes up. Homotropic regulation is when a molecule serves as a substrate for its target enzyme, as well as a regulatory molecule of the enzyme's activity. O2 is a homotropic allosteric modulator of hemoglobin. The four subunits of hemoglobin actually bind to oxygen cooperatively, meaning the binding of oxygen to one of the four subunits will increase the likelihood that the remaining sites will bind with oxygen as well. This is the cause of the sigmoidal curve shown in the figure.

what pH most closely approximates the pKa of phenolphthalein?

anything above 7. e.g. 9


(amino acid type) has a benzen as well as 2 hydroxyl group

The concentration of intracellular signaling molecules fluctuates rapidly in dividing cells during the cell cycle. Which experimental techniques would be best to elucidate the mechanism of regulation for these proteins?

western blot and RT-PCR. In order to gain the best understanding of how a signaling protein’s levels are regulated, both the protein and mRNA levels would need to be studied. Western blotting gives us information about the amount of protein expressed in a cell, while RT-PCR gives us information about the amount of RNA expressed.





The mnemonic to remember blotting techniques is "SNoW DRoP"S - Southern - DNA - D N - Northern - RNA - RO - Oooooo - Ooooo - OW - Western - Protein - P

The music children listen to conveys certain typical social situations and the expected emotional reaction to those situations in a simple, repetitive way that allows children and adolescents to more easily internalize. This process of internalizing the expected reactions to life situations is:

a normal part of the socialization process. Socialization is the process of internalizing the social norms and values expected in one’s society, and mass media (such as popular music) is one source of normal socialization.

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion would suggest that any aggressive emotions that the children experience as a result of listening to aggressive music would: entail simultaneous physiological arousal and a subjective feeling of aggression, which are separate and independent.

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion asserts that the physiological arousal and the subjective feeling of an emotion arise from different parts of the brain and are separate and independent of one another.

Assuming that the children studied are 6-7 years old and are in the normal stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, which of the following would most likely be observed among these subjects?

Piaget's stages of development, children from ages 2 to 7 are in the pre-operational stage of development. At that level, children learn to operate symbolically and engage in a lot of symbolic play (e.g. a stick is a sword, a plastic toy is a cake, a doll is a person, etc.).A: The ability to mentally manipulate information emerges in the operational stages, after age seven. C: Children in the preoperational stage operate egocentrically and are likely unable to understand the perspective of another child.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a major assumption of the functionalist theory of social stratification?

I. Social stratification affects what people believe about themselves and others and influences their daily life, lifestyle choices, and interactions with others.

II. Social stratification is unnecessary and results from both lack of opportunity and discrimination against the poor and people of color.

III. Social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those with special intelligence, knowledge, and skills to be a part of the most important professions and occupations.

Functionalist theories assert that aspects of culture are necessary and need-based. Thus, they believe III. Social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those with special intelligence, knowledge, and skills to be a part of the most important professions and occupations.

What type of cultural norm is most directly involved in health behaviors?

Mores are norms that are deemed highly necessary to the welfare of a society and have consequences if violated. Health behaviors (like seeking help for an acute medical illness) are standards of behavior that are necessary for the well-being of everyone; if a person does not seek help, they may be shunned by family members or friends.

cultural nomrs e.g. taboos, mores, laws and mores

Mores are norms that are deemed highly necessary to the welfare of a society and have consequences if violated.

Folkways are norms that govern everyday behavior (like holding a door open).C: Taboos are considered unacceptable by almost every culture (like cannibalism or incest).D: Laws are established standards of behavior that are written down and have very clear consequences.

What characteristics of society are associated with high levels of anomie?

I. Rapid changes in societyII. Low levels of incomeIII. High heterogeneity

What part of the brain is likely to be more active while playing a song on the piano for the thousandth time from memory in comparison to playing it for the first time while reading the sheet music?

The cerebellum is responsible for muscle memory and coordination. When playing the song for the thousandth time, it will be played mostly from muscle memory.

Frontal lobe is primarily involved in reward, planning, motivation, and inhibitions. It also houses the motor cortex, which controls movement, but that is likely to be equally activated regardless of how well-known the piece of music is.

The temporal lobe is involved in memory, but this sort of muscle memory is more likely to be cerebellar in nature

The parietal lobe is involved primarily in regulating and interpreting sensory data and would not be more active while playing a well-known piece.

A public health advocacy group has developed a program to encourage adherence to a Truvada medication regimen using operant conditioning principles. An example of the group using thinning in the program is:

In operant conditioning, thinning refers to reducing the frequency of rewards for a given action.

Many elderly individuals struggle with the concept of death and dying. The Kübler-Ross model provides a series of stages that most people experience when facing the end of their life. What is the correct sequence of this model?

For these stages, you can remember the acronym Death Always Brings Definite Acceptance. The stages are sequenced in the following order: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

Which concept takes into account the impact on decision-making caused by short-term exposure to stress discussed in the passage?

describe the body's short-term and long-term reactions to stress. Selye thought that the general adaptation syndrome involved two major systems of the body, the nervous system and the endocrine system. He then went on to outline what he considered as three distinctive stages in the syndrome's evolution. He called these stages the alarm reaction (AR), the stage of resistance (SR), and the stage of exhaustion (SE).

: General strain theory holds that individuals who have experienced negative events feel negative emotions, which lead to negative behaviors.

Anomie theory states that individuals who experience weakened social values are less likely to behave in ways that are helpful to that society. Relative deprivation theory posits that individuals who perceive themselves as having less resources than others will often act in ways to obtain these resources.

Underproduction of pulmonary surfactant in IRDS leads to decreased compliance of alveolar tissue. Based upon this information, which of the following must be true regarding pulmonary surfactant?

Its adsorption to the water-alveolar interface decreases surface tension, decreasing the pressure difference required to inflate the airway.

The elastic recoil force of the airway and the surface tension of the water lining the airway oppose expansion of the alveoli due to the influx of atmospheric pressure. Pulmonary surfactant adsorbs to the air-water-alveoli interface, reducing surface tension and the total force resisting expansion. This increases pulmonary compliance—a measure of lung volume change at a given pressure of inspired air—and decreases the work required to expand the lungs at a given atmospheric pressure.

Colliding cells often meet on the near frictionless surface of vascular membranes. If Cell 1 collides into stationary Cell 2 on an arterial wall, which of the following describes what happens to Cell 2 after the collision?

Cell 2 moves with constant speed.

Cell 2 moves with constant velocity.

Once cell 2 is in motion, it will stay in motion with constant velocity, without changing direction. Therefore, it will have a constant speed (III) and a constant velocity (IV).

Which of the following best explains why arginine is more basic than lysine?

This question is asking us to determine why arginine is more basic than lysine. The reason must be related to how arginine is better able to handle being protonated, as this is the essence of being a base. Since, in its protonated form, arginine has electron-donating groups via resonance with other nitrogens, it is a more stable conjugate acid

A 12 V battery is used to charge a 20 μF capacitor in a defibrillator. How much charge is stored on the plates of the capacitor?

he capacitance (C) is the amount of charge stored per volt, C = q/V which means q = CV. The capacitance is given as 20 microfarads, which is 20 x 10-6 F. Substituting the voltage (12 V) and capacitance into the equation in scientific notation gives us the charge in coulombs. (20 x 10-6 F)(1.2 x 101 V) = 24 x 10-5 C = 2.4 x 10-4 C. Converting the answers unit to millicoulombs (mC) gives the correct answer. Remember when making the exponent larger, we must make the coefficient smaller by the same factor.2.4 x 10-4 C = 0.24 x 10-3 C = 0.24 mC

how does a photon emit energy?

In order to emit a photon of energy, an electron must go from a higher energy level to a lower energy level.

What is the formula for potential energy contained in a spring?

The formula for potential energy contained in a spring is PE = (1/2) kx2


differ at only ONE chiral center (in a carbohydrate etc)

Van't hoof factor + dissociation

when van't hoof factor is greather than 1, get a HIGHER osmotic pressure (glucose is = 1 and cacl2 = 3)

what is the average weight of an aminco acid?

110 Dalton

pellet and supernatant

bottom of the tube and form a lump called a pellet. Lighter material, remains near the top of the tube and forms a liquid layer called the supernatant.

what is a signal sequence domain

signal sequence domain: protein domains required for proteins that are directed towards secretory pathways

What is nuclear localization signal? Which types of proteins enter the RER`?

nuclear localization signal is basically a signal that guides a protein molecule to the nucleus. This is useful to up/down regulate certain cellular processes and products.

The signal sequence is what allows proteins to enter the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). Generally, these are proteins that are either going to be secreted from the cell or perform their function within the cell membrane.

what is general information (as related to memory)

crystallized intelligence + semantic memory

how does aging affect cognitive ability?

decline: recall, processing, new episodic memory, divided attention

stable: implicit memory and recognition

improve: crystallized IQ, semantic memory, emotional reasoning

In which biological process does histone modification play a direct role?

Histone modification affects RNA transcription. The modification will either tighten or loosen the DNA that surrounds the histones. Tight DNA is difficult to read and transcribe, but loose DNA is easier to read and transcribe.

in psychology, music is considered...

...an agent of socialization (as music is an important part of popular culture)

other agents of socialization: family, schools, and religion

Which perceptual organizational principles provides information about depth?

Retinal disparity is a binocular depth cue that gives you a slightly different view of the same object and contributes to depth perception.

If an individual has to make a judgment regarding the distance of a traffic light on a foggy morning, which of the following theories attempts to explain how the judgment is made?

Signal detection theory attempts to measure how we make decisions under conditions of uncertainty (judging distance of a traffic light in the fog).

what are monocular cues?

Relative size is a monocular cue that allows us to infer distance. If two objects are similar in size in the real world, the one that casts a smaller retinal image is perceived to be further away.

Interposition is a monocular cue that allows us to infer position. If one object is blocking another, it is perceived as being closer.

Motion parallax, or relative motion, is another monocular cue. When you are moving, objects closer than your point of visual focus move in the direction opposite to you, while objects beyond

diff. between proximal and distal stimulus

Proximal stimulus is the stimulation that actually occurs when your sensory receptors are activated... the neural activity. The patterns of stimuli from objects and events that actually reach your senses (eyes, ears, etc.)

Distal stimulus is the actual stimulus or object in the real world that you end up sensing and then perceiving, which results in the proximal stimulus.

Psychophysical Discrimination Testing- varying a physical stimulus slightly and observing the effect on a subject’s experience or behavior in order to better understand perceptual processing. (ex change the size slightly between two objects until subject notices a difference)

Operational Span Testing: Test to see the general capacity of working memory tasks, patients are asked to read and verify a simple math problem (is 4/2 -1 = 1?) then read a word after such as SNOW, after doing a series of problems and words they are asked to recall the word that followed each operation.

in operant conditioning, the subject's motivational state is typically operationally defined by...

depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time

episodic memory

episodic memory: memory of personal facts

semantic memory; general memory

incentive theory

humanistic theory

maslow's hierarchy of needs, free will + self-actualization, rogers: growth promoting climate

psychoanalytic theory

freud + id (immediate gratification), ego (long-term gratification) + superego (conscience/moral compass), concept of libido

drive theory

drives and needs

need: lack/deprivation that energizes a drive

In other words your motivation (drive) to achieve your need stems from you wanting/needing to reduce your state of arousal.

incentive theory

reward: intangible/tangible given AFTER the action is performed

e.g. job satisfaction/promotion for a job well done

it is how factors outside the individual including community can motivate behavior


evolutionary approach

role instincts play

what is instinct and not learned?

e.g. baby cries, sleeps and eats: all are basic instincts

social epidemiology

focuses on the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease patterns in populations

social constructionism

Social constructionism or the social construction of reality (also social concept) is a theory of knowledge in sociology and communication theory that examines the development of jointly constructed understandings of the world that form the basis for shared assumptions about reality.

social interactionism

people act toward things based on the meaning those things have for them, and these meanings are derived from social interaction and modified through interpretation

symbolic interactionism

(compiled by Mead)blumer: action depends on meaning, we get meaning to things based on social interactions, meaning we give is not permanent


a system of thinking based on ideas of Durkheim

examines necessary structures and how each part keeps stable stable


latent effects

indirect effects of institiution (manifest is opposite)

role of cerebellum

The cerebellum receives information from the sensory systems, the spinal cord, and other parts of the brain and then regulates motor movements. The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements such as posture, balance, coordination, and speech, resulting in smooth and balanced muscular activity.

limbic system

HIPPO + wearing a HAT

H: hypothalamus

A: amygdala

T: thalamus

Hippo: hippocampus


converts ST to LT memory


regulates ANS (controls endocrine system) also homeostasis

reward pathway

ventral tegmental area (VTA): releases dopamine to amygdala, to nucleus accumbans (controls body's motor functions), prefrontal cortex and hippacampus

mesolimbic pathway: hippacampus, amygdala and nucleus accumbans


evolutionary perspective of human motivation

Evolutionary psychology is an approach in the social and natural sciences that examines psychological traits such as memory, perception, and language from a modern evolutionary perspective.

universal emotions

fear, anger, disgust, happy, sad, surprise

place theory

one is able to hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea's basilar membrane

photoreceptors in fovea

middle: cones

periphery: rods

what is a cross-sectional design

cross-sectional study (also known as across-sectional analysis, transversal study, prevalence study) is a type of observational study that analyzes data collected from a population, or a representative subset, at a specific point in time—that is, cross-sectional data.


counterbalancing is a measure to control for any effect that the order of the presented stimuli have on the dependent variable

unidirectional and reciprocal

independent: unidirectional, independent of person (stresors leads to depressive symptoms)

dependent: RECIPROCAL, affect depression

constructionist understanding of gender

describes gender as dynamic, fluid and subject to the process of meaning-making and collective definition

how we as a society construct abstract concepts and principles.

what kind of solvent favors sn2 reactions

SN2 mechanism is favored by polar aprotic solvents, such as acetone or DMSO.

these are solvents such as acetone, DMSO, acetonitrile, or DMF that are polar enough to dissolve the substrate and nucleophile but do not participate in hydrogen bonding with the nucleophile.

what favors sn1 reactoins

protic solvents!

Water and methanol are protic solvents.

The SN1 reaction tends to proceed in polar protic solvents such as water, alcohols, and carboxylic acids. These also tend to be the nucleophiles for these reactions as well.

what is in blood brain barrier/

blood-brain barrier is composed of endothelial cells with tight junctions that prevent the movement of most solutes.

astrocyte endfeet, endothelial cells, basal lamina, and tight junctions

In comparison to a neural cell, a gastrointestinal cell would likely spend:

the g0 phase! (because g0 phase menas no dividing)

G0 is a non-growing state that accounts for the observed differences in length in the cell cycle. Whereas intestinal cells will divide twice per day, neuronal cells do not divide following initial differentiation and therefore remain permanently in G0.

Which of the following would be LEAST useful in cellular movement?

Microtubule de-polymerization is responsible for separating chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis or meiosis I or II. It does not contribute to overall cell migration.

what is self serving bias

Self-serving bias is the tendency to attribute good outcomes with internal factors (for example, hard work), and ascribe bad outcomes to external factors (boss not giving a raise).

ecological validity

how an experiment relates to a real world environment

construct validity

the way the measures are conducted

subjective tests

In subjective assessments, patients project their own subjective feelings, perceptions, and thoughts onto the assessment stimuli, yielding results that are open for inaccuracy. For example, physicians may reach a different conclusion despite seeing the same patient who says the same thing.

projective tests

Projective personality assessments require the participant to respond, and then their response is assessed for meaning.

schizophrenia type

• Residual schizophrenia is characterized by a lack of delusions and hallucinations.

• Paranoid schizophrenia - significant delusions of persecution, delusions of grandiosity, and hallucinations that caused someone to become suspicious and withdrawn (highest normal cognitive functioning)

differential association theoretical perspective

ccording to differential association theory, individuals engage in criminal choices because they are exposed to it, while individuals who don’t commit crimes have not been exposed to this type of behavior. Thus, a child going from an area in which he is likely to be exposed to crime to an area where he is not likely to be exposed will reduce the likelihood of this individual committing a crime.

According to French and Raven’s bases of power model, an individual with low motivation and low knowledge, compared to one with high motivation and high knowledge, would be most influenced by a person with:

an individual with referent power exerts control by appealing to the individual’s desire to belong and tends to appeal to individuals through external factors, such as appearing desirable. A low-motivation, low-knowledge individual would be motivated by this type of persuasion.

Based on the information from the passage, what conformity process or factor most likely impacts the behavior of Internet users who decide to engage in harassment without examining evidence for themselves?

informational influence is an influence to accept information from others as evidence about reality, and can come into play when we are uncertain about information or what might be correct. The Internet users relied on the information from the vigilantes when making a decision to conform with the group and harass the supposed subject.

Which specific class of enzymes is primarily responsible for the release of free glycerol from stored triglycerides?

Lipases are the enzymes that digest lipids (fats). Most dietary fats originally exist in the form of triglycerides.


shorter wavelength = PROMOTES PEAK ABSORBANCE of higher energy radiation

In comparison to piperazine, the inductive effect will cause the pKb of methyl-piperazine to be:

LOWER: The pKb is a measure of basicity, where a smaller pKb value corresponds to a stronger base. Methyl-piperazine is a stronger base than piperazine because of the inductive effect generated by the electron-donating N-methyl group of methyl-piperazine. This effect increases the availability of electron charge density available to donate, thereby increasing the strength of N-methyl piperazine to act as a Lewis base.

engine and work efficiency

We should know that for any engine, efficiency is defined as work output/work input.

Anhydrous methanol has a greater eluting strength than pentane when used as solvents in a TLC procedure.

for TLC with a polar stationary phase, the more polar the solvent, the higher the eluent strength.