March 2019

Front 1

Fuel samples are not valid for more than how many hours

Back 1

24

Front 2

What is the minimum required paygrade to be designated by the Maintenance Officer as the ASM Fleet Administrator

Back 2

E6

Front 3

Which program is the primary training database for navy and marine corps O level and I level maintenance activities

Back 3

ASM

Front 4

What is the aircraft inspection and acceptance record form number

Back 4

4790/141

Front 5

What are locally produced PQS type training syllabi for qualifications not covered in a NAVEDTRA PQS

Back 5

Job Qualification Requirements (JQR)

Front 6

What is the oil Analysis Request form number

Back 6

DD-2026

Front 7

Fuel samples must be taken within how many hours preceding the aircraft's initial launch unless specified otherwise by type model series aircraft maintenance requirement cards

Back 7

24

Front 8

Which program provides structured in service training for marine Corp's personnel for each aviation military occupational speciality

Back 8

Aviation Maintenance Training and Readiness Program (AMTRP)

Front 9

NRFI and inactive fuel cells or tanks must be preserved and protected against contamination per which publication

Back 9

15-01-500

Front 10

NAMP indoctrination Training must be completed within how many days of reporting to the Maintenance Department

Back 10

45

Front 11

Which program is a combined navy, army, and air force effort designed to provide timely and accurate oil Analysis support by strategically locating oil Analysis laboratories and standardizing procedures and equipment

Back 11

Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP)

Front 12

When embarked direct fuel samples be drawn and analyze for Flash point and followed up precautions in 00-80T-109 Whenever an aircraft receives where is suspected of receiving and a few other then JP5 notify flight that control not to move the aircraft to the hangar Bay unless so flashpoint has been certified to be above which temperature

Back 12

120 °F

Front 13

Which division conducts shipboard test cell fuel sampling

Back 13

V-4

Front 14

NOAP or JOAP laboratories must comply with laboratory operating procedures documentation and notification requirements referenced in which publication

Back 14

17-15-50

Front 15

Which Aviation Maintenance Program directs the implementation of activity level training requirements

Back 15

In-Service Training (IST)

Front 16

Division officers must perform an initial review of each individual qualification/certification record within how many days of the member reporting to the division

Back 16

30

Front 17

Work center supervisor must review the individual's qualifications/certification record of newly reported personnel and recommend a training syllabi student vision officer within how many days of their reporting

Back 17

15

Front 18

What is the primary PQS training element

Back 18

OJT

Front 19

O-level I- level Work center supervisors must correct discrepancies within how many working days of completion of an audit and forward the memorandum to the divisional branch chief with ample flying information on actions in new work on out standing discrepancies

Back 19

10

Front 20

ABO Analyzer Operators will maintain currency in operating analyzers and interpreting scans by reading at least one sample scan every how many months

Back 20

6

Front 21

Tires will not be discarded or scrapped until determined non serviceable for which publication

Back 21

04-10-506

Front 22

D- level activites must audit all programs listed in D level NAMP compliance audit at least once every how many months

Back 22

12

Front 23

Program monitors must conduct a random sample of at least what percent of the population of aircraft equipment records documentation and personnel

Back 23

25%

Front 24

The maintenance officer must designate someone at or above which pay grade and maintenance control power plants were designated SME and the navy oil Analysis and consumption program manager

Back 24

E7

Front 25

Only SE authorized per which publication will be used to dispense hydraulic fluid

Back 25

01-1A-17

Front 26

Which publication is the governing policy document for didn't naval air systems command technical publications library management program

Back 26

00-25-100

Front 27

What directs the requirements and responsibilities for managing the technical data held by maintenance activities of all levels

Back 27

NAMPSOP

Front 28

What is the standardize list of questions and references for conducting namp compliance audits

Back 28

CSEC

Front 29

How often at a minimum must division officers and division or branch chiefs jointly perform a work center audit for each work center

Back 29

Annually

Front 30

Which EOC code Will be applied to separate Wo's or MAFs directing hydraulic fluid contamination analysis following non hydraulic system aircraft maintenance that required breaking hydraulic system integrity

Back 30

Z

Front 31

Which program is a systematic process for aviation maintenance activities to verify their adherents to the naval aviation maintenance program

Back 31

NAMPSOP

Front 32

The last MAF Documenting and analyzer operators analysis of an oxygen sample will be retained for how many months after the analyzer operator transfers from the command

Back 32

24

Front 33

All LOX In gaseous oxygen operations will be performed by how many or more qualified technicians

Back 33

2

Front 34

RFI Aircraft tire and wheel assemblies must not exceed 100 pounds per square inch gauge or which percent of test pressure which ever is less while being stored

Back 34

50%

Front 35

RFI Aircraft tire and wheel assemblies transported off station must not exceed what PSIG of pressure

Back 35

25

Front 36

Activities responsible for maintaining aircraft must publish a local in mercy to check tire pressure at least once every how many days

Back 36

7

Front 37

How many categories is the computerized self evaluation checklist (CSEC) database divided into

Back 37

3

Front 38

Gas cylinders must be protected stored and in hydrostatically tested per which publication

Back 38

06-20-2

Front 39

What must be submitted for deficiencies in new or newly reworked material, products, and software

Back 39

PQDR

Front 40

How often must Local Maintenance Requirement Cards (LMRCs) be reviewed and updated based on the date block

Back 40

Annually

Front 41

All technical data held by an activity will be inventoried and verified for currency at least once every how many months

Back 41

6

Front 42

A CAT3 Technical Publications Deficiency Report (TPDR) is used for non- safety related technical publication deficiencies that cause Maintenance delays of less than how many hours

Back 42

8

Front 43

How often must the Enhanced Library Management System (ELMS) Library Audit function be performed

Back 43

Weekly

Front 44

CAT1 Technical Publications Deficiency Reports (TPDRs) must be submitted within how many hours of discovery

Back 44

24

Front 45

When Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) is not accessible, Hazardous Material Report (HMR) will be reported by which message precedence, within 24 hours of discovery, using the HMR and PQDR Message Template

Back 45

Priority

Front 46

What percent of publications held in DTPLs must be checked over the course of a year

Back 46

100%

Front 47

The CTPL Manager (O-level and I-level) must incorporate IRACs, Rapid Action Changes (RAC), and Electronic Rapid Action Changes (ERAC) within 2 working days of receipt and incorporate formal changes, routine revisions and notices within how many working days of receipt

Back 47

5

Front 48

Personnel assigned to the Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL) should be retained in the billet for a minimum of how many months

Back 48

12

Front 49

Which type of discrepancies do not create a safety risk or potential for damage, but do not pose a widespread risk to the quality of maintenance and operational readiness

Back 49

Category 2

Front 50

What are the only authorize hardware device for installing electronic TMs and automated logistics environment (ALE) programs

Back 50

PEMA

Front 51

The CTPL manager (O level and I level) on assignment and turnover must inventory and verifiy the accuracy of all technical data held in the CTPL and at least what percent of the technical data held in each DTPL

Back 51

25%

Front 52

Which type of discrepancies create a safety risk that could result in death or injury to personnel, risk of damage to or loss of aircraft, equipment, or facilities

Back 52

Category 1

Front 53

How often must the depot fleet readiness center (FRC) CTPL Or designated representative perform an audit on all DTPL satellite libraries and library service area (LSA) operations

Back 53

Quarterly

Front 54

Technical manual application system (TMAPS) along with what else are the only a proof sources for in NAVAIR are technical manuals

Back 54

JKCS

Front 55

Which type of report must be submitted on material deficiencies which if not corrected could result in death or injury to personnel or damage to or loss of aircraft equipment or facilities

Back 55

HMR

Front 56

Which publication provides policy guidance for the navy's overall PQDR program

Back 56

SECNAVINST 4855.3

Front 57

Which system must be used for submitting all naval aviation maintenance discrepancy reporting program (NAMDRP) DR's

Back 57

JDRS

Front 58

Which program establishes requirements for reporting material deficiencies substandard workmanship and improper procedures in technical publications

Back 58

NAMDRP

Front 59

What type of antiseize tape shall be used when installing oxygen fittings into components to prevent thread seizure

Back 59

MIL-T-27730A

Front 60

What resistance of Ohms is considered to be safe at any oxygen system bonded joint

Back 60

10 Ohms

Front 61

What leak test compound must be used for leak testing oxygen systems

Back 61

MIL-L-25567C type 1

Front 62

How much oxygen should be loaded and purged from high pressure adapter line to remove possible contamination

Back 62

100 psig

Front 63

How should charging of oxygen systems be done to avoid rapid charging

Back 63

100 psig increments with a 1 minute stabilization cooling period

Front 64

If leakage is indicated during oxygen regulator installation leak test, how much can the fitting be tightened

Back 64

In 1/4 turn increments not to exceed an additional 1 full turn

Front 65

Who's responsible for movement of the SAFE/ARMED handle

Back 65

The aircrew member

Front 66

What enables the seat to eject through the cockpit canopy should the canopy jettison/fracturing system fail

Back 66

The parachute container is fitted with canopy breakers

Front 67

What controls drogue deployment, man/seat seperation and parachute deployment

Back 67

On-board multi-mode electronic sequencer

Front 68

How is the seat stabilized and forward speed retarded

Back 68

By a drogue and bridle system, followed but automatic deployment of the personnel parachute

Front 69

By what means is the ejection seat secured to the aircraft structure

Back 69

The catapult assembly

Front 70

What ensures that the correct main beams assembly is installed

Back 70

An interference arm mounted on one of the guide rail brackets

Front 71

What minimizes the deterioration of aircraft, engines and equipment while they are inactive or in shipment

Back 71

Preservation

Front 72

What is the minimum required paygrade to be designated as a collateral duty TD Compliance Program (TDCP)

Back 72

E-6

Front 73

Which category is assigned to TDs when unsafe conditions exist which, if uncorrected, could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage or destruction of valuable property; and the conditions embody risks calculated to be unacceptable

Back 73

Immediate Action

Front 74

Aircraft that have not flown for how many or more days must be inspected for potential sources of FOD by a QAR or CDQAR prior to releasing aircraft Safe for Flight

Back 74

30

Front 75

What identify T/M/S specific areas that adversely impact the maintenance cost and time required to maintain aircraft readiness

Back 75

FALs

Front 76

Which category is assigned to TDs when potentially hazardous conditions exist which, if uncorrected, could result in personal injury or damage to valuable property or reductions in operational readiness; and conditions that would compromise safety or embody risks calculated to be acceptable within defined time and performance limits

Back 76

Urgent Action

Front 77

Aircraft controlling custodians (ACCs) must conduct a rolling trending of the FOD rate per flight hour for each TMS aircraft operated covering a rolling period of how many months to include specifics on casual factors

Back 77

24

Front 78

How often must the depot tool control program coordinator conduct and document a joint inventory with each shop tool control representative

Back 78

Annually

Front 79

How many categories are technical directives assigned to based on type urgency and purpose

Back 79

4

Front 80

Which type of technical directive serves as the official record of an engineering change in the technical directive reporting system database

Back 80

Record Purpose

Front 81

Which program establishes minimum requirements for controlling tools used by navy and marine corps O level I level D level and commercial activities performing maintenance on naval aviation aircraft engines components and equipment

Back 81

TCP NAMPSOP

Front 82

Acceptant inspection deficiency report (including no deficiencies noted responses) must be submitted within how many calendar days after completion of that septis inspection of functional check flight

Back 82

5

Front 83

Which publication is the guiding instruction for technical directives applicable to weapons

Back 83

OPNAVINST 8000.16

Front 84

Which record must be used to issue tool containers

Back 84

NAVSUP 306

Front 85

Work center tool control logs will be retained for a minimum of how many days after the last entry

Back 85

30

Front 86

How often must the tool control program coordinator conduct a wall-to-wall site inventory of all tools to containers and wall boards in work centers and the tool room

Back 86

Semi-annual

Front 87

Which type of report will be submitted for all newly received manufactured modified or reworked aircraft including PMI and other schedule depot events

Back 87

AIDR

Front 88

What is a condition where a foreign object is in a position to cause damage when a product or system is used

Back 88

FOD

Front 89

Which publication is the guiding instruction for creating approving and issuing technical directives

Back 89

NAVAIR 00-25-300

Front 90

What will be submitted for OOMA NALCOMIS Baseline deficiencies that prevent the issuance of work orders for inspections TD's or unscheduled maintenance against aircraft or tracked components

Back 90

BTR

Front 91

How often is servicing of the air cycle turbine required

Back 91

Every 200 hours

Front 92

Which lubricating oil is used to fill the air cycle turbine

Back 92

MIL-L-6085

Front 93

How much oil fills the air cycle turbine

Back 93

40 to 45 cc

Front 94

How much time is required to properly drain air cycle turbine of oil

Back 94

20 minutes

Front 95

Which publication should connectors be cleaned IAW

Back 95

16-1-540

Front 96

How much does an E2 evaporator unit weigh

Back 96

147 +/- 1 lbs when filled

Front 97

In E2 air cycle system where is an alternate source of air distribution obtained from

Back 97

The atmosphere thru the ram airscoop

Front 98

In E2 how does the heat exchanger remove heat from the engine bleed air

Back 98

Using ram air from a scoop on the right side of the fuselage

Front 99

What ensures that only the correct assemblies are installed in forward and aft cockpits

Back 99

Interference blocks

Front 100

What is the location of the drogue deployment catapult

Back 100

Outboard of the RH main beam

Front 101

Aircraft will be preserved per NAVAIR 15-01-500 and aircraft technical manuals. If an aircraft has not flown in 30 days, a determination must be made of when the aircraft is suspected to be flown. If the aircraft is expected to exceed how many days of non flight, the aircraft must be preserved for the most appropriate level specified in NAVAIR 15-01-500

Back 101

45

Front 102

What is the SE custody and maintenance history record form number

Back 102

OPNAV 4790/51

Front 103

Maintenance control and production control (O level in I level only) will (O level) restrict aircraft from flight with AWM corrosion treatment discrepancies (including form in place seal discrepancies) over how many calendar days old

Back 103

28

Front 104

What is the lead systems command for the navy's METCAL program per OPNAVINST 3960.16

Back 104

COMNAVSEASYSCOM

Front 105

One aircraft per squadron (2 aircraft for FRS) is authorized to be painted with the squadron or air wing colors. Areas authorized to deviate from TPS include: the tails, alphanumeric characters, national star insignia, and no more than what percent of the aircraft fuselage

Back 105

25%

Front 106

Prior to initial designation, plane captains must pass the written examination administered by a quality assurance representative with the passing score of what

Back 106

90%

Front 107

SE Operators licenses are valid for type equipment and TMS aircraft for how many years

Back 107

3

Front 108

Unprotected exposure of hexamethylene diisocyantes or toluene diisocyanate must be ignored concentration of how many PPM averaged over an 8 hour period

Back 108

0.005

Front 109

Supplied air respirator must be used for touch up operations requiring more than how many ounces of paint containing isocyanates per 8 hour period

Back 109

8

Front 110

What will be used to record transfer, receipt, and sub custody of SE reported under the AMMRL program

Back 110

OPNAV 4790/64

Front 111

What includes all devices and aviation SE used to measure, calibrate, gauge, Test, inspect, diagnose, or otherwise examine materials, supplies, and equipment to determine compliance with specifications, engineering drawings, technical orders, technical manuals comment maintenance instructions, and/or serviceability standards

Back 111

TMDE

Front 112

Aircraft in equipment coding systems will be per NAVAIR 01-1A-509-2, MIL-STD-161C (AS), and which other publication

Back 112

COMNAVAIRFORINST 4750.4

Front 113

Which program establishes requirements for the maintenance of SE and aviation weapons support equipment (AWSE)

Back 113

SE PMS

Front 114

What is the plane captain designation form number

Back 114

OPNAV 4790/158

Front 115

O level activities within authorize allowance of how many or less aircraft should establish a work center 12C as manpower allows

Back 115

6

Front 116

The SE preoperational record will be maintained by the works center responsible for performing pre operational inspections. The record will be replaced with a new record when completely filled in. the old record will be retained for how many days from date of last entry

Back 116

30

Front 117

How often must plane captains be monitored for proficiency by a QAR or CDQAR currently designated as a plane captain

Back 117

Semi annually

Front 118

Which type of current survey is required for all facilities where aircraft painting is conducted

Back 118

IH

Front 119

Which team must activities responsible for operating or supporting aircraft operations have

Back 119

ERT

Front 120

Which type of systems include Ejection seats and related interconnect and sequence systems, installed parachute and survival kits, explosive devices in rocket motors used in seat propulsion, and hatches or canopies, which are shattered or jettisoned from the aircraft by use of explosive devices

Back 120

Egress

Front 121

How many start switch assemblies are incorporated into the multi purpose initiators

Back 121

2

Front 122

How is deployment of the start switch plunger before operation prevented

Back 122

By a shear pin

Front 123

Where does gas from the cartridges pass out of the IMPs to

Back 123

The BRU (RH side only), the pitot deployment mechanisms and the underseat rocket motor

Front 124

In the event of sequencer failure, how will the BRU cartridge be fired

Back 124

By mechanical operation of the BRU

Front 125

If the seat is subjected to excess of how many g's of horizontal deceleration the shoulder harness reel strap extraction is prevented

Back 125

0.7g

Front 126

Where is the shoulder harness control lever

Back 126

LH side of the bucket

Front 127

What ensures that only the correct seat bucket is installed in forward and aft cockpits

Back 127

Interference devices on the rear of the seat bucket and on the main beams

Front 128

What ensures that the correct rocket motor is installed

Back 128

Different mounting bolt sizes

Front 129

Where is the SAFE/ARMED handle located

Back 129

RH side of the seat bucket immediately forward of the emergency restraint release handle

Front 130

The METCAL Program Manager must review and reconcile errors in the report data, annotate corrections, and sign and return the corrected report to the supporting activity's METCAL Program manager within how many working days of receipt, of a new inventory Format 350 Report?

Back 130

5

Front 131

What is the primary reference for components processed through Aeronautical Material Screening Unit (AMSU) or Joint Aviation Screening Unit (JASU)?

Back 131

ICRL

Front 132

How often must Work Center HMC&M Coordinators conduct an inspection of work center HAZMAT and HAZWASTE sites?

Back 132

Weekly

Front 133

What can cause degraded performance of mission critical systems?

Back 133

EMI

Front 134

Which program establishes policy for storage, handling, disposal, and documentation of hazardous material (HAZMAT) used to maintain aircraft and aeronautical equipment?

Back 134

HMC&M

Front 135

What are formal inspections by the ACC, Type Wing, or MAW to assess the material condition of aircraft/ or equipment and adherence to corrosion prevention and treatment procedures?

Back 135

MCIs

Front 136

What directs the performance of Aviation Maintenance Inspections (AMI), Maintenance Program Assessments (MPA), and Material Condition Inspections (MCI)?

Back 136

NAMPSOP

Front 137

What is a formal Aircraft Controlling Custodian (ACC) inspection to verify compliance with the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) and related directives?

Back 137

AMI

Front 138

Which publication specifies what activities are authorized to repair specific model aircraft engines and what level of repair they are authorized to perform?

Back 138

NAVAIRNOTE 4700

Front 139

Which program is a mandated Navy policy that provides the only source for aviation maintenance activities to control and manage HAZMAT per NAVSUP Publication 722?

Back 139

CHRIMP

Front 140

What is the designated Management Information System (MIS) for the METCAL Program

Back 140

MEASURE

Front 141

All personnel who handle or use HAZMAT must receive HAZCOM training within 30 days of assignment and how often thereafter?

Back 141

Annually

Front 142

Aviation Maintenance Inspections (AMIs) for deploying squadrons will be completed no earlier than 120 days and no later than how many days prior to deployment?

Back 142

60

Front 143

GTETS or GTF operators and qualifiers are required to maintain proficiency for each type engine for which they are certified on. As a minimum, GTETS or GTF operators and qualifiers must run any type or model aircraft engine every 90 days and must run at least one engine for each type certified once every how many months?

Back 143

12

Front 144

What is the Functional Manager for aviation maintenance and logistics information systems

Back 144

COMNAVSUPSYSCOM

Front 145

What is designed to provide maintenance and aircrew personnel with an accurate, comprehensive, and chronological record of flights and maintenance performed on a specific aircraft by BUNO for 10 flights?

Back 145

AADB

Front 146

Who are the main data entry personnel for NALCOMIS OMA and NTCSS Optimized OMA NALCOMIS?

Back 146

Functional users

Front 147

What is responsible for the design, development, implementation, and life cycle support of all Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System (NALCOMIS) software?

Back 147

SPAWARSYSCEN

Front 148

Who is responsible for the overall management of NTCSS Optimized IMA NALCOMIS at each site?

Back 148

SA

Front 149

Which Visual Electronic Display (VED) color code indicates Non-Mission Capable (NMC) status?

Back 149

Red

Front 150

Which Management Information System (MIS) is designed to provide statistical data for use at all management levels relative to equipment maintainability and reliability, equipment configuration, including alteration and Technical Directive (TD) status, equipment mission capability and use, material usage, material non-availability, maintenance and material processing times, and weapon system and maintenance material costing?

Back 150

ADW

Front 151

Who is responsible for the overall administration of the database in the NTCSS Optimized IMA NALCOMIS system and is assigned to coordinate the operation and maintenance of the database?

Back 151

DBA

Front 152

Which Visual Electronic Display (VED) color code indicates Full-Mission Capable (FMC) status?

Back 152

Black

Front 153

Which Visual Electronic Display (VED) color code indicates Partial-Mission Capable (PMC) status?

Back 153

Blue

Front 154

Which report contains the dates of last flights, total outstanding NMC or PMC WOs with their status, assigned work centers, and material requisitions with assigned document date and serial number (DDSNs)?

Back 154

Aircraft Daily Status

Front 155

Which codes, normally known as usage parameters, are generated and controlled by NAVAIR Program Manager Air (PMA) for downloading from a memory unit (MU) to NTCSS Optimized OMA NALCOMIS?

Back 155

SMART aircraft

Front 156

How many primary or collateral duty assignments are required to administer the operations of Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System (NALCOMIS) Organizational Level Maintenance Activity (OMA)

Back 156

3

Front 157

Which system increases aircraft readiness by providing local maintenance and supply managers with timely and accurate information required in their day to day management and decision making process, reduces the administrative burden on the fleet, and improves the quality of upline reported data?

Back 157

NALCOMIS

Front 158

Which guide is the Central Design Activity (CDAs) software development document for ensuring valid data?

Back 158

Aviation 3M MDS VALSPEC

Front 159

Work Center Supervisors shall review and validate correct EOC status at the time of WO initiation and how often thereafter?

Back 159

Daily

Front 160

Detachment processing consists of how many types?

Back 160

2

Front 161

What is the starting point for all aircraft maintenance related reports and queries

Back 161

VED

Front 162

Completed historical Work Orders (WOs) will be stored in the local database for a minimum of how many months from completion date?

Back 162

12

Front 163

What, as the Central Design Activity (CDA), is responsible for generating source and object programs and Quality Assurance (QA) testing of programs prior to fleet release?

Back 163

SPAWARSYSCEN Norfolk, VA

Front 164

How much is the thrust of the underseat rocket motor

Back 164

Approximately 4800 lbs for 0.25 seconds

Front 165

In all sequencer modes when does the start switch close

Back 165

After 32 inches of seat travel

Front 166

During which sequencer mode does the drogue bridle remain connected until the seat has descended to 18000 feet

Back 166

Mode 5, all speeds/high altitude

Front 167

The GGU-12/A Concentrator is designed to provide a supply of breathing oxygen for 2 aircrewmembers open loop breathing schedules up to how much

Back 167

50,000 ft

Front 168

Bench test shall be performed on the GGU-12/A oxygen concentrator prior to being placed in service and how long

Back 168

Every 400 flight hours

Front 169

During bench test %OXYGEN meter (m3) should read what after a stabilization period of 5 mins

Back 169

21 +- 2%

Front 170

While performing the Oxygen Flow Test, ensure that while concentrator is operating that the reading on INLET PRESSURE guage doesn't fall below what

Back 170

85 psig

Front 171

What is used to document in-flight maintenance?

Back 171

WO

Front 172

The Maintenance Material Control Officer (MMCO) shall review and sign a hardcopy of the in Reporting/Out of Reporting XRAY Report, and maintain on file, for at least how many months after the subsequent status change XRAY is released?

Back 172

12

Front 173

What is used to document, in addition to on-equipment maintenance actions, the removal and subsequent processing of a repairable component or item to an Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) or Fleet Readiness Center

Back 173

WO

Front 174

Which system provides managers with the degree of mission impairment, the length of time the equipment's capability was reduced, the system or subsystem that caused mission impairment, and maintenance and supply impact on equipment capability?

Back 174

SCIR

Front 175

Which type of code is a one alpha-character code designed to describe the severity level of Subsystem Capability and Impact Reporting (SCIR) maintenance actions?

Back 175

EOC

Front 176

Maintenance actions in support of the aircraft preservation process fall into how many general categories?

Back 176

4

Front 177

What is a nine-character alphanumeric code that serves as the basis for NALCOMIS Data Collection System and Maintenance Control procedures?

Back 177

JCN

Front 178

Users have the ability to view Aviation Data Warehouse (ADW) data for up to how many years?

Back 178

5

Front 179

Not all aircraft have Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs) revised to include preservation requirements. Which publication contains the procedures that will be followed for those aircraft?

Back 179

15-01-500

Front 180

How many parts is the Job Control Number (JCN) composed of?

Back 180

3

Front 181

Which type of action is the removal and subsequent reinstallation of an RFI engine or component from an end item in support of, or to permit access to, another maintenance action on the same end item?

Back 181

FOM

Front 182

When phase inspection requirements do not require a major disassembly of the aircraft and, thus, does not affect the mission performance of the aircraft, the aircraft will remain in a FMC or PMC status during the entire portion of the look phase. An aircraft will be considered NMC only if panels and equipment removed to conduct area inspections cannot be replaced within how many hours?

Back 182

2

Front 183

Who administratively control the assignment, employment, and logistic support of certain aircraft and aircraft engine?

Back 183

ACCs

Front 184

What provides a standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection system?

Back 184

NAVFLIRS

Front 185

Which system provides the reporting custodian with a list of assets on hand and a ready reference of which aircraft require Subsystem Capability Impact Reporting (SCIR)?

Back 185

AIRRS

Front 186

The Aircraft Discrepancy Book (ADB) is designed to provide maintenance and aircrew personnel with an accurate, comprehensive, and chronological record of flights and maintenance performed on a specific aircraft by bureau number (BUNO) for at least the last how many flights?

Back 186

10

Front 187

Who shall be responsible for the overall management of the maintenance effort?

Back 187

MMCO

Front 188

What is the Naval Aircraft Flight Record form number?

Back 188

OPNAV 3710/4

Front 189

What is a management tool that provides a graphic display of vital, up-to-date information on a continuing basis?

Back 189

VIDS

Front 190

Which system significantly reduces the administrative burden and produces up-to-date status information necessary for the control of maintenance?

Back 190

NALCOMIS

Front 191

Which type of action is the removal and subsequent reinstallation of Ready for Issue (RFI) engine(s) or component(s) from an end item in support of, or to permit access to, another maintenance action on the same end item?

Back 191

FOM

Front 192

Completed and processed Maintenance Action Form (MAF) or Work Order (WO) Copy I s are to be retained by Maintenance Control for a minimum of how many months from the completed date?

Back 192

6

Front 193

What will aircraft be reported as during all periods of time when it is not available for a mission because of scheduled maintenance?

Back 193

NMC

Front 194

What is that maintenance time when no work is being performed by any work center involved in the inspection?

Back 194

AWM

Front 195

What is defined as the actions necessary to retain in or restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with an optimum expenditure of resources?

Back 195

Maintenance management

Front 196

Which system is used to monitor mission capability of selected systems/subsystems?

Back 196

SCIR

Front 197

Documents in support of a phased or special inspection will be retained for one complete inspection cycle or how many months, whichever is greater?

Back 197

6

Front 198

The total length of time an equipment's mission capability is impaired is divided into how many major categories?

Back 198

2

Front 199

What is a structured, three-character code which relates a particular system or subsystem within a given model/type of equipment to a mission capability of that equipment?

Back 199

EOC

Front 200

What is responsible for authorizing and directing all cannibalization actions?

Back 200

Maintenance control

Front 201

How many sizes are Visual Information Display System (VIDS) boards available in?

Back 201

3

Front 202

What is depot Special Rework to incorporate D-level changes, bulletins, and to correct discrepancies required in the directive authorizing work to be performed

Back 202

Modification

Front 203

Which type of document is used when personnel are permanently or temporarily assigned to the check crew?

Back 203

Look phase

Front 204

Look phase documents are not issued for which maintenance level?

Back 204

D-level

Front 205

Components authorized to be removed from an aircraft prior to induction into rework and retained by the squadron will be documented on the WO using MAL Code 805 and which AT Code?

Back 205

P

Front 206

Technical Directives (TDs) are permanent configuration changes to the target and will be documented on a WO. The configuration change must be permanently documented in the Target Logbook on which form?

Back 206

OPNAV 4790/24A

Front 207

What is used to document all in-flight maintenance?

Back 207

WO

Front 208

Maintenance actions in support of the aircraft preservation process fall into how many general categories?

Back 208

4

Front 209

Where must any order to cannibalize an engine or engine component come from?

Back 209

Maintenance Control

Front 210

What is unscheduled D-level repair of operational aircraft damaged beyond the capability of O-level and l-level activities?

Back 210

ISR

Front 211

What is a combination of assemblies, sub-assemblies, and parts used in association with each other to perform an operational function?

Back 211

End item

Front 212

Which pub is used when cleaning a disassembled oxygen concentrator component parts that are metallic

Back 212

13-1-6.4-1

Front 213

During oxygen concentrator assembly what shall all preformed packing be coated with

Back 213

Krytox 240 AC

Front 214

TMs are divided into what major types

Back 214

Operational and maintenance

Front 215

What are manuals that contain a description of weapon systems with instructions for their effective use

Back 215

Operational manuals

Front 216

What is Written for a specific piloted aircraft or unmanned air vehicle and contains standardized ground and flight operating procedures

Back 216

NATOPS Flight Manual (NFM)

Front 217

What is an abbreviated extension to NATOPS data released in a special "knee pad" checklist format

Back 217

Flight Crew Checklists

Front 218

What are required to determine whether the airframe, power plant, accessories, and other items of equipment are functioning iaw predetermined standards while subjected to the intended operating environment

Back 218

Functional Check Flight Checklist

Front 219

Which manuals provide both general and specific instructions which are required for maintenance at organizational, intermediate, or depot levels of maintenance on aircraft, weapons systems, equipment, components, and support equipment

Back 219

Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMs)

Front 220

What is the Weight and Balance Data Manual

Back 220

NAVAIR 01-1B-50

Front 221

This manual provides survival information and instructions for operations and maintenance of all personal survival equipment

Back 221

Aviation Life Support Systems manuals

Front 222

What consists of a prefix and combination of numbers and letters divided into three parts separated by dashes

Back 222

NAVAIR manual Conventional Numbering System

Front 223

These are multimedia or static depictions that enhance current printed and digital repair manuals by offering an innovative and systematic approach to display performance of a specific maintenance procedure

Back 223

Job Performance Aids

Front 224

What receives and analyzes a sample of the oxygen rich breathing gas mixture

Back 224

Oxygen monitor

Front 225

Where is the oxygen concentrator located

Back 225

Door 13L

Front 226

How many sensing elements are in the f18 fire detection system

Back 226

12

Front 227

Located in door 68L/R, these valves are mounted on the bottom of the engine bleed air ducts

Back 227

Bleed air duct drain valves

Front 228

What collects air for cooling the primary and secondary heat exchangers during ground operations or low speed flight

Back 228

Auxiliary air inlet door

Front 229

Where is the fire suppression control alarm located in f18

Back 229

Behind door 22L

Front 230

Which Maintenance code is set when the reported status of the canopy is inconsistent with canopy operations

Back 230

889

Front 231

How is ground cooling for avionics equipment provided when the air cycle air conditioning system is not operating

Back 231

Avionics ground cooling fan

Front 232

How many levels of Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) classifications are established

Back 232

4

Front 233

What are all CAD/PAD deficiencies submitted as

Back 233

CODRS

Front 234

all CAD/PAD suspected of being hazardous, discrepancy, or that are involved in an explosive event shall be reported IAW

Back 234

OPNAVINST 8000.16

Front 235

The Naval Aircraft Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) Technician school and Fleet Readiness Centers (FRCs) shall retain records of training materials used, tests given, and individual test scores for a minimum of how many years?

Back 235

3

Front 236

CVNs that place their Radiography Program in a temporary suspension status must coordinate with the nearest l-level Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) to provide radiography proficiency training for their Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) Technicians. CVNs will reactivate their program no less than how many days prior to a planned deployment and notify CNAP NDI Class Desk (N422B3) and RASO via naval letter?

Back 236

90

Front 237

What is defined as all equipment required on the ground to make an aeronautical system, support system subsystem, or end item of equipment, operational in its intended environment?

Back 237

SE

Front 238

What supports the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and the Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) objectives for aviation readiness, safety, and the optimum use of manpower, facilities, materials, and funds?

Back 238

NAMP

Front 239

What are considered the authority for the issue of specific items of Support Equipment (SE)?

Back 239

IMRLs

Front 240

Which instruction assigns the responsibilities within COMNAVAIRYSYSCOM for the various elements of the Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) Program?

Back 240

NAVAIRINST 13070

Front 241

Which classes of ships are exempt from establishing and maintaining an X-ray Radiography Program?

Back 241

LHA and LHD

Front 242

Which maintenance level primarily includes inspecting, servicing, lubricating, adjusting, and replacing parts, minor assemblies, and subassemblies of aircraft, Unmanned Aircraft (UA) or Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS), and aeronautical equipment?

Back 242

O-level

Front 243

Which form shall be used by Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians and operators to record all NDI tasks, supervised work experience, and trial practice applications performed?

Back 243

OPNAV 4790/140

Front 244

Which maintenance level is performed by designated maintenance activities responsible for supporting units operating aircraft and aeronautical equipment?

Back 244

I-level

Front 245

Which instruction contains maintenance functions and policy for guided missiles, aircraft guns, targets, bomb assemblies, rockets, jet assisted takeoff, and pyrotechnics?

Back 245

OPNAV M-8000.16

Front 246

Which form provides a record of certification and recertification of Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians and operators?

Back 246

OPNAV 4790/139

Front 247

What are two types of aircraft maintenance performed within the naval establishment without distinction as to levels of maintenance?

Back 247

Rework and upkeep

Front 248

Which type of inspection can detect defects with a high degree of accuracy and with no adverse effect upon the use of the part or system being inspected?

Back 248

NDI

Front 249

How many different ways is Support Equipment (SE) categorized as?

Back 249

2

Front 250

Who is responsible for managing Marine Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (MATCALS)?

Back 250

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

Front 251

Which maintenance level is performed at or by Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) sites to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational service periods?

Back 251

D-level

Front 252

What is the minimum enlisted paygrade required to be designated as a Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) specialist?

Back 252

E7

Front 253

Who has overall cognizance of the Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) Program and is responsible for managing a program of research, development, training, and application of NDI techniques and equipment?

Back 253

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

Front 254

How many levels of division of maintenance concept is the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP) founded on that classifies maintenance by complexity, depth, scope, and range of work performed?

Back 254

3

Front 255

For activities authorized to perform open facility X-ray, all Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians shall participate in at least one open facility X-ray inspection (either through normal workload or to maintain proficiency) every how many months?

Back 255

3

Front 256

What authorizes maintenance actions during combat conditions that may provide less than 100 percent restoration of an aircraft and its subsystems or components to original strength, mission capability, or configuration?

Back 256

ABDR

Front 257

Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians and operators must maintain proficiency by performing the NDI method(s) for which they are certified at least how many times per month, as evidenced by entries on their , NDI Technician/Operator Work Record (OPNAV 4790/140)?

Back 257

2

Front 258

Newly certified Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians shall require at least how many months of supervised work experience before assignment at an activity without any experienced NDI technicians?

Back 258

3

Front 259

Which program provides the data required for the effective management of Support Equipment (SE) at all levels of aircraft maintenance?

Back 259

AMMRL

Front 260

Supervised work experience shall be provided to all Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) operators by NDI specialists or NDI technicians. Supervised work experience, before the NDI Operator can perform inspections without direct supervision, shall include, as a minimum PT =16 hours, MT= 16 hours, and ET how many hours for the first aeronautical part, assembly, or structural feature listed in the applicable TD or maintenance technical manuals directed NDI task and method?

Back 260

40

Front 261

Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians with proficiency lapses exceeding 12 consecutive months, but less than how many years, require refresher training that must be administered by a Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) or NDI specialist to reestablish certification?

Back 261

3

Front 262

What is the Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) Technician's NDI Certification Record form number?

Back 262

OPNAVINST 4790/139

Front 263

Over how many end items of aircraft maintenance Support Equipment (SE) and Operational Test Program Set (OTPS) elements (IMRL items) used throughout the Navy and Marine Corps by aircraft maintenance activities are covered by the Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List (AMMRL) program?

Back 263

37,000

Front 264

Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians shall maintain X-ray proficiency by performing radiographic image X-ray inspections at least how many times per month?

Back 264

2

Front 265

Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians are Navy aviation structural mechanics and Marine Corps structures mechanics, of which grade and above, who have successfully completed the Naval Aircraft Non-Destructive Inspection Technician Class CI course (C-603-3191)?

Back 265

E4

Front 266

Task-specific training shall be provided in an amount that will vary with complexity of the Technical Directive (TD) or maintenance technical manuals directed Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) tasks, but shall not be less than how many hours for the first aeronautical part, assembly, or structural feature listed?

Back 266

4

Front 267

Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) specialists must be an NDI technician in all five basic NDI methods with at least how many re-certifications in all five basic NDI methods?

Back 267

2

Front 268

Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) operators are Navy and Marine Corps personnel, of which grade and above, who have successfully completed required training and may be certified to perform limited NDI tasks?

Back 268

E4

Front 269

What is the Support Equipment (SE) Custody and Maintenance History Record form number?

Back 269

OPNAV 4790/51

Front 270

Method specific Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) training shall be provided to all NDI operators by NDI specialists or TYCOM authorized NDI technicians. This training is required in the following minimum amounts: PT 4 hours, MT 4 hours, and ET how many hours?

Back 270

10

Front 271

What is the Aviation Support Equipment (SE) Program Manager?

Back 271

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (PMA-260)

Front 272

How often at a minimum must the reporting custodians, including Commander, Naval Surface Forces Atlantic/Pacific activities conduct physical Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) inventories?

Back 272

Annually

Front 273

Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technicians, normally attached to an Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) or Fleet Readiness Center (FRC), are assigned NEC 7225 or MOS 6033 and may be certified to perform fluorescent, penetrant, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, and radiographic NDI methods. Recertification of each NDI method is required once every how many years?

Back 273

3

Front 274

Which program provides a unique application of reconnaissance and surveillance through the use of recoverable and highly versatile airborne systems

Back 274

UAS

Front 275

What is the quantity of installed CAD/PADs pre-positioned aboard air stations and ships to replace damaged, dropped, or inadvertently fired

Back 275

Emergency stock

Front 276

What is the Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) Revision Request form number?

Back 276

NAVAIR 13650/1

Front 277

Assignment of Inventory Control Points (ICPs) for Support Equipment (SE) may be found in which pubIication?

Back 277

NAVSUP P-485

Front 278

Which level of repair is the repair of a damaged or non-operating gas turbine engine, its accessories, or components to an acceptable operating condition when the repair includes compressor rotor replacement or disassembly to the extent the compressor rotor could be removed?

Back 278

First degree

Front 279

Which concept was the Gas Turbine Engine Maintenance Program issued under?

Back 279

Three-degree

Front 280

What provides coordination of technical data distribution and field engineering assistance and instruction for the maintenance, repair and operation of Support Equipment (SE)?

Back 280

NATEC

Front 281

Which program is used for recording, by specific aircraft, engine, and equipment, the applicability and incorporated or not incorporated data for all Technical Directives (TDs) requiring logbook/records or Configuration Management (CM) ALS records update?

Back 281

TDRS

Front 282

Which form should be used to requisition formal Technical Directives (TDs) by title and number?

Back 282

DD 1348

Front 283

An Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) is constructed for all Navy and Marine Corps aviation maintenance activities by extracting applicable portions of the data from which system?

Back 283

SERMIS

Front 284

Engines, Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESR), and CM ALS AESR records will be thoroughly screened by second and third-degree l-level activities to determine if the required maintenance action is within their repair capability. Screening will be completed within how many days of receipt?

Back 284

10

Front 285

Which instruction establishes policy and procedures for configuration identification and management of necessary engineering changes with respect to content, cost, evaluation, timing of processing, and implementation?

Back 285

NAVAIRINST 4130.1

Front 286

Which system maintains inventory, utilization, and readiness data for Support Equipment (SE) and Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) items?

Back 286

LAMS

Front 287

Which level of repair is the repair or replacement of turbine rotors and combustion sections, including afterburners; the replacement of externally damaged, deteriorated, or time limited components, gearboxes, or accessories; and minor repairs to the compressor section?

Back 287

Second-degree

Front 288

Which publication issues the policies, procedures, and responsibilities for activities supporting or performing ordnance maintenance?

Back 288

OPNAV M-8000.16

Front 289

What has management responsibility for the Configuration Management (CM) Program

Back 289

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

Front 290

How many sections are Individual Material Readiness Lists (IMRLs) presented in?

Back 290

5

Front 291

Which publication is the authoritative source for determining when an aircraft must be weighed, weighing procedures, and record keeping requirements?

Back 291

NAVAIR 01-1B-50

Front 292

Which program was established to permit achievement of required item performance, operational efficiency, logistic support, and readiness through effective management of item configuration requirements?

Back 292

CM

Front 293

Which program is intended to ensure proper fleet introduction of new or modified Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)?

Back 293

FAILSAFE

Front 294

Which level of repair encompasses major engine inspections and the same gas turbine engine repair capability as second-degree except certain functions which require high maintenance man-hours and are of a low incidence rate are excluded?

Back 294

Third- degree

Front 295

Which form is used by Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) activities for Support Equipment (SE) transaction reporting?

Back 295

OPNAV 4790/64

Front 296

What are the 3 type of service life extensions (SLE) for CAD/PADs

Back 296

Automatic, additional, and world-wide

Front 297

OPNAVINST 3110.11 requires rework induction not later than how many days after the current Period End Date (PED) when the Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation determines the aircraft general material condition satisfies rework induction criteria?

Back 297

90

Front 298

Which maintenance level of evaluation of aircraft general material condition is an Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation?

Back 298

D-level

Front 299

What is the Support Equipment (SE) Custody and Maintenance History Record form number?

Back 299

OPNAV 4790/51

Front 300

Which instruction contains specific instructions for ordering copies of drawings?

Back 300

NAVAIRINST 5600.15

Front 301

Which program is the removal of installed equipment from a stricken or damaged aircraft or engine prior to disposal?

Back 301

RILOP

Front 302

As a general guideline, no more than how many months should elapse between the Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) inspection and the resulting adjusted Period End Date (PED)?

Back 302

18

Front 303

Those activities with complements of more than how many aircraft may schedule up to 10% of total complement simultaneously for Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation?

Back 303

30

Front 304

Which type of defect materially reduces the use of the unit or part for its intended purpose?

Back 304

Major

Front 305

Which type of defect constitutes a hazard to airworthiness and the condition is such that corrective action is required prior to release of the aircraft for flight?

Back 305

Critical

Front 306

Which program provides for accurate fatigue life tracking of individual aircraft component service life limits specified as fatigue indexes rather than flight hour limits?

Back 306

SAFE

Front 307

Which type of defect does not materially reduce the use of the unit or part for its intended purpose?

Back 307

Minor

Front 308

Which program established a process to evaluate the material condition of fleet aircraft?

Back 308

ASPA

Front 309

Which type of maintenance has COMNAVAIRSYSCOM directed the application of to all in-service and future aircraft, engines, aircrew systems, weapon systems, aircraft launch and recovery equipment, and SE, from technology development through disposal, per NAVAIR 00-25403 and NAVAIRINST 4790.20?

Back 309

RCM

Front 310

Which instruction assigns management responsibility of the Mobile Facilities (MF) Program?

Back 310

NAVAIRINST 13670.1

Front 311

What provides the fleet an improved capability to manage AAE, aircraft guns maintenance, configuration, and tracking usage information for Naval Ordnance Management Policy (NOMP) equipment that have Configuration Management Auto Log Set (CMALS) Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs), Scheduled Removal Components (SRCs), Tracked Component Record (TCR), and Equipment History Records (EHRs)?

Back 311

NALCOMIS

Front 312

What are relocatable tactical shelters used onboard ship and ashore for aviation weapon system maintenance and Support Equipment (SE) maintenance functions?

Back 312

MF

Front 313

Which analytical process shall be used to identify failure management strategies to enable equipment to perform with a specific probability of success at the lowest possible total expenditure of resources for system operation and support over the entire life cycle?

Back 313

RCM

Front 314

Which program includes incorporation of D-level technical directives, inspection of aircraft for corrosion damage and repair as required, and evaluation of the material condition of the aircraft paint system?

Back 314

MCAPP

Front 315

0PNAVINST 3110.11 requires an Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) evaluation between 6 months prior to and how many months after Period End Date (PED) of each ASPA aircraft to determine its general material condition relative to established induction criteria?

Back 315

3

Front 316

Which program is the restoration or replacement of primary aircraft structures that have reached fatigue life limits?

Back 316

SLEP

Front 317

How many years is the re-certification interval for l-level aeronautical welders for both military and civilian personnel?

Back 317

1

Front 318

Certified welders shall complete the minimum required OJT per which reference prior to being allowed to weld on aeronautical components?

Back 318

01-1A-34

Front 319

Which program provides policy and assigns responsibilities to assure continuing structural safety of fixed and rotary wing aircraft throughout their assigned service life?

Back 319

Service Life Limits

Front 320

Proficiency demonstration and sustained certification requires Welder's Log documentation from the Work Center Supervisor or a QAR that the welder has welded at least I ferrous and I non-ferrous item every 30 days in any process. Additional requirements are specified in NAVAIR 01-1A-34. Failure to maintain proficiency for how many days requires the welder to recertify per NAVAIR 01 -IA-34?

Back 320

90

Front 321

Which program allows for the performance requirements of SDLM at fleet facilities?

Back 321

EPM

Front 322

Which type of resin is the standard paint system for all naval aircraft and Support Equipment (SE)?

Back 322

Aliphatic polyurethane

Front 323

Which program is a shore-based, Aviation Weapons Support System that permits deployment of landing force aircraft within effective range of ground forces?

Back 323

Expeditionary Airfield (EAF) Program

Front 324

How often are Structural Appraisal of Fatigue Effects (SAFE) Program reports published?

Back 324

Quarterly

Front 325

What is the Aircraft Taxi License form number?

Back 325

OPNAV 4790/191

Front 326

Which program authorizes repair procedures to be performed by l-level activities for aircraft and components damaged beyond documented l-level repairable limits?

Back 326

Fleet Engineering Disposition (FED) Program

Front 327

Lean, six sigma, along with what else comprise the primary AIRSpeed Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) methods?

Back 327

theory of constraints (TOC)

Front 328

CMIS Component Tracking System for Aircraft tracks the operating time/cycle counts of selected aircraft components. They are primarily life limited components and the system can supply reports which specify the operating time/cycle counts remaining on each tracked component before it must be inspected or removed and replaced. Using usage rates derived from experiments and tests, workloads for maintenance and rework facilities can be forecast for up to how many years?

Back 328

5

Front 329

Squadron logo or insignia on Tactical Paint Scheme (TPS) aircraft shall use only the low contrast shade of TPS gray against gray background and camouflage painted aircraft shall use black (which color number) against land camouflage background?

Back 329

37038

Front 330

Depot activities must acknowledge JDRS Planner and Estimator (P&E) Requests within how many working days of submission?

Back 330

1

Front 331

AIRSpeed Program is an enterprise-wide approach to enhancing the effectiveness and efficiency of naval aviation by implementing which AIRSpeed methods to improve quality, productivity, and cost?

Back 331

Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) methods

Front 332

Which Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) method focuses on reducing variation and increasing quality through information management and statistical analysis of processes?

Back 332

Six sigma

Front 333

Only supplied-air respirators are used for touch-up operations requiring a quantity of paint greater than how many ounces per 8-hour period for paints that contain isocyanates?

Back 333

8

Front 334

Licensed Aircraft Taxi personnel shall perform a taxi evolution every how many days for the T/M/S aircraft for which they are certified?

Back 334

90

Front 335

What was designed to provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload, for example, inspections, transfer or receipt of aircraft, and compliance with TDs?

Back 335

MMP

Front 336

What is a system for the recall and reporting of test equipment by means of automatic data processing techniques?

Back 336

Metrology Automated System for Uniform Recall and Reporting (MEASURE)

Front 337

AIRSpeed Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) Work Center personnel shall be Green Belt/LCIP certified within how many months of assignment?

Back 337

12

Front 338

The MMCO and SA/A will assist the Maintenance Officer (MO) in the monthly Aircraft or Equipment Workload Report and AIRRS reviews by providing trend charts covering at least how many months of data, root cause analysis of errors, and recommendations for improvement, such as additional training?

Back 338

12

Front 339

COs shall verify, as a minimum requirement, all unrestricted line officers assigned to the Squadron Maintenance Department attend the appropriate CENNAVAVNTECHTRA courses prior to or within how many days after assuming their duties?

Back 339

60

Front 340

Which system is a production control system used by the Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) to schedule, induct, and control D-level workload?

Back 340

NAVAIR Depot Maintenance System (NDMS)

Front 341

Who is responsible for the external condition of aircraft with regard to cleanliness and the day-to-day detection and reporting of corrosion and the failure of protective coatings?

Back 341

Line division officer

Front 342

What tracks location and status (installed, uninstalled, RFI, and NRFI) of engines, propulsion systems, and modules worldwide, and provides reasons for any changes?

Back 342

Decision Knowledge Programming for Logistics Analysis and Technical Evaluation (DECKPLATE)

Front 343

Which system is an automated management information system which provides for standardized local management of Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) assets?

Back 343

LAMS

Front 344

O-level Maintenance Material Control Officers (MMCOs) will conduct a monthly review of Subsystem Capability Impact Reporting (SCIR) data for trends in aircraft system/subsystem readiness. Trending shall cover at least how many consecutive months?

Back 344

12

Front 345

Who manages the maintenance department and is responsible to the Commanding Officer (CO) for the accomplishment of the maintenance department's mission?

Back 345

MO

Front 346

What is the Navy's major logistics information system used in support of the COMNAVAIRSYSCOM Life Cycle Logistics System?

Back 346

Naval Aviation Logistics Data Analysis (NALDA)

Front 347

Which system is a module of the NAVAIR Depot Maintenance Systems (NDMS) and is designed to gather all basic information generated by maintenance personnel through documentation procedures, data automation and storage techniques, and common data retrieval routines?

Back 347

Depot Maintenance Data Systems (DMDS)

Front 348

officers assigned to the MO and the MMCO billets will remain in these billets for a minimum of how many years?

Back 348

1

Front 349

Which system provides on line visibility of source, allowance, inventory, and rework data to aid in inventory control and is the repository of master data for printing Individual Material Readiness Lists (IMRLs)?

Back 349

SERMIS

Front 350

Personnel assigned to the AIRSpeed Continuous Process Improvement (CPI) Work Center should be assigned for a minimum of how many months?

Back 350

18

Front 351

How often must the Maintenance Officer (MO) conduct a review of the Aircraft/Equipment Workload Report to verify the Equipment Operational Capability (EOC) and up, down or partial aircraft status are correctly coded?

Back 351

Monthly

Front 352

Both O-level and l-level administration divisions shall keep a message history file by date time group (DTG) for a minimum of how many months?

Back 352

6

Front 353

What is an MIS based on the collection, download, analysis, and visualization of available aircraft systems data to provide quantifiable and actionable information that can be used to enhance naval aviation readiness through improved maintenance, operational, safety, and training efficiencies

Back 353

Military Flight Operations Quality Assurance (MFOQA)

Front 354

OOMA XRAY submissions can take up to how many days to be reflected upline into the Aircraft Inventory and Readiness Reporting System (AIRRS)?

Back 354

7

Front 355

What type of corrosion is high strength steels used in landing gear sensitive to

Back 355

Pitting and stress corrosion

Front 356

What type of corrosion is aluminum alloys susceptible to

Back 356

Exfoliation and intergranular

Front 357

During plastic media blasting what should the blasting pressure be

Back 357

No higher than 50 psi outlet pressure

Front 358

Which compatibility refers to the selection of the right tools and equipment to prevent additional damage from occurring as a result of the removal process

Back 358

Mechanical

Front 359

Which compatibility refers to using a cleaning medium during brushing, abrading, or blasting, that will not cause additional corrosion

Back 359

Material

Front 360

What is used to remove heavy corrosion deposits or paint that is not tightly bonded to the metal surface

Back 360

Wire brushes

Front 361

Who supervises the establishment and functions of all maintenance areas, maintenance personnel core qualifications, and their MOS development within a fixed wing/helicopter/tilt-rotor/UAV maintenance squadron or repair activity?

Back 361

Aircraft Maintenance Chief

Front 362

Who directs all maintenance in an operational unit on a day-to-day basis in support of its operations and assigned missions?

Back 362

MMCPO

Front 363

What is defined as an operational evolution where the pilot/crew of manned aircraft is changed while the engine(s) is (are) operating and the aircraft is to be immediately relaunched?

Back 363

Hot seating

Front 364

Commanding Officers (COs) may authorize pilots-in-command to conduct applicable T/M/S NATOPS pilot inspections, ensure servicing requirements are accomplished, and sign the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record (OPNAV 4790/141) in the certification block while operating away from home without qualified maintenance personnel for periods not exceeding how many hours?

Back 364

72

Front 365

Unless otherwise specified in aircraft MRCs, fuel samples must be taken within how many hours preceding the aircraft's initial launch?

Back 365

24

Front 366

For aircraft not having preservation maintenance technical manuals, preservation shall be performed per which publication?

Back 366

15-01-500

Front 367

Which form is used to document aircraft daily and turnaround inspections?

Back 367

OPNAV 4790/38

Front 368

What is responsible for the efficient attainment of aircraft and equipment readiness in support of operational objectives?

Back 368

Maintenance control

Front 369

Which publication provides the standardized policy and procedures for Aviation Logistics Information Management and Support (ALIMS) operations?

Back 369

MCO 2020.1

Front 370

What are required to determine whether the airframe, power plant, accessories, and equipment are functioning per predetermined standards while subjected to the intended operating environment?

Back 370

FCFs

Front 371

Which type of inspections are scheduled inspections with a prescribed interval other than daily or phase?

Back 371

Special

Front 372

What is defined as an operational evolution where an aircraft is refueled while the engine(s) is (are) operating?

Back 372

Hot refueling

Front 373

Which maintenance concept divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into small packages or phases of approximately the same work content?

Back 373

Phase

Front 374

Completed Functional Check Flight (FCF) checklists shall be retained in the aircraft maintenance files for a minimum of how many months or one phase cycle, whichever is greater?

Back 374

6

Front 375

The turnaround inspection is conducted between flights to verify the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verify proper servicing, and to detect degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight. The turnaround inspection is valid for a period of how many hours commencing from the date and time the inspection is completed, provided no flight and no maintenance other than servicing occurs during this period?

Back 375

24

Front 376

What is the Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record form number?

Back 376

OPNAV 4790/141

Front 377

Who serves as a contact point between work centers and the SPAWAR Systems Center Atlantic (SSCA) and is responsible for the management of all aspects of the MDS to include NALCOMIS reports/inquiries at the activity level?

Back 377

System Administrator/Analyst (SA/A)

Front 378

OMA NALCOMIS Optimized squadrons that operate from a detachment based concept for how many or more days shall have one System Administrator (SA) per detachment attend the NALCOMIS OOMA system analyst course (Course C-555-0049)?

Back 378

90

Front 379

When an individual special inspection or a group of special inspections due simultaneously will consume more than how many hours of elapsed maintenance time, the inspection requirements may be divided into portions performed incrementally at any time during the allowable deviation period?

Back 379

8

Front 380

The daily aircraft inspection is conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the turnaround inspection. The daily inspection is valid for a period of how many hours commencing from the date and time the inspection is completed, provided no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing has been performed?

Back 380

72

Front 381

To meet unusual situations or to ease workload scheduling, reporting custodians may apply plus or minus deviations to inspection intervals, if specified in T/M/S MRCs or commercial aircraft derivative task cards. If deviations are not specified in T/M/S technical manuals or commercial aircraft derivative task cards, the following maximum deviations may be applied. Plus or minus which percent, or a portion thereof, may be applied to the authorized inspection interval of scheduled maintenance requirements based on flight hours, operating hours, cycles, or events?

Back 381

10%

Front 382

Unless directed by the applicable T/M/S NATOPS manual, Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS) may not require an Functional Check Flight (FCF), other than for acceptance inspection, after completion of standard rework, or when not flown for how many or more days?

Back 382

30

Front 383

What is Phased Depot Maintenance (PDM) categorized as which is scheduled D-level maintenance performed per an established recurring schedule?

Back 383

Standard rework

Front 384

Where must orders to cannibalize come from?

Back 384

Maintenance control

Front 385

Scheduled Removal Components (SRC) and Assemblies with operating limitations are normally replaced at the scheduled inspection which falls nearest to the applicable limitation. To reduce replacements at other than scheduled inspections, a margin of plus or minus what percentage of the stated operating limitations is authorized for components or assemblies, unless such extension is prohibited by the applicable PMIC or other directive?

Back 385

10%

Front 386

How many days of advance notice, via naval message, is required prior to sending an aircraft to the Aerospace Maintenance and Regeneration Center (AMARC) for storage?

Back 386

10

Front 387

Which preservation category would be assigned to Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) which has anticipated usage within the next 90 days?

Back 387

Category A

Front 388

Which form is used to record Support Equipment (SE) issue and receipt transactions?

Back 388

OPNAV 4790/64

Front 389

What is designed to protect the material condition of aircraft which are not expected to be flown for extended periods of time?

Back 389

Aircraft preservation

Front 390

Which form is used to record acceptance information, custody and transfer, rework, preservation and depreservation, Technical Directives (TDs), and any other miscellaneous history required to accompany the Support Equipment (SE) throughout its service life?

Back 390

4790/51

Front 391

All Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) inspections are special inspections based on calendar days and are authorized a plus or minus how many days deviation during compliance by the prescribed maintenance level?

Back 391

3

Front 392

Which preservation category would be assigned to Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) which could possibly be used within the next 180 days?

Back 392

Category B

Front 393

What provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload, for example, inspections, transfer or receipt of aircraft, and compliance with Technical Directives (TDs)?

Back 393

MMP

Front 394

Which type of maintenance requirements are unscheduled events required as the result of a specific over limit condition, or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection?

Back 394

Conditional

Front 395

Which preservation category would be assigned to Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) which is not needed for extremely long periods of time (in excess of 180 days)?

Back 395

Category C

Front 396

For aircraft without specific T/M/S operational system check maintenance technical manuals, aircraft systems will be exercised every how many days (+/- 3 days) using applicable maintenance technical manuals?

Back 396

28

Front 397

Engines with major inspection intervals of 400 hours or more will have major inspections performed if what percent or less of the interval remains until the next inspection?

Back 397

25%

Front 398

Which type of inspection is a general inspection of a specific area of an aircraft?

Back 398

Zonal

Front 399

Engines with major inspection intervals of less than 400 hours will have major inspections performed if less than how many hours remain until the next inspection?

Back 399

100

Front 400

Which delivery procedure eliminates the requirement for configuration verification during acceptance inspection when received from the factory?

Back 400

Joint Strike Fighter (JSF)

Front 401

Per OPNAVINST 3110.11, aircraft that fail Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) must be inducted for Phased Depot Maintenance (PDM) no later than how many days after the current Period End Date (PED)?

Back 401

90

Front 402

Aircraft originally planned for short-term transfer but due to operational or Test Evaluation (TE) requirements exceed how many days, will require a complete transfer inspection before transferring the aircraft to another reporting custodian?

Back 402

90

Front 403

All repairable Support Equipment (SE) components beyond Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) repair capability shall be preserved, packaged, documented, and shipped within how many hours via fastest traceable means to the organic or commercial DRP or ATAC hub (as appropriate)?

Back 403

24

Front 404

What is defined as the overhaul, repair, check, test, certification, modification, or manufacturing of aeronautical material, mission equipment, engines, and Support Equipment (SE)?

Back 404

Component repair

Front 405

Which project code is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) when requisitioning material to repair Support Equipment (SE) that is inoperative and a workaround, redundancy, or local backup is available

Back 405

BK0

Front 406

Which workload priority will be set by production control for all workload for activities within 30 days of deployment, regardless of NMC/PMC status?

Back 406

Priority 1

Front 407

What is responsible for the development, expansion, execution, and support of maintenance plans for component repair?

Back 407

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

Front 408

Which project code "Broad Arrow" is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) to material requirements for nonoperational Support Equipment (SE) used in direct support of operational aircraft for which there is no redundancy?

Back 408

ZF7

Front 409

Which workload priority will be set by production control for repair of critical Local Repair Cycle Assets (LRCA) and Support Equipment (SE)?

Back 409

Priority 2

Front 410

Which Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) Support Equipment (SE) report occurs when there is an item of inoperative Support Equipment (SE) and there is no redundancy in that piece of SE, or the redundancy is inadequate such that aircraft support will be impacted, thereby, jeopardizing the operational readiness of supported units?

Back 410

BA

Front 411

When check, test, and repair capability does not exist at the IMA, all AVDLRs and some field level repairables (FLR) must be shipped to the designated support point (DSP), designated rework point (DRP), or another activity having the capability to repair that component. Under normal circumstances, the determination must be made within 24 hours. When determined that repair capability does not exist, the component will be shipped to another activity within 48 hours. Total IMA, Supply and Maintenance, hold time shall not exceed how many days?

Back 411

3

Front 412

Which level of preservation is used for aircraft and Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) for O-indefinitely?

Back 412

Level III

Front 413

What are all activities in the Navy assigned for determining priorities for material support based on their mission?

Back 413

force activity designator (FAD)

Front 414

Who serves as a contact point between work centers and the SSCA and is responsible for the management of all aspects of the MDS to include NALCOMIS reports/inquires at the activity level?

Back 414

Maintenance Database Administrator/Analyst (MDBA/A)

Front 415

Which level of preservation is used for aircraft and Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) for 0-365 days?

Back 415

Level II

Front 416

Which project code is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) when requisitioning material to stop an Awaiting Parts (AWP) condition on components and aircraft engines undergoing repair when directly related to aircraft support?

Back 416

ZC8

Front 417

Which project code means engine maintenance work stoppages for all model aircraft engines?

Back 417

ZQ9

Front 418

Which workload priority will be set by production control for repair of noncritical Local Repair Cycle Assets (LRCAs) and Support Equipment (SE), and repair or manufacture of material for non-fixed allowance stock?

Back 418

Priority 3

Front 419

Which workload priority will be set by production control for processing of salvaged material and non-aeronautical work?

Back 419

Priority 4

Front 420

Which level of preservation is used for aircraft and Support Equipment (SE), Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE), Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) for 0-90 days?

Back 420

Level I

Front 421

Which project code is assigned by the Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA) when requisitioning material to stop an Awaiting Parts (AWP) condition on a specific end item or component (other than aircraft engines) undergoing repair?

Back 421

BK1

Front 422

Which series contains instructions for using the material priority system and for assigning Force Activity Designators (FADS)?

Back 422

OPNAVINST 4614.1

Front 423

What is the ratio of cleaning compound (MIL-PRF-85570 Type II) to water for cleaning

Back 423

One part compound to 14 parts fresh water

Front 424

What must each ship, aviation squadron, and command establish to record OPTAR grants and the value of transactions authorized to be incurred as chargeable to the ACC or TYCOM operating budget?

Back 424

NAVCOMPT 2155

Front 425

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized but cannot be performed due to a lack of technical data?

Back 425

BCM 6

Front 426

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when a repairable item is so severely worn or damaged that repair is not feasible, as determined by local maintenance personnel, or specifically directed by ACC or TYCOM?

Back 426

BCM 9

Front 427

Which centers are contact points within maintenance organizations where requirements for indirect material are coordinated with the Aviation Support Division (ASD)?

Back 427

Material Control

Front 428

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized but cannot be performed due to lack of equipment, tools, or facilities?

Back 428

BCM 2

Front 429

Material control must turn in defective repairable Consolidated Remain-in Place List (CRIPL) components within how many hours of receipt?

Back 429

24

Front 430

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized and feasible but not attempted due to an EI exhibit, SRC data unknown and cannot be determined, item under warranty, l-level repair costs exceed AVDLR Net Unit Price or replacement cost, excessive backlog, budgetary limitations, materials in excess of requirements, or when specifically directed by the ACC or TYCOM?

Back 430

BCM 8

Front 431

Which codes are used to communicate maintenance and supply instructions to various logistic support levels and using commands for the logistic support of systems, equipment, and end items?

Back 431

SM&R

Front 432

Which codes specify if a component is intended to be repaired at the O-level, l-level, or D-level of maintenance?

Back 432

SM&R

Front 433

Who is responsible for the overall management of the Material Control function?

Back 433

MMCO

Front 434

Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) 2, BCM 3, and BCM 6 are authorized only if the deficiency in equipment, skills, or technical data cannot be resolved within how many days?

Back 434

30

Front 435

How often must the Summary Filled Order/Expenditure Difference Listing (SFOEDL) (original and I copy) be forwarded by the DFAS to individual OPTAR holders for each OPTAR held?

Back 435

Monthly

Front 436

Which type of funds will be used to finance the cost of paints, wiping rags, towel service, cleaning agent, and cutting compounds used in preventive maintenance and corrosion control of aircraft?

Back 436

Aviation Fleet Maintenance (AFM) Funds

Front 437

Which instruction contains the responsibilities and procedures for establishing, maintaining, and modifying the NAVSUP WSS Consolidated Remain-in Place List (CRIPL)?

Back 437

OPNAVINST 4440.25

Front 438

Which form must Material Control obtain signature on of work center personnel receiving material?

Back 438

DD 1348

Front 439

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized but cannot be performed due to a lack of technical skills?

Back 439

BCM 3

Front 440

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the repair is authorized but cannot be performed because required parts will not be available?

Back 440

BCM 4

Front 441

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the activity's authorized level of maintenance is limited to check and test only and repair is required?

Back 441

BCM 5

Front 442

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when some level of repair beyond check and test is authorized, but the maintenance function required to return the item to a RFI condition is not assigned by SM&R code, MIMs, maintenance plan, or other technical decision?

Back 442

BCM 7

Front 443

Which Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM) code is used by Intermediate Maintenance Activities (IMAs) when the activity is specifically not authorized to repair the item in applicable directives, for example, required maintenance function not assigned by SM&R code, MIM, maintenance plan, other technical decision, peculiar item from an aircraft not supported by an activity, or SM&R coded XXXXD?

Back 443

BCM 1

Front 444

Which reference contains procedures for transferring records to the Washington National Records Center?

Back 444

SECNAV M-5210.1

Front 445

Which form contains a complete record of all repair, reconditioning, standard rework, conversion, modification, modernization, and Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA) inspections performed on the aircraft by a repair activity or on the equipment by any l-level or D-level activity?

Back 445

CNAF 4790/23A

Front 446

Which procedure is required when Navy property and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) material in Navy custody is lost, damaged, or destroyed?

Back 446

Survey

Front 447

How many parts is the Navy Aeronautical Publications Index made up of?

Back 447

4

Front 448

How many years are logbooks/records of aircraft/equipment lost in combat or that have been involved in a mishap resulting in death, missing in action, personal injury, or substantial damage to other than government property retained by the operating activity before being forwarded to the Washington National Records Center?

Back 448

1

Front 449

Which list specifies all maintenance significant repair parts associated with the equipment and is the basis for allowances?

Back 449

Allowance Parts List (APL)

Front 450

Which reference provides guidance for shipping classified information to the Washington National Records Center?

Back 450

SECNAV M-5510.30

Front 451

Which manual provides functional procurement, receipt, expenditure, inventory and financial management procedures, and some policies for all Marine Aviation Logistic Squadrons (MALS) using the Shipboard Uniform Automated Data Processing System (SUADPS)/Real Time (RT) and NALCOMIS Phase II and beyond?

Back 451

MCO P 4400.177

Front 452

What are listings of equipment and material required for performance of specific missions?

Back 452

Table of Basic Allowances (TBAs)

Front 453

Which instruction should be referred to for reporting procedures for those activities with reportable engines?

Back 453

NAVAIRINST 13700.15

Front 454

Which form is designed to permit the monthly compilation of significant flight operational data throughout the service life of an aircraft?

Back 454

CNAF 4790/21A

Front 455

Which list describes a system supported by an authorized range of operating space items?

Back 455

Allowance Equipage List (AEL)

Front 456

Which form is used to record significant information affecting the aircraft for which no other space is provided in the logbook?

Back 456

CNAF 4790/25A

Front 457

Which form is used to monitor structural life limited components designated for D-level replacement which do not require Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) or Assembly Service Record (ASR) documentation?

Back 457

CNAF 4790/142

Front 458

What are used as guides in establishing Individual Material Readiness Lists (IMRLs)?

Back 458

Allowance Lists

Front 459

Which form will be used in connection with survey procedures?

Back 459

DD 200

Front 460

What is a list of all aviation peculiar items authorized to be carried in stock by activities for support of aircraft and missiles?

Back 460

Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL)

Front 461

O-level activities maintaining helicopter dynamic components requiring an Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) are not required to log repetitive Nondestructive Inspections (NDls) based on less than how many hour intervals?

Back 461

100

Front 462

Which form contains a record of Technical Directives (TDs) affecting the airframe structure and its integral parts?

Back 462

CNAF 4790/24A

Front 463

Which form provides a record of all scheduled and conditional inspections performed on the aircraft during each period and on equipment for which an Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) is required?

Back 463

CNAF 4790/22A

Front 464

Which system provides the Ounces of the Secretary of Defense, the Department of the Navy (DON), and subordinate commands with comprehensive information on Navy and Marine Corps aircraft?

Back 464

Aircraft Inventory and Readiness Reporting System (AIRRS)

Front 465

What is used to record maintenance history for repairable components not designated as life limited?

Back 465

Tracked Component Record (TCR)

Front 466

What contains the electronic baseline, actual inventory, and historical information on aircraft, engines, Support Equipment (SE), Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS), and associated assemblies?

Back 466

Configuration Management (CM) Auto Log Set (ALS)

Front 467

Which form is used to maintain a current inventory of all equipment, components, and assemblies requiring a Module Service Record (MSR), Assembly Service Record (ASR), HER, or Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) card?

Back 467

CNAF 4790/27A

Front 468

Which record is designed to provide configuration and inspection information for a Seat Survival Kit (SSK) and its components?

Back 468

OPNAV 4790/137

Front 469

What is the Scheduled Removal Component Card form number?

Back 469

CNAF 4790/28A

Front 470

Which type of inspections are conducted as a result of a specific over limit condition or as a result of circumstances or events which create an administrative requirement for an inspection?

Back 470

Conditional

Front 471

Which record is designed to provide a current configuration and inspection record of Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) components, kits, and assemblies?

Back 471

OPNAV 4790/138

Front 472

Which publication should be referred to for aircraft preservation requirements if they are not contained in the applicable preservation Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs) for the selected aircraft?

Back 472

NAVAIR 15-01-500

Front 473

NAVAIRINST 13120.1 along with which other instruction provide policy for management of the Structural Life Limit Program?

Back 473

NAVAIRINST 13130.1

Front 474

Which type of engine design allows l-level activities to readily remove and replace interchangeable modules with Ready for Issue (RFI) spares?

Back 474

Modular

Front 475

Which type of inventory are explosive devices treated as?

Back 475

Component

Front 476

Which publication contains the maximum ground test stand/engine test cell time a propeller may accumulate?

Back 476

NAVAIR 03-20CBBK-1

Front 477

What is the Assembly Service Record form number?

Back 477

CNAF 4790/106A

Front 478

An entry in which form is required whenever preservation, represervation, or depreservation is performed on aircraft or equipment?

Back 478

OPNAV 4790/136A

Front 479

Which form is intended for use with all aeronautical equipment requiring the monthly compilation of significant operating data?

Back 479

CNAF 4790/31A

Front 480

Which record is designed to provide the current configuration and inspection record of a parachute assembly and its components?

Back 480

OPNAV 4790/101

Front 481

Which record is designed to provide a record of the current configuration of all personal survival equipment issued to the aircrewman?

Back 481

OPNAV 4790/159

Front 482

Which form provides a method of monitoring specific maintenance data on designated components and equipment that do not qualify for a Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) card?

Back 482

CNAF 4790/113

Front 483

Who is responsible for screening engine Module Service Record (MSR), Assembly Service Record (ASR), HER, or Scheduled Removal Component (SRC) card(s) upon receipt of an engine to verify the time remaining on engine components?

Back 483

Logbook Clerk

Front 484

Which strike category covers obsolescent or excess aircraft and aircrafts intentionally destroyed in tests, training or battle?

Back 484

Category 3

Front 485

Who maintains and controls a master bureau number log to ensure that once a Bureau Number (BUNO) is assigned it is not reassigned?

Back 485

CNO

Front 486

How often will the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) approve a list of aircraft strikes?

Back 486

Semi-annually

Front 487

Which instruction lists the Operating Service Life (OSL) which represents the total Operating Service Months (OPSERMOS) the aircraft can be expected to serve before retirement?

Back 487

OPNAVINST 3110.11

Front 488

What is a subset of the aircraft Standard Depot Level Maintenance (SDLM) specification which establishes inspection procedures to determine an individual aircraft's material condition prior to induction to or a 12 month deferral of Standard Depot Level Maintenance (SDLM)?

Back 488

Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA)

Front 489

Who is responsible for maintaining records and acting as the reporting custodian when Naval aircraft are loaned to non-Naval activities?

Back 489

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

Front 490

How many categories are there in which to declare an aircraft strike?

Back 490

4

Front 491

What is the controlling custodian for pre-accepted aircraft?

Back 491

NAVAIR ACC

Front 492

How many steps are required to add aircraft to the Naval inventory?

Back 492

2

Front 493

Which strike category via XRAY will be used by reporting custodians if an aircraft is lost (not recovered) or destroyed?

Back 493

Category 1

Front 494

How often at a minimum are reporting custodians required to report aircraft hours in life?

Back 494

Quarterly

Front 495

What is the primary means of recording aircraft status changes, from acceptance into the inventory until final strike?

Back 495

XRAY

Front 496

Compass systems must be calibrated within how many days prior to a scheduled extended deployment of 60 or more days?

Back 496

90

Front 497

What publishes a list of threshold sampling candidates, quantities, and milestones for each engine?

Back 497

In Service Support Center (ISSC)

Front 498

Which type of equipment allows aircrew members to survive on land or water and interface with rescue forces?

Back 498

ALSS

Front 499

Which record is designed to provide a current configuration and inspection record of Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) components, kits, and assemblies?

Back 499

OPNAV 4790/138

Front 500

Which record was designed to provide the current configuration and inspection record of a parachute assembly and its components?

Back 500

Parachute Record (OPNAV 4790/101)

Front 501

A plus or minus deviation of what percent of the engine inspection interval is allowed for scheduling purposes unless otherwise directed by Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PMICs)?

Back 501

10%

Front 502

Which system formally ensures that aeronautical equipment is maintained throughout its life cycle by controlling degradation resulting from time, operational cycles, use, or climatic exposure?

Back 502

PMS

Front 503

Which type of system is defined as any system or instrument which uses the earth's magnetic field as its primary source of heading information, whether employed as a navigational aid, computer input for weapons delivery systems, or magnetic variation computations in inertial navigation?

Back 503

Compass

Front 504

To ensure positive control of inspection progress, individual crew members should not be issued Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs) at any one time with task totals in excess of how many hours?

Back 504

2

Front 505

How many compasses at a minimum will be carried onboard all naval aircrafts?

Back 505

2

Front 506

Which investigative procedure is conducted on high value, long lead time, and other critical parts for which little or no failure history is available?

Back 506

Threshold sampling

Front 507

Which Naval instruction establishes the Explosives Handling Personnel Qualification and Certification Program which personnel in the Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) Branch must be qualified in?

Back 507

OPNAVINST 8023.24

Front 508

What is the Monthly Flight Summary form number?

Back 508

CNAF 4790/21A

Front 509

Which record shall be initiated by the cognizant O-level activity upon the initial issue of personal equipment to the aircrew member?

Back 509

Aircrew Personnel Equipment Record (OPNAV 4790/159)

Front 510

O-level activities are not authorized to requisition or stock Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) assemblies or parts beyond those required to outfit what percentage of their assigned aircraft and aircrew?

Back 510

100%

Front 511

Compass systems must be calibrated at least once every how many months from the last calibration?

Back 511

12

Front 512

Which record is designed to provide configuration and inspection information for a Seat Survival Kit (SSK) and its components?

Back 512

Seat Survival Kit Record (OPNAV 4790/137)

Front 513

Which program provides the policy and procedures whereby maintenance activities can effectively accomplish their assigned engine maintenance responsibilities?

Back 513

Gas Turbine Engine Maintenance Program

Front 514

What contains the description, preparation for use, and handling instructions for rocket catapults and rocket motors for Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)?

Back 514

NAVAIR 11-100-1.1-CD

Front 515

Which compass calibration method uses an in-flight procedure to compare compass headings against those generated by the onboard Inertial Navigation System?

Back 515

Verification

Front 516

What are used to present the maintenance tasks required to maintain the equipment in an effective operational status?

Back 516

Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)

Front 517

Which publication contains the procedures that all maintenance, supply handling, and account of communications security and telecommunications security equipment will be performed with?

Back 517

CMS-1

Front 518

How many levels is the Department of the Navy's maintenance concept?

Back 518

3

Front 519

Which type of message will be used to forward a jet engine test cell malfunction report to the Aircraft Controlling Custodian (ACC)/Type Commander (TYCOM) when a facility becomes inoperative to the extent that an unacceptable production delay is anticipated?

Back 519

Broad Arrow (BA)

Front 520

Which Work Center is responsible for managing and performing calibration and repair on selected Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment (TMDE)?

Back 520

Work Center 670

Front 521

How many groups of technical manuals exist for the control and performance of engine repair

Back 521

2

Front 522

What is the maximum interval between Engine Test Cell Correlations to maintain engine performance integrity?

Back 522

3 years

Front 523

Component repair of engines included in the COMNAVAIRSYSCOM Non-avionic Common Support Equipment (CSE) Quick Engine Change Assembly (QECA) program will be performed per which instruction?

Back 523

NAVICPINST 4400.75

Front 524

Which instruction contains maintenance functions, policy, and responsibilities for armament equipment?

Back 524

OPNAVINST 8000.16

Front 525

Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) won't be needed for extremely long periods of time as in over at least 180 days?

Back 525

Category C

Front 526

Who is responsible for ensuring all Support Equipment (SE) maintenance is optimally scheduled?

Back 526

MMCO

Front 527

Which series establishes the policy used to conduct the cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment?

Back 527

NAVAIR 01-1A-509

Front 528

Which manual is a single source of information relating to COMNAVAIRSYSCOM policies for naval aircraft and related hose and tube assemblies?

Back 528

NAVAIR 01-1A-20

Front 529

Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) is anticipated to be used within the next 90 days?

Back 529

Category A

Front 530

Which instruction specifies naval aviation mishap reporting procedures, and requires maintenance personnel to participate in investigating, reporting, and preventing ground mishaps?

Back 530

OPNAVINST 3750.6

Front 531

How many groups of technical manuals exist for the control and performance of engine repair?

Back 531

2

Front 532

Which series of manuals provide technical information related to the configuration, application, function, inspection, and maintenance of Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS)?

Back 532

13-1-6

Front 533

What is the maximum interval between Engine Test Cell Correlations to maintain engine performance integrity?

Back 533

3 years

Front 534

Which series establishes the policy used to conduct the cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment?

Back 534

01-1A-509

Front 535

How many days of Ready For Issue (RFI) shelf life are spare Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) assemblies authorized that are maintained in the IMA 800 Division rotatable pool before they begin to accumulate time for inspection purposes?

Back 535

90

Front 536

How many levels is the Department of the Navy's maintenance concept?

Back 536

3

Front 537

What is defined as a scheduled performance evaluation and correction requirement for certain specified Support Equipment (SE) items?

Back 537

Calibration

Front 538

Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) is anticipated to be used within the next 90 days?

Back 538

Category A

Front 539

Which sets provide step by step procedures and instructions for engine disassembly to a controlled depth?

Back 539

Complete Engine Repair Requirements Card (CERRC)

Front 540

Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) won't be needed for extremely long periods of time as in over at least 180 days?

Back 540

Category C

Front 541

Which category of Support Equipment (SE)/Armament Weapons Support Equipment (AWSE)/Weapons Handling Equipment (WHE) could possibly be used within the next 180 days?

Back 541

Category B

Front 542

Which form is used when a new item of Support Equipment (SE) is introduced into the Navy system and is originated by the manufacturer and is signed by the appropriate authorized government representative for inspection and acceptance?

Back 542

Material Inspection and Receiving Report (DD 250)

Front 543

Which publication provides basic information for the safe and professional use of Support Equipment (SE) in the hazardous work environment of naval aviation?

Back 543

00-80T-96

Front 544

Which instruction contains D-level maintenance policy, procedures, and responsibilities for Support Equipment (SE)?

Back 544

NAVAIRINST 13680.1

Front 545

Which program was designed to ensure that the required Support Equipment (SE) is available in the activity, similar D-level work unit, or team?

Back 545

IMRL

Front 546

Which instruction contains provisions for revising Support Equipment (SE) allowances in the Support Equipment Resources Management Information System (SERMIS) and in the activities Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)?

Back 546

NAVAIRINST 13650.1

Front 547

Which concept uses technology infusion to standardize tracking, monitoring, and management of all training into an integrated, cohesive "cradle-to-grave" system?

Back 547

Aviation Maintenance Training Continuum System (AMTCS)

Front 548

OPNAVINST 5100.23 along with which other instruction contain safety precautions that require implementation by maintenance personnel on assigned equipment and spaces?

Back 548

OPNAVINST 5100.19

Front 549

What is the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) form number?

Back 549

4790/29

Front 550

Which form is used to request work or assistance from a Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) overhaul point that is beyond the activity capability?

Back 550

Work Request Customer Service (OPNAV 4790/36A)

Front 551

Who is responsible for assisting Quality Assurance (QA) in implementing Maintenance Department/Division safety?

Back 551

Work Center Supervisor (WCS)

Front 552

Which personnel are permanently assigned to a production or fleet readiness aviation maintenance personnel work center and have a collateral duty for inspecting work done by the work center?

Back 552

CDIs

Front 553

What provides a record for the administrative review of the condition of accountable Support Equipment (SE), the cause of the condition, responsibility, and a recommendation for disposition?

Back 553

Survey

Front 554

How often must the Work Center Supervisor (WCS) review the work centers Pre-Expended Bin (PEB) requirements and compare them against actual Pre-Expended Bin (PEB) stocking levels?

Back 554

Monthly

Front 555

How many major categories can accountable Support Equipment (SE) be classified into?

Back 555

3

Front 556

Which type of training is conducted by fleet activities to complement formal training and increase professional safety, technical knowledge and proficiency?

Back 556

In-Service Training (IST)

Front 557

Which program is an inventory management and reporting system for Support Equipment (SE) at O-level, l- level, and D-level activities?

Back 557

Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness (AMMRL)

Front 558

How many categories of Support Equipment (SE) Technical Directives (TDs) are there?

Back 558

2

Front 559

How often are D-level overhaul requirements submitted by the Support Equipment Controlling Authority (SECA) to COMNAVAIRSYSCOM for input to the Support Equipment Resources Management Information System (SERMIS) for planning, funding, and scheduling for the fiscal year?

Back 559

Annually

Front 560

Which reference contains requirements for lead-acid and nickel-cadmium battery safety?

Back 560

17-15BAD-1

Front 561

Which form is used to request scheduling of end items of Support Equipment (SE) that are beyond the requesting Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA)/Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) capability?

Back 561

Support Equipment (SE) Schedule Request (CNAF 4790/80)

Front 562

Which program is a compilation of written requirements for a specific watch station or unit team member?

Back 562

Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS)

Front 563

Which class of Navy Training School is defined as professional Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) mandated or non-pipeline refresher training?

Back 563

Class D

Front 564

Which automated system was designed to be responsive to demands for training information by the Naval Educational Training Command (NETC) as wells as other commands?

Back 564

Navy Integrated Training Resources and Administration System (NITRAS)

Front 565

Which instruction contains Navy Training System Plans (NTSP) development, approval, and implementation procedures?

Back 565

OPNAVINST 1500.76

Front 566

Which class of Navy Training School teaches advanced knowledge and skills that are required to fill a billet coded with a Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC)?

Back 566

Class C

Front 567

Which class of Navy Training School teaches individual functional skill training by fleet or Aircraft Controlling Custodian (ACC)/Type Commander (TYCOM)?

Back 567

Class F

Front 568

Which instruction outlines the Aviation Maintenance Training (AMT) program and specifies Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) policy in aviation maintenance training at both the O-level and l-level?

Back 568

OPNAVINST 1540.2

Front 569

Which instruction provides information, policies, tasking's, and procedures for Navy manpower management?

Back 569

OPNAVINST 1000.16

Front 570

Which publication contains information on schools and courses offered through Navy training commands?

Back 570

NAVEDTRA 10500

Front 571

Which program identifies tasks, skills, and knowledge requirement for each Military Occupational Specialty (MOS)?

Back 571

Maintenance Training Management and Evaluation Program (MATMEP)

Front 572

Which system is the single authoritative source for manpower data?

Back 572

Total Force Manpower Management System (TFMMS)

Front 573

What is the Navy's single integrated training feedback system?

Back 573

Navy Training Feedback System (NTFS)

Front 574

Which software application module supports Aviation Maintenance Training Continuum System (AMTCS) in the schoolhouse and the fleet and is designed to document qualifications/certifications progress with the Electronic/Certification Record?

Back 574

Advanced Skills Management (ASM)

Front 575

What is the official statement of billets, personnel, and training input and resource requirements to support the introduction and operational use of aircraft, systems, subsystems, equipment, and other developments, including non-hardware related developments?

Back 575

Navy Training System Plans (NTSP)

Front 576

Which class of Navy Training School is a segment course of a Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC) producing pipeline?

Back 576

Class G

Front 577

Which command is responsible for providing the necessary planning, programing, and budgeting for manpower and training resources to support fleet training requirements?

Back 577

Naval Personnel Development Command (NPDC)

Front 578

Who is responsible for providing policy direction, exercising control and coordination of the Training Audit Program?

Back 578

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

Front 579

Which publication defines rates and ratings by describing the Navy's requirements and identifies additional skills required in specific billets which are supplemental to rating skill requirements?

Back 579

NAVPERS 18068F Volume II

Front 580

Which class of Navy Training School teaches the basic knowledge/skills that are required for entry level performance?

Back 580

Class A

Front 581

Who is responsible for the training of naval personnel and for directing the various commands and ounces in providing resources required to implement the training program?

Back 581

Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

Front 582

Which maintenance level do Quality Assurance (QA) specialists have to be at to accomplish Type I verifications?

Back 582

D-level

Front 583

Which Quality Assurance (QA) term is defined as a periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records?

Back 583

Audit

Front 584

Which Quality Assurance term is defined as the examination and testing of supplies and services that include raw materials, components, and intermediate assemblies, to determine whether they conform to specific requirements?

Back 584

Inspection

Front 585

What is the minimum paygrade required to be appointed as a Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)?

Back 585

E-6

Front 586

What provides a central source of up-to-date information for the use of all personnel in the performance of their work?

Back 586

Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL)

Front 587

Technical Manual Application System (TMAPS) along with what else are the only authoritative source for all technical data, whether pre-flight, in flight, or post flight for aircraft/engines or any equipment/systems supporting naval operation?

Back 587

Joint Knowledge Caching Servers (JKCS)

Front 588

What is the Quality Assurance Representative/Inspector Recommendation/Designation form number?

Back 588

CNAF 4790/12

Front 589

What is the Artisan Inspector Designation form number?

Back 589

CNAF 4790/11

Front 590

How often at a minimum must a working-level forum be held by the area Quality Assurance Specialist with the Artisan Inspectors (Als) to evaluate program performance, monitoring results and improvement opportunities?

Back 590

Monthly

Front 591

Which program provides a systematic and efficient method for gathering, analyzing, and maintaining information on the quality characteristics of products, the source and nature of defects, and their immediate impact on the current operation?

Back 591

QA

Front 592

Who oversees and coordinates the efforts of the Quality Department?

Back 592

Director of Quality

Front 593

How often are executive-level forums held by the Director of Quality with the D-level Fleet Readiness Center (FRC) Commanding Officer (CO) to review program performance and process monitoring results of all areas?

Back 593

Monthly

Front 594

What are provided for certain maintenance tasks that, if improperly performed, could cause equipment failure or jeopardize the safety of personnel?

Back 594

Quality Assurance (QA) Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)

Front 595

The Officer in Charge (OINC) of a detachment may designate Quality Assurance (QA) personnel if all procedures and requirements for designating Quality Assurance (QA) personnel are accomplished by the detachment and the deployment is in excess of how many days?

Back 595

90

Front 596

Who perform, administer, monitor, and review processes and practices to ensure the quality of maintenance performed for the Department of Defense (DoD)?

Back 596

QA Specialist

Front 597

Which Quality Assurance (QA) term is defined as an ongoing review of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records?

Back 597

Monitor

Front 598

How many months at a minimum must completed Functional Check Flight (FCF) checklists be retained in aircraft history files?

Back 598

6

Front 599

Which type of inspections are specific Quality Assurance (QA) functions required during the performance of maintenance requirements and actions where satisfactory task performance cannot be determined after the task has been completed?

Back 599

In-Process

Front 600

How often at a minimum must O, I, and D-level Quality Assurance (QA) accompany Collateral Duty Inspectors (CDls) during scheduled and unscheduled maintenance tasks to recheck their qualifications?

Back 600

Annually

Front 601

Quality Assurance (QA) stamps may not be reassigned within a period of how many months?

Back 601

3

Front 602

What provide the instructions required for the efficient performance of scheduled maintenance tasks?

Back 602

Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)

Front 603

Which publication contains Aircraft Confined Space Program and Entry Authority (EA) certification requirements?

Back 603

01-1A-35

Front 604

Quality Assurance (QA) must visually review every welder's proficiency against the welder's test plate every how many days?

Back 604

90

Front 605

Which term is generally defined as the probability that an item will successfully perform its designated function for a specified period of time under specified operational conditions?

Back 605

Reliability

Front 606

Which maintenance concept is naval aviation dedicated to applying to in-service and future naval aircraft, engines, aircrew systems, weapon systems, aircraft launch and recovery equipment, and Support Equipment (SE)?

Back 606

Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM)

Front 607

Which central repository is the authoritative source for Central Technical Publications Libraries (CTPLs) to validate the most current copies of technical manuals and associated records maintained in individual command Enhanced Library Management System (ELMS) accounts?

Back 607

Technical Manual Application System (TMAPS)

Front 608

Which program provides monitoring, analysis, and specialized knowledge to initiate preventive actions that are effected by engineering, production, and other departments?

Back 608

Depot Level Quality Program (DLQP)

Front 609

Which program was designed to ensure a safe environment when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks?

Back 609

Aircraft Confined Space Program

Front 610

Which publications provide a basis for planning, scheduling, and complying with scheduled maintenance requirements?

Back 610

Planned Maintenance System (PMS)

Front 611

Which instruction contains instructions for maintenance personnel participation in command aviation safety programs?

Back 611

OPNAVINST 3750.6

Front 612

How many calendar days does Naval Air Technical Data and Engineering Center (NATEC) have to respond directly to activities that sent an assistance request letter because they were unable to locate applicable COMNAVAIRSYSCOM approved technical publications or have determined that the publication does not exist?

Back 612

30

Front 613

What indicate which Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs) are to be complied with, the numbers and specialties of personnel required, times during which the separate jobs are scheduled for completion, Power/Air off or on conditions required during the work, and the area where the work is to be performed?

Back 613

Sequence Control Cards (SCCs)

Front 614

What is the material Inspection and Receiving Report form number?

Back 614

DD 250

Front 615

Which publication contains detailed procedures for establishing and operating Central Technical Publications Libraries (CTPLs)?

Back 615

NAVAIR 00-25-100

Front 616

Which verification category temporarily imposes mandatory verification requirements and may be conducted on high failure rate items?

Back 616

Type II

Front 617

Which term refers to the determination of product conformance by actual examination, measurement, witnessing of tests, witnessing redundant or concurrent certification, or review of documented objective evidence describing product or quality characteristics and comparison to prescribed quality requirements?

Back 617

Verification

Front 618

What is the Support Equipment (SE) Misuse/Abuse form number?

Back 618

CNAF 4790/108

Front 619

How many years must completed Support Equipment (SE) Misuse/Abuse report forms be retained for?

Back 619

2

Front 620

Which type of audits are independent reviews conducted to compare some aspect of performance with set quality standards for that performance?

Back 620

Quality

Front 621

Which verification category is assigned to characteristics which would be classified as critical if found defective?

Back 621

Type I

Front 622

On E2 when does safety valve automatically open

Back 622

When the cabin pressure differential exceeds 9.5 psi

Front 623

In E2 when is cabin pressurization automatically initiated

Back 623

At 5,000 ft when the air-conditioning system is operating

Front 624

In E2 if the outflow regulator fails, when does the cabin pressure safety valve dump pressure

Back 624

When it exceeds atmospheric pressure by more than 9.5 psi

Front 625

What along with other publications, such as maintenance digests, prepared by weapons systems and equipment manufacturers are neither authorized nor approved for distribution to naval personnel

Back 625

Service bulletins

Front 626

Which program is designed to provide visibility of fuel and maintenance costs associated with the Flying Hour Program

Back 626

AFAST

Hint 626

Not flying slow

Front 627

What are liquids that dissolve other substances

Back 627

Solvents

Hint 627

DisSOLVE

Front 628

After the fleet unit review an AVCAL Quality Review Conference is held at NAVSUP WSS to negotiate the activitie's OSI allowances. NAVSUP WSS will provide revised AVCAL allowances to the site via computer tape no later than how many days prior to deployment

Back 628

93

Hint 628

A little over the regular

Front 629

What provides qualitative and quantitative analytical information to the AMO via the MMCO for continuous review of management practices within the department or activity

Back 629

MDBA/A

Front 630

What allows you to regulate events, rather than have them regulate you

Back 630

Prevention

Front 631

What division, (previously Target Division) is optional, and may be established when responsibilities concerning the operation and maintenance of aerial or surface targets are extensive

Back 631

RPV

Front 632

What is a five-position code assigned to manufacturer's and nonmanufacturer's organizational entities and contractors of items procured by agencies of the Federal Government

Back 632

CAGE

Front 633

What are used for diagrams and schematics to highlight the areas containing the changed information

Back 633

Shading and screening

Front 634

What form documents maintenance actions involving failed material

Back 634

OPNAV 4790/60

Front 635

The NAVAIR manual publication number is divided into how many parts, separated by a dash

Back 635

3

Front 636

The remaining how many characters of the PI are called the technical manual (TM) identifier

Back 636

6

Front 637

The IPB is divided into how many sections

Back 637

3

Front 638

What is a technical directive issued by message or message format letter that dictates urgent dissemination

Back 638

Interim Change

Front 639

What numbering system is part of the effort to standardize technical manual numbers for all ships, aircraft, and equipment

Back 639

TMINS

Front 640

Before you attempt any task on an aircraft, consult the what for that particular model of aircraft

Back 640

MIM

Front 641

Mech is published bimonthly by the U.S. Naval Safety Center. It is distributed to naval aeronautic organizations on the basis of one copy per how many persons

Back 641

10

Front 642

What instruction establishes the TMINS for aeronautical publications

Back 642

NAVAIRINST 4160.1

Front 643

What divide the total scheduled maintenance tasks into small packages of approximately the same work content, which are accomplished sequentially at specific intervals

Back 643

Phase MRCs

Front 644

What provides scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload

Back 644

MMP

Front 645

The second part of the TMINS is called the suffix. It is an added field of up to how many characters (including the slash)

Back 645

17

Front 646

The Aviation 3M what provides a mechanized collection and processing of statistical data

Back 646

Maintenance Data System (MDS)

Front 647

What are reciprocating engines, jet propulsion engines, jet propulsion/ turboshaft engines, rocket type jet engines Auxiliary Power Units (APU)

Back 647

Power Plants

Front 648

What is a document containing instructions and information that directs the accomplishment and recording of a material change, a repositioning, a modification, or an alteration in the characteristics of the equipment to which it applies

Back 648

Change

Front 649

A revision normally takes place when more than what percent of the pages are affected by a single change or accumulated changes

Back 649

60%

Front 650

The usability of a manual has how many primary elements

Back 650

3

Front 651

What determines when there is a requirement to change a manual and authorizes that the change be made

Back 651

NAVAIRTECHSERVFAC

Front 652

What is used as a guide in making structural repairs to the airframe

Back 652

SRM

Front 653

All TDs are issued by NAVAIR or what else, except in cases where the time delay in obtaining approval is unacceptable

Back 653

NATSF

Front 654

What identify requisitions and related documents that apply to specific projects or programs

Back 654

Project codes

Front 655

What serves as a centralized source of up-to-date information for all mechanics and technicians, and gives all personnel an excellent source of reference material to help with personal training and individual improvement

Back 655

TPL

Front 656

Maintenance control assigns a priority to individual material requisitions according to the military importance and the urgency of need of the item. Most fleet operational activities have what assigned

Back 656

FAD II or III

Front 657

AWP retention goals and thresholds will apply to all fixed allowance assets. Additional management attention, including a joint review of the overall AWP situation by Maintenance and Supply management personnel, shall be undertaken anytime the number of AWP components on hand exceeds 15% of the average monthly IMA inductions or the number of aged (more then 60 days) AWP components exceeds what percent of the average monthly IMA inductions

Back 657

1%

Front 658

Spray guns are usually classed as either a suction feed or what-feed type

Back 658

Pressure

Front 659

Sealants should not be applied to metal that is colder than what

Back 659

70°F

Front 660

Smoking or naked lights are not permitted within how many feet of an aircraft that is being refueled or the fuel storage tanks

Back 660

100

Front 661

Refueling crews consist of a minimum of how many people

Back 661

3

Front 662

What type of hydraulic fluid is now being used in the hydraulic systems of all naval aircraft

Back 662

MIL-H-83282

Front 663

To break the gloss of existing finishes and to feather (smooth out) the edges for overlap, you should scuff sand by using what grit aluminum oxide cloth

Back 663

240 or 320

Front 664

The preoiler (PON-6) is a portable, hand carried, hand pump with a how many gallon capacity

Back 664

3

Front 665

What materials designated as flammable are used, all sources of ignition must be at least how many feet away from the work location

Back 665

50

Front 666

Room temperature vulcanizing (RTV), silicon rubber sealant is used for sealing small electrical connectors and electrical components that are located in areas where the temperatures are between 200°F and what

Back 666

450°F

Front 667

No lights other than approved explosion-proof lights are permitted within how many feet of refueling operations

Back 667

50

Front 668

Because the controls differ from one aircraft to another, you should always check the applicable what before pressure fueling an aircraft

Back 668

MIM

Front 669

What reduces the contact area of the tire, causing it to wear faster at the tread center

Back 669

Overinflation

Front 670

Above what decibel (dB) sound intensity, any exposure without ear protection can cause damage

Back 670

140

Front 671

MIL-S-8516 is an accelerated, synthetic, rubber sealing compound used for sealing low-voltage electrical connectors, wiring, and other electrical equipment against moisture and corrosion where temperatures do not exceed what

Back 671

200°F

Front 672

The QA responsibility assigned to the QA division include using information from the maintenance data reports (MDRs) and what reports to develop discrepancy trends, and to identify failure areas or other maintenance problems

Back 672

NALCOMIS

Front 673

Shore-based Navy squadrons who have I-level billets authorized should assign personnel to the supporting IMA for a minimum of how many months

Back 673

12

Front 674

What sealants set and cure by evaporation of the solvent

Back 674

Drying

Front 675

Most naval aircraft are refueled by what fueling system

Back 675

Pressure

Front 676

The line division is a division within what department

Back 676

Maintenance

Front 677

What markings provide guidance on how to use walkways on aircraft wings and stabilizers as well as the fuselage

Back 677

NO STEP

Front 678

How many NO STEP areas are there on the fuselage

Back 678

4

Front 679

After engine operation, no work should be done to the exhaust section for how long

Back 679

30 minutes

Front 680

The recommended procedure for cooling overheated wheel, brake, and tire assemblies is to park the aircraft in an isolated location. Then, allow the assembly to cool in ambient air for how many minutes

Back 680

45 to 60

Front 681

What sealants are transformed from a fluid or semifluid state into a solid mass by chemical reaction of physical change rather than by evaporation of a solvent

Back 681

Catalyst-cured

Front 682

Do not use zinc chromate primer on exterior surfaces, including wheel wells and wing butts, and in areas that are exposed to temperatures exceeding what

Back 682

175°F

Front 683

What branch of the line division normally has between 75 and 95 percent of the total personnel assigned to the line division

Back 683

Plane captain

Front 684

When possible, refueling an aircraft from a truck should be carried out 50 feet from any other aircraft or structure and how many feet from any operating radar set

Back 684

75

Front 685

The tank truck should be driven to a point as far from the aircraft as the length of hose permits, but never within how many feet of the aircraft, and preferably to the windward (upwind) side of the aircraft

Back 685

10

Front 686

Aircraft engine oils are identified by either their military specification number (such as MIL-L-23699) or a how many-digit number

Back 686

4

Front 687

The HSU-1 service unit has how many-foot service hose connected to the unit's fluid output port at the pump assembly

Back 687

7

Front 688

What requires that any remaining fluid left in the hydraulic fluid container, after servicing a fill stand/servicing unit, be discarded, and that the empty fluid container be destroyed immediately and not used to store or handle other fluids

Back 688

NAVAIR 01-1A-17

Front 689

What type of sealants are called "one-part" sealants and are ready for use as packaged

Back 689

Pliable

Front 690

What should never be used to cool overheated brakes

Back 690

CO2

Front 691

Both the Navy and the Air Force use what scale for determining engine oil viscosity

Back 691

Saybolt

Front 692

What increases the contract area and causes the tire to wear rapidly and unevenly at the outer edges of the tread

Back 692

Underinflation

Front 693

Landing gear struts, hydraulic accumulators, and various air storage bitlife found on most naval aircraft must be serviced with compressed air or what else

Back 693

Nitrogen

Front 694

Liquid oxygen can explode when it comes into contact with oil or what else

Back 694

Grease

Front 695

The plane captain takes fuel samples from what of all fuel cells/tanks before the first flight of the day

Back 695

Low-point drains

Front 696

Which level of maintenance is work performed in centrally located facilities for the support of operating activities within a designated geographical area

Back 696

Intermediate

Hint 696

Support

Front 697

The preflight inspection is valid for a period of how many hours, provided no flight and no maintenance other than servicing occurs during this period

Back 697

24

Front 698

Depleted uranium is extremely toxic and shall be worked only under a license from which agency

Back 698

Nuclear Regulatory Agency (NRA)

Hint 698

Rifle association

Front 699

A directive classified ROUTINE ACTION must be accomplished within how many months of the date of issue

Back 699

18

Front 700

What reduces the potential for tool FOD-related mishaps and keeps down the cost of tool replacement

Back 700

TCP

Front 701

Who manages the Support Equipment (SE) Training and Licensing Program

Back 701

AAMO

Front 702

The person with the most direct concern for quality workmanship is the what

Back 702

Production supervisor

Front 703

What coatings are used as a coating system to protect exterior laminated plastic parts of high-speed aircraft, missiles, and helicopter rotary blades from rain erosion in flight

Back 703

Elastomeric

Front 704

What program was designed to make sure that all equipment requiring calibration/ servicing is maintained at maximum dependability

Back 704

METCAL

Front 705

What officer coordinates the Tool Control Program and makes sure that tools are procured and issued according to the approved tool control plan (TCPL)

Back 705

Material Control

Front 706

Liquid oxygen (LOX) is converted to what state before its delivery to the aircrew

Back 706

Gaseous

Front 707

What block on the SE license must identify the type, model, and series of aircraft on which the equipment can be used

Back 707

Restriction

Front 708

What can be defined as the act of guiding, directing, overseeing, evaluating, and controlling the activities of others in the accomplishment of an objective

Back 708

Supervision

Front 709

What contains information that includes material requirements, tool inventories, and detailed instructions for operation of the TCP for a specific type/model of aircraft

Back 709

TCPL

Front 710

What forms a strong anodic galvanic cell with every other metal and is ALWAYS the one attacked

Back 710

Magnesium

Front 711

Which system provides the aviation community with up-to-date and consistent aircraft inventory, readiness data, and flight/utilization data for each aircraft in the naval inventory

Back 711

AIRRS

Hint 711

Up

Front 712

Which system provides the aviation community with up-to-date and consistent aircraft inventory, readiness data, and flight/utilization data for each aircraft in the naval inventory

Back 712

AIRRS

Hint 712

Up

Front 713

After posting the differences, the OPTAR holder will review the listing and annotate transactions considered invalid with the rejection codes listed in

Back 713

NAVSOP-3013-1

Front 714

On E2D special 56 day inspection, which lubricating oil should be applied to all accessible equipment release mechanism pivot points and locking pins, of Aircrew seats (cockpit and CIC)

Back 714

MIL-PRF-32033

Front 715

During E2D special 180 day Halon portable fire extinguisher shall weigh within how many oz of indicated weight on decal with head and horn removed?

Back 715

4 oz

Front 716

In E2D, during special 180 day, verify date of manufacture on portable fire extinguisher has not exceeded how long?

Back 716

5 years

Front 717

During E2D special 180 day, how are CO2 extinguishers, P/N 132-008, weighed?

Back 717

With head and horn attached

Front 718

During E2D special 336 day, nacelle fire extinguisher container hydrostatic test date should be how long from date of manufacture or last hydrostatic test?

Back 718

10 years

Front 719

During E2D special 336 day, container assembly weight loss shall not exceed a how many pound difference from most recent weight specified on decal.

Back 719

0.25

Front 720

During E2D special 448 day, QA is to witness what?

Back 720

torque of inlet line and leak check

Front 721

During E2D planned maintenance interval (PMI) 1, how do AMEs assist ADs?

Back 721

Removal of Engine Fire bottles, CADs and cap off lines

Front 722

In E2D, what is the first step to gain access to Pressure Bulkhead?

Back 722

Disconnect OBOGS concentrator and remove from aircraft

Front 723

On E2D, what does a special 400 hour consist of?

Back 723

Air Cycle System Water Separator/Coalescer Bag

Front 724

During E2D initial preservation inspection what should the portable oxygen bottle psi be?

Back 724

1600 psi minimum

Front 725

During E2D initial preservation inspection what should the engine fire extinguishers psi be?

Back 725

600 +/- 50 psi at 70°F

Front 726

During E2D 30 day preservation what do AMEs check?

Back 726

LH/RH engine fire extinguishers psi, portable oxygen bottle psi, and portable fire extinguisher seal wire

Front 727

On E2D what should be done during a conditional smoke in cabin inspection?

Back 727

Inspect and clean cabin pressurization outflow regulator and safety valve if necessary

Front 728

During E2D hail damage inspection, what should be inspected?

Back 728

Vapor cycle/RPCS, air cycle/ELCS, and OBOGS scoops for damage, de-ice boots for damage

Front 729

NAVAIR 01-E2DIMC-6-3, card 40, is applicable to seats equipped with what parachute

Back 729

A/P22P-20 Parachute Survival Ensemble (PSE)

Front 730

In E6B how is the second extinguisher bottle discharged into the same engine?

Back 730

By setting the transfer switch to ALTER and pressing the bottle discharge button

Front 731

In E6B where is the one APU fire bottle located?

Back 731

On the bulkhead at the front of the APU

Front 732

In E6B when the APU generator is on line how does it meet the electrical load demands?

Back 732

limiting the supply of bleed air available for air conditioning and engine start

Front 733

What does the E6B environmental control system consist of?

Back 733

The bleed air, air conditioning, and pressurization systems

Front 734

Which stage of the E6B high pressure (N2) compressor is the primary source of air.

Back 734

Fifth

Front 735

In E6B, how does the precooler cool bleed air?

Back 735

By fan discharge air

Front 736

The E6B engine bleed air pressure regulating valve and what control the pressure of air entering the precooler.

Back 736

the ninth-stage bleed valve

Front 737

In E6B, when depressed what does the BLEED AIR switch/ caution light command to open?

Back 737

Bleed air shutoff valve

Front 738

In E6B, the precooler control valve is designed to fail in what position?

Back 738

the full open

Front 739

On E6B, the bleed air shutoff valve closes if the what switch for that engine is pulled?

Back 739

FIRE

Front 740

APU bleed air pressure is not regulated. Flow of APU bleed air is modulated by the what that is solenoid controlled and pneumatically operated?

Back 740

APU shutoff and load control valve

Front 741

In E6B, the supplemental ACS, by means of a bootstrap air cycle the bleed air is cooled and kept above what degrees to prevent moisture from freezing in the system?

Back 741

35 °F

Front 742

In E6B, the fault status TURBINE indicator illuminates when Turbine inlet temperature exceeds what temp?

Back 742

235°F

Front 743

In E6B, the fault status COMPRESS indicator Illuminates when the compressor outlet temperature exceeds what temperature?

Back 743

450°F

Front 744

In E6B, fault status DUCT HIGH indicator illuminates when the supply air temperature to the cabin from the Supplemental ACS exceeds what degrees.

Back 744

190°F

Front 745

In E6B, the aircraft depressurizes when the RAM AIR switch is depressed (because what closes)

Back 745

both flow control valves close

Front 746

In E6B, TRIP caution light Illuminates to indicate any combination of 250° zone duct temperature switches has shut down what?

Back 746

The air conditioning pack

Front 747

While the E6B is on the ground, the cooling airflow is generated by what?

Back 747

an ACM ground cooling air fan

Front 748

In E6B, the ram air is automatically controlled by the what?

Back 748

pack temperature controller

Front 749

In E6B, the temperature is controlled by the what that regulates ACM turbine bypass airflow in response to cabin cooling requirements.

Back 749

bypass valve

Front 750

In E6B, in the automatic mode, the temperature of the air entering the separator is limited to a minimum of what by the bypass valve to prevent separator icing.

Back 750

40 °F

Front 751

In E6B, if the air conditioning pack is in what mode when the ICING caution light illuminates, either the pack temperature controller is malfunctioning or the water separator is clogged with dirt?

Back 751

automatic

Front 752

In E6B, during automatic operation, the zone temperature control system maintains the zone temperatures between what as selected by each zone temperature selector?

Back 752

65 and 85 °F

Front 753

In E6B, the gasper air system provides a supplementary supply of what to each crewmember position including the crew rest seats, crew bunks, and lavatory?

Back 753

conditioned air

Front 754

In E6B, the outflow valves also function as safety valves to relieve at approximately what psi positive pressure differential or approximately what psi negative pressure differential?

Back 754

9.4/ 0.3

Front 755

In E6B, the cabin altitude warning system provides automatic audible and visual warning anytime the cabin altitude exceeds how many feet?

Back 755

10,000 ft

Front 756

In E6B, the draw-through cooling system chips electronic equipment by moving what through the units and exhausting it overboard?

Back 756

Cabin air

Front 757

In E6B, which system operates the same on the ground as airborne?

Back 757

Draw-through cooling

Front 758

In E6B, flow control valve is completely closed above a cabin pressure differential of what?

Back 758

three psi

Front 759

In E6B, the same signal that causes the draw-through system logic to command the fan to operate on low speed also causes what to illuminate?

Back 759

the AUTO light

Front 760

In E6B, conditions for high speed operation are: cabin altitude above what ±1,000 feet; cabin differential pressure below what psi?

Back 760

15,000/ 1.0 to 0.1psi

Front 761

In E6B, conditions for low speed operation are: cabin differential pressure below what psi and the fan has not been commanded to operate on high speed

Back 761

1.0 to 0.1 psi

Front 762

In E6B, which indicator is illuminated when the cabin differential pressure is below approximately 2.0 psi?

Back 762

the VALVE OPEN

Front 763

In E6B, on HEAT EXCH valve indicator, Full COOL indicates heat exchanger valve is in what position?

Back 763

open

Front 764

In E6B, if the primary fan speed, as sensed by an integral speed sensor, decreases to less than what% of nominal, the controller energizes a relay to provide power to the second fan

Back 764

60%

Front 765

In E6B, the liquid cooling system removes heat from which systems?

Back 765

DTWA

Front 766

In E6B, the liquid used, in the Liquid Cooling System, is an what and water mixture?

Back 766

ethylene glycol

Front 767

In E6B, the dump valve is controlled by the right ground safety relay, and opens only when?

Back 767

during flight

Front 768

In E6B engine what is used for anti-ice protection of the engine nacelles?

Back 768

bleed air

Front 769

In E6B, each engine nose cowl is anti-iced by what?

Back 769

bleed air

Front 770

In E6B, the flight deck windows are electrically heated for anti-icing or what and to ensure maximum impact strength?

Back 770

defogging

Front 771

On E6B, each pitot probe is heated by what means?

Back 771

integral electric wiring

Front 772

In E6B, oxygen is provided by a how many liter liquid oxygen converter?

Back 772

75 liter

Front 773

In E6B, the percentage of oxygen in the mixture increases as cabin pressure altitude increases, becoming 100 percent oxygen at approximately how many feet?

Back 773

30,000

Front 774

In E6B, the portable oxygen unit's pressure gauge is calibrated from zero to what psi?

Back 774

500

Front 775

In E6B, twelve portable oxygen units are provided that do not have an oxygen mask attached. These are designated what?

Back 775

MA-1

Front 776

In E6B, when using an oxygen mask with a portable oxygen bottle, set the regulator to what?

Back 776

NORM

Front 777

In E6B, the oxygen cylinder provides oxygen for approximately 10 minutes of moderate activity at what altitude if originally charged to 300 psi.

Back 777

25,000 ft

Front 778

In E6B, the 30M position, on the altitude selector knob is used from what range of cabin altitude.

Back 778

30,000 feet to 42,000 feet

Front 779

In E6B, fill the MA-1portable oxygen bottle before the pressure drops below what?

Back 779

50psi

Front 780

In E6B, how many handheld, nonrefillable, CO2 fire extinguishers are provided on the aircraft?

Back 780

Eight

Front 781

In E6B, in pilot and copilot seats, the vertical control handle allows adjustment of seat height in 1/2-inch increments, over what range?

Back 781

two inch

Front 782

In E6B, which seat can be removed if not needed for flight?

Back 782

Observer seat

Front 783

In E6B, water is supplied from a what capacity tank in the forward lower compartment?

Back 783

43-gallon

Front 784

In P8A, the engine fire extinguisher system consists of how many engine fire extinguisher bottles?

Back 784

two

Front 785

In P8A, how many portable fire extinguishers are in the fire detection and extinguishing system?

Back 785

Six

Front 786

In P8A, how many fire detector loop(s) is(are) installed in the main wheelwell?

Back 786

1

Front 787

In P8A, the DBFPS is a distributed system and consists of how many Fire Protection Control Unit (FPCU) subsystems?

Back 787

12

Front 788

In P8A, when incendiary ballistic threats and fires are detected what will command fire suppressors in the appropriate bay(s) to discharge an extinguishing agent?

Back 788

Fire Protection Control Unit (FPCU) controllers

Front 789

In P8A, how do the Fire Protection Control Unit (FPCU) controllers communicate to the fire suppressors?

Back 789

via a Suppressor Interface Unit (SIU)

Front 790

In P8A, each what monitors the integrity of the suppressor's cartridge (or squib), as well as charge pressure, and reports status to the respective controller

Back 790

Suppressor Interface Unit (SIU)

Front 791

In P8A, when one or more suppressor(s) in a bay are faulted, one or more SIU(s) in a bay are faulted, two or more OFDs (detectors) in a bay are faulted, or a pressure transducer monitoring a fire suppression tube is faulted, what happens?

Back 791

That dry bay is deemed faulted

Front 792

In P8A, what occurs when two OFDs in a particular bay or adjacent grouped bays detect a fire?

Back 792

Dry Bay Discharge (caution message)

Front 793

In P8A, optical fire detector alarms are ignored for the first 10 seconds following what?

Back 793

A bay discharge

Front 794

In P8A, what, including a 90–db warning horn, are installed on the forward facing bulk head of the Forward Comm Rack -E810?

Back 794

two central alarm panels

Front 795

In P8A, on LCS TEST/MUTE Switch, pushing what within 10 seconds of horn activation during the LAPS alarm test completes test?

Back 795

MUTE

Front 796

In P8A, the engine bleed air valves require both dc power and pneumatic pressure to open and are closed by what when either of these is not available?

Back 796

a spring

Front 797

In P8A, when activated, what automatically closes the respective engine bleed air valve?

Back 797

bleed trip sensors

Front 798

In P8A, the APU bleed air valve opens when the APU is operating with the APU BLEED air switch positioned ON and the aircraft altitude is below how many feet MSL?

Back 798

17,000 ft

Front 799

In P8A, push and hold the Wing-Body OVHT TEST switch for 5 seconds to check continuity of what?

Back 799

The sensing elements

Front 800

In P8A, air from the preconditioned ground source enters the air conditioning system through what?

Back 800

the mix manifold

Front 801

In P8A, In flight with both air conditioning PACKs in which position, both recirculation fans operate?

Back 801

AUTO

Front 802

In P8A, normal airflow, through the air conditioning PACKs, is achieved under the following conditions: Both PACKs operating with both PACK switches in what position, one PACK operating with the corresponding PACK switch in AUTO in flight with the flaps extended?

Back 802

AUTO

Front 803

In P8A, on the ground, when operating either or both air conditioning PACKs in AUTO using APU bleed air with both engine BLEED switches OFF, the operating PACKs will automatically shift to what airflow?

Back 803

high

Front 804

In P8A, the ram air system provides cooling air for what components?

Back 804

heat exchangers

Front 805

In P8A, when one air conditioning PACK overheats (e.g., a PACK trip off) or is switched OFF in flight, the other PACK (with its switch in which position) will automatically shift to High airflow?

Back 805

AUTO

Front 806

In P8A, on the ground, or during slow flight under what condition, the ram air inlet doors move to the full open position to provide maximum cooling.

Back 806

with the flaps not UP

Front 807

In P8A, flow through the cooling cycle starts with bleed air passing through what component for cooling?

Back 807

a heat exchanger

Front 808

In P8A, desired zone temperature is set by adjusting the individual temperature selectors. The selector range is approximately what?

Back 808

65 °F to 85 °F

Front 809

In P8A, The left electronic controller controls which cabin zone and provides backup control for the flight deck?

Back 809

the aft

Front 810

In P8A, any failure affecting the supply of what will cause the temperature control system to control both air conditioning PACKs independently?

Back 810

trim air

Front 811

In P8A, if all temperature selectors are positioned OFF, the air conditioning PACK controls will cause the left PACK to maintain a fixed temperature of what and the right PACK to maintain what temperature as measured at the PACK temperature sensor?

Back 811

75 °F/ 65 °F

Front 812

In P8A, in order to ensure fresh air is delivered to the flight deck, fresh air is ducted directly from where, upstream of the mix manifold to the flight deck.

Back 812

the left air conditioning PACK

Front 813

In P8A, which system reduces the air conditioning system PACK load and the engine bleed air demand?

Back 813

the recirculation fan system

Front 814

In P8A, which system cools electronic equipment in the flight deck and the E/E bay?

Back 814

the equipment cooling system

Front 815

In P8A, due to what associated with static port relocation and gauge tolerances, Cabin Differential Pressure indicates a higher pressure than the true cabin differential pressure?

Back 815

errors

Front 816

In P8A, the Cabin Differential Pressure may indicate between 8.35 psi and 8.85 psi, when operating at or above how many feet?

Back 816

37,000 ft

Front 817

In P8A, what are controlled by modulating the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve?

Back 817

pressurization and ventilation

Front 818

In P8A, two pressure relief valves provide safety pressure relief by limiting the differential pressure to a maximum of what psi?

Back 818

9.1 psi

Front 819

In P8A, cabin Pressure Controller Cabin altitude is normally rate-controlled by the cabin pressure controller up to a cabin altitude of 8,000 feet at the aircraft maximum certified ceiling of how many feet?

Back 819

41,000 feet

Front 820

In P8A, altitude warning horn sounds when cabin reaches how many feet altitude?

Back 820

10,000 feet

Front 821

In P8A, the Draw-Through system uses fans to pull conditioned air from the crew compartment through mission systems equipment cabinets located where?

Back 821

on the main deck

Front 822

In P8A, on the ground and at lower power settings, the cabin is depressurized by driving the which valve to the full open position?

Back 822

outflow

Front 823

In P8A, cabin differential pressure may indicate higher than 8.35 psi (in the yellow band) when operating above how many feet?

Back 823

37,000 ft

Front 824

In P8A, outflow valve full range of motion takes up to how long?

Back 824

20 seconds

Front 825

In P8A, COWL ANTI-ICE Lights when illuminated, indicates an over pressure condition in duct downstream of engine cowl anti-ice valve or what?

Back 825

a valve/switch disagreement

Front 826

In P8A, the de-icing is accomplished with what?

Back 826

Electromechanical Expulsive De-icing System (EMEDS)

Front 827

In P8A, upon takeoff and switching to what mode, the PYLON DE-ICE amber light should extinguish, if the system is operating normally?

Back 827

air

Front 828

In P8A, supplemental oxygen supplied at 100 percent will allow for immediate descent after decompression from maximum altitude to 10,000 feet with an aircrew of how many or enough oxygen for an aircrew of 9 to operate at a 25,000-foot cabin altitude for 3.5 hours

Back 828

21

Front 829

In P8A, system pressure,from the pressure-reducing regulator may be as high as what psi?

Back 829

1,850

Front 830

In P8A, above what cabin altitude, the regulator automatically switches to a pressure demand mode in order to maintain an appropriate level of oxygen in the body?

Back 830

35,000 ft

Front 831

In P8A, DON OXYGEN signs illuminate if cabin altitude climbs to how many feet?

Back 831

10,000

Front 832

The GGU-12/A concentrator is designed to provide a supply of breathing oxygen for two aircrewmembers’ open loop breathing schedules up to how many feet?

Back 832

50,000

Front 833

The GGU-12/A oxygen concentrator uses what and electrical power from the aircraft?

Back 833

engine bleed air

Front 834

What is the inlet pressure range of GGU-12/A?

Back 834

8-250 psig

Front 835

The GGU-12/A concentrator's pressure reducer is cut in at 50 psig inlet pressure and increases to what at 250 psig inlet pressure?

Back 835

85 +/- 5psig

Front 836

What is the operating temperature of the GGU-12/A?

Back 836

-65° to +165°F

Front 837

Planned maintenance interval for GGU-12/A concentrator shall not exceed how long?

Back 837

400 flight hours

Front 838

To reset the over-temperature indicator, on GGU-12/A concentrator, turn the black knurl knob in which direction till it stops then let go and it will re-set to all black?

Back 838

clockwise

Front 839

On GGU-12/A concentrator, ensure adjusting knob of AIR PRESSURE CONTROL (RG1) is turned counterclockwise how many turns or until spring tension is released?

Back 839

four

Front 840

During GGU-12/A Test Set Setup and Display Lamp Test, connect inlet filter assembly to a source of clean, dry air that is regulated to what?

Back 840

90 to 120 psig

Front 841

When performing 115 V Motor RPM Test on GGU-12/A concentrator, the motor valve rotates at what RPM?

Back 841

6.35

Front 842

During GGU-12/A 115 V Motor RPM Test, the number of pressure drops shall be how many?

Back 842

23 to 27

Front 843

During GGU-12/A Pressure Reducer Test, AIR/OXY PRESSURE gauge (G1) should indicate how many psig during high pressure swing?

Back 843

47.5 to 54

Front 844

While performing the Oxygen Flow Test on GGU-12/A, ensure that while concentrator is operating that the reading on INLET PRESSURE gauge (G3) does not fall below what psig?

Back 844

85

Front 845

During GGU-12/A Test Set Setup and Display Lamp Test, at no time during operation shall Shop Air Supply gauge (1) fall below what psig during the high-pressure swing?

Back 845

75

Front 846

During GGU-12/A Test Set Setup and Display Lamp Test, HEATER lamp DS3 will illuminate then extinguish in how long approximately, indicating the monitor is operating within temperature limits?

Back 846

3 minutes

Front 847

During GGU-12/A 115V Motor Valve RPM Test, there are two sudden rapid pressure drops in pressure displayed on AIR/OXY PRESSURE gauge, identified by what?

Back 847

exhaust air flowing through the muffler assembly

Front 848

During GGU-12/A Internal Leakage Test pressure drop shall not exceed what after one minute?

Back 848

3 psig

Front 849

When troubleshooting GGU-12/A Internal/external leakage exceeds 3 psig per minute or 15 psig in 5 minutes what could be the probable cause?

Back 849

Foreign material dirt, loose screws, defective preformed packing etc

Front 850

During GGU-12/A ROTARY VALVE ASSEMBLY REMOVAL if new rotary valve is installed remove what from bottom corner of rotary valve and metallic tube (rotary valve vent tube)?

Back 850

non-metallic tube

Front 851

Water trap and seat are new items and must be ordered and installed during reassembly of the what on GGU-12/A?

Back 851

inlet filter assembly

Front 852

During GGU-12/A INLET FILTER ASSEMBLY DISASSEMBLY, what components once removed and discarded, are obsolete and will not be replaced during assembly.

Back 852

the orifice and screen

Front 853

Clean all electrical contact points on GGU-12/A concentrator by lightly furbishing with what?

Back 853

a fine abrasive material

Front 854

wash all silicone rubber parts of GGU-12/A concentrator in distilled water and blow dry with what?

Back 854

oil-free nitrogen

Front 855

During cleaning of GGU-12/A remove old RTV adhesive by applying small amounts of what?

Back 855

toluene

Front 856

During cleaning of GGU-12/A concentrator remove old sealant from screws using small amounts of what?

Back 856

acetone

Front 857

To repair the strap assembly on GGU-12/A concentrator, cut one piece of nylon webbing how long?

Back 857

17 1/2 inches

Front 858

During GGU-12/A MOLECULAR SIEVE BED ASSEMBLY INSTALLATION align mounting plate assembly with what and install mounting plate assembly onto sieve beds?

Back 858

8 cut-off bolts

Front 859

During GGU-12/A SPECIAL CABLE ASSEMBLY INSTALLATION, the entire stripped end, of exposed wire ends, shall be tinned to within how many inches from the end of the insulation?

Back 859

1/16 ±1/32

Front 860

During GGU-12/A INLET FILTER ASSEMBLY INSTALLATION, clean flux residue from the soldered connections with what and brush?

Back 860

alcohol

Front 861

Prior to testing or repair of the GGU-12/A oxygen concentrator or after how many flight hours of service life, remove and replace the Inlet Filter Tube Element?

Back 861

400

Front 862

The Portable Oxygen System is supplied in one basic configuration that is composed of a how many cubic inch, high pressure oxygen cylinder, oxygen regulator, delivery hose, filler line and one way charging check valve assembly?

Back 862

96

Front 863

Supply oxygen pressure of what psig is stored in the 96 cubic inch oxygen cylinder in portable oxygen system?

Back 863

2000

Front 864

When the oxygen regulator on/ off toggle (green) is turned to the on position, inlet oxygen pressure is reduced down to what psig?

Back 864

32 to 35

Front 865

With the diluter toggle (white) in the normal position, air/oxygen dilution will occur on demand up to approximately how many feet?

Back 865

30,000

Front 866

With the diluter toggle in the 100% position, 100% oxygen will be supplied upon demand up to approximately how many feet?

Back 866

27,000

Front 867

The Portable Oxygen System regulator shall remain in service as long as repair cost does not exceed what percentage of the cost of the regulator?

Back 867

75%

Front 868

New/Refurbished cylinders received from supply must be checked for what?

Back 868

residual pressure

Front 869

Calendar Inspection shall be conducted on the Portable Oxygen System every how many days?

Back 869

448

Front 870

In P3, the ice detector is mounted where on the forward fuselage between FS 185 and FS 195.

Back 870

on the lower right side

Front 871

In P-3 the ice detector probe, which projects through the skin of the aircraft into the slipstream, consists of two channels, one channel, containing seven small holes, serves as what?

Back 871

a sensing element

Front 872

In P-3 the wing anti-icing system is a hot wing type system utilizing hot compressed air from where?

Back 872

the engines

Front 873

In P-3 the ejector manifolds (piccolo tubes) have what type venturi that mix the hot compressed bleed air with wing leading edge open area air?

Back 873

jet pump

Front 874

In P-3 four blowout doors, located in the bottom of each wing, open when wing leading edge open area pressure reaches what?

Back 874

5 psi

Front 875

In P-3 two blowout panels, one in each center section compartment service bay access door open when internal air pressure in the center section compartment reaches what?

Back 875

1.4 psi

Front 876

In P-3 directly below each engine block is an OPEN light that comes on when the bleed air valve is open how many degrees or more?

Back 876

2

Front 877

In P-3 the fuselage bleed air shutoff valve switches are normally in what position with guards?

Back 877

CLOSE

Front 878

In P-3 the LW HOT and RW HOT lights are operated by what in the plenum areas of the wing leading edge?

Back 878

sensors

Front 879

In P-3 if the ambient temperature in an area exceeds the limit, how many degrees for center and 104°C (220°F) for outboard, the light for that wing comes on?

Back 879

88°C (190°F)

Front 880

In P-3 the LE HOT light comes on when the leading edge temperature exceeds how many degrees?

Back 880

110°C (230°F)

Front 881

In P-3 how many 2-inch modulating valves are thermostatically controlled and pneumatically operated?

Back 881

Six

Front 882

In P-3 a wing leading edge thermostat controls what on the modulating valve diaphragm and thereby controls the valve opening?

Back 882

air pressure

Front 883

In P-3 the thermostats in the outboard leading edge plenum areas are set at what degree?

Back 883

63°C (145°F)

Front 884

In P-3 the wing inboard and center section thermostats are set at what degree?

Back 884

49°C (120°F)

Front 885

In P-3 the anti-icing ejector (piccolo) manifolds distribute what from the modulating anti-icing valves into the wing leading edge plenum area mixing section?

Back 885

hot air

Front 886

In P-3 when wing leading edge open area air pressure builds up to approximately what psi, the spring tension is overcome and the door opens, thus relieving wing leading edge open area air pressure overboard?

Back 886

5 psi

Front 887

In P-3 what is incorporated in both center section compartment service bay access doors, primarily to prevent structural damage in the event of a bleed air duct failure in the service bay

Back 887

a blowout panel

Front 888

In P-3 when service bay air pressure builds up to approximately what psi, the spring tension is overcome and the door opens, thus relieving service bay air pressure?

Back 888

1.4

Front 889

In P-3 the temperatures of the wing leading edge sections are displayed on what which is on the engine bleed air control panel?

Back 889

the LEAD EDGE TEMP indicator

Front 890

In P-3 when the temperature at one or more of the leading edge skin temperature sensors exceeds, what degree, relay K1 energizes, providing a ground for the LE HOT caution light circuit, causing the light to come on?

Back 890

110°C (230°F)

Front 891

In P-3 a skin (surface) temperature sensor senses temperature ranging from what to what degrees?

Back 891

–18°C (0°F) to + 175°C (350°F)

Front 892

In P-3 how many bleed air leak detection thermal switches detect dangerous temperatures in the vicinity of ducts carrying hot air?

Back 892

nine

Front 893

In P-3 the outboard bleed air leak detection thermal switches open at approximately 96°C (205°F) and close at approximately what degrees?

Back 893

104°C (220°F)

Front 894

In P-3 the bomb bay heating system, using bleed air for heat source, is designed to provide environmental control for what in the bomb bay area?

Back 894

the MK 46 torpedo

Front 895

In P-3, controls maintain bomb bay temperature above what temperature during both flight and ground operations?

Back 895

-1°C (30°F)

Front 896

In P-3 which side should one enter the bomb bay from?

Back 896

left side forward

Front 897

In P-3 hot air for the bomb bay heating system is taken from what in the bleed air system?

Back 897

right wing manifold

Front 898

In P-3 the air ejectors, one on each side of the bomb bay, mix the hot bleed air with ambient bomb bay air by what means?

Back 898

aspiration

Front 899

In P-3 which system is controlled by the three-position BOMB BAY HEAT switch on the BLEED AIR panel, and by the cycling thermostat in the bomb bay?

Back 899

Bomb bay heating system

Front 900

In P-3 the cycling thermostat is set to maintain the bomb bay minimum temperature between approximately what degrees?

Back 900

-1°C and +7°C (30°F and 44°F)

Front 901

In P-3 if the cycling thermostat fails to open the valve, the thermostat can be bypassed by setting the BOMB BAY HEAT switch to what?

Back 901

OVRD

Front 902

In P-3 what actuates the BOMB BAY COLD light if the bomb bay temperature falls below approximately -5°C (23°F).

Back 902

a thermal switch

Front 903

In P-3 if the bomb bay temperature exceeds approximately 54°C (130°F), another thermal switch actuates what light?

Back 903

BOMB BAY HOT

Front 904

In P-3 when the bomb bay system is used during flight, what must be provided?

Back 904

bleed air

Front 905

In P-3 what is not designed to supply bleed air to any aircraft systems during flight?

Back 905

APU

Front 906

In P-3 preparatory to heating the bomb bay during flight, ensure that the right fuselage bleed air shut-off valve is in what position?

Back 906

closed

Front 907

In P-3 when the bomb bay heating system air shutoff valve is open, the engine(s) supplying the bleed air experiences a total power loss of about how many hp?

Back 907

50

Front 908

In E2C, when performing operational check of fire extinguishing system, when LEFT and RIGHT ENGINE FIRE EXTINGUISHER circuit breaker engage multimeter shall read what

Back 908

zero

Front 909

In E2C during operational check of fire extinguishing system disconnect wire no. W17D16 and ground lead from terminals on what?

Back 909

left engine fire extinguisher container

Front 910

In E2C during operational check of fire extinguishing system disconnect wire no. W20D16 from terminal on what?

Back 910

right engine fire extinguisher container

Front 911

In E2C during operational check of fire extinguishing system at both fire extinguisher containers, connect what between both terminals on container?

Back 911

jumper wire

Front 912

In E2C, during operational check of fire extinguishing system, connect multimeter (set to measure what voltage) to left fire extinguisher lead, wire no. W17D16 and ground wire?

Back 912

DC

Front 913

In E2C, during operational check of fire extinguishing system, after connecting multimeter, which circuit breakers should be engaged?

Back 913

ESSENTIAL DC BUS FDR NO. 1 & FIRE EXTINGUISHER L

Front 914

In E2C, during operational check of fire extinguishing system after engaging LEFT and RIGHT ENGINE FIRE EXTINGUISHER circuit breaker what shall multimeter read?

Back 914

zero

Front 915

In E2C, during operational check of fire extinguishing system, after pressing left engine FIRE EXT PUSH switch on emergency panel in cockpit, what should multimeter read?

Back 915

28 volts

Front 916

In E2C, when troubleshooting fire extinguishing system discrepancy: TEST LAMP DOES NOT GO ON, in isolation procedure, check for 28 vdc at input side of what?

Back 916

Left engine FIRE EXT PUSH switch and FIRE EXTINGUISHER L ENG circuit breaker

Front 917

In E2C, where are the three BDHI (bearing-distance-heading indicator) located?

Back 917

Pilot and copilot's instrument panel, and in CIC compartment

Front 918

In E2C, what indicators display aircraft position in terms of distance?

Back 918

BDHI (bearing--distance--heading indicator)

Front 919

In E2C the altitude indicator provides reliable altitude information from 0 to how many feet over land and water?

Back 919

5,000

Front 920

In E2C the face of the altitude indicator has a 0-to 5,000-foot scale, a pointer, a limit bug, and a flag indicator for what?

Back 920

no-track warning

Front 921

In E2C the accuracy of the altitude indicator is what scale degree?

Back 921

+/- 0.9

Front 922

In E2C the altitude indicator pointer advances linearly over what range and, in smaller increments, from 200 to 5,000 feet?

Back 922

from 0 to 200 feet

Front 923

In E2C when does the reflected radar signal become too weak for reliable operation of the altitude indicator?

Back 923

during aircraft banks of 45_ to 60_, and during climbs or dives of 45_ to 60_ over land or water

Front 924

In E2C the tracking loop remains locked to the return pulse from the nearest terrain during altitude change rates up to how many feet per second?

Back 924

2,500

Front 925

In E2C the altimeter external range output varies from 0 to what volts, representing 0 to 5,000 feet of altitude when the altimeter is tracking?

Back 925

-40

Front 926

In E2C magnetic heading is provided, by CAINS or what?

Back 926

Heading Attitude Reference System (HARS)

Front 927

In E2C the TACAN bearing and that of the double--bar pointer of the BDHI indicator should be in agreement to within what of each other?

Back 927

2°

Front 928

In E2C a reliable TACAN signal, received from the beacon station, causes the ID-351/ARN vertical localizer OFF flag to swing into view at what position?

Back 928

12 o’clock

Front 929

In E2C the setting of the what, on the pilot’s instrument panel, determines which system drives the course indicator?

Back 929

TACAN/ ARA--63 selector switch

Front 930

In E2C the standby compass, on the center windshield brace indicates the heading of the aircraft, with reference to what?

Back 930

the earth’s magnetic field

Front 931

In E2C the standby compass is used only if what indicator fails?

Back 931

the bearing-distance-heading indicator

Front 932

In E2C a pair of magnets, attached to the compass card, aline with the earth’s magnetic field to present indications for what?

Back 932

The standby compass

Front 933

In E2C on the standby compass, the compass card is graduated in what, through 360°, and has cardinal headings indicated by N,E, S, and W?

Back 933

5° increments

Front 934

In E2C how many identical airspeed indicators show the aircraft’s speed through the airmass in which it is flying

Back 934

Three

Front 935

In E2C the airspeed indicators are what type of instruments that are actuated by the differential between impact and atmospheric pressures?

Back 935

pressure

Front 936

In E2C one side of the diaphragm, within the airspeed indicator is subjected to impact pressure; the other side to what type of pressure?

Back 936

atmospheric

Front 937

In E2C the airspeed indicator dial has a range of 40 to 400 knots, graduated in what increments?

Back 937

10- knot

Front 938

In E2C the pressure-sensitive barometric altimeter indicates the what above sea level?

Back 938

altitude (in feet)

Front 939

In E2C how many pointers are on the face of the barometric altimeter dial, indicating any altitude in a range of 0 to 50,000 feet?

Back 939

Three

Front 940

In E2C on the barometric altimeter, the shortest pointer indicates altitude in increments of 10,000 feet; the intermediate pointer, in increments of 1,000 feet; and the longest pointer, in minor increments of how many feet and major increments of 100 feet?

Back 940

20

Front 941

In E2C, on the barometric altimeter, the barometric scale ranges from what in inches of mercury?

Back 941

28.1 to 31

Front 942

In E2C, on the barometric altimeter, at altitudes of 16,000 to 17,000 feet, what is not visible?

Back 942

the striped warning area

Front 943

In E2C, servoed altimeter may be operated in which mode?

Back 943

either an electrical or pneumatic

Front 944

In E2C, the operator has the option of switching the servoed altimeter display from the electrical, to the pneumatic mode, by momentarily setting the RESET/STBY lever, on the altimeter, to which position?

Back 944

STBY

Front 945

In E2C what is the range of both servoed altimeters?

Back 945

80,000 feet

Front 946

In E2C, the two rate-of-climb (vertical velocity) indicators (one each on the pilot’s and copilot’s instrument panels), measure the rate at which the aircraft is doing what?

Back 946

changing altitude

Front 947

In E2C, graduations on the UP and DOWN portions of the rate-of-climb dial are in increments of what between 0 to 1,000 feet; and in 500--foot increments from 1,000 to 6,000 feet?

Back 947

100 feet

Front 948

In E2C the two turn and slip indicators (one each on the pilot’s and copilot’s instrument panels), are what kind of instruments that indicate the aircraft’s turn rate and turn coordination?

Back 948

direct-reading

Front 949

In E2C, The slip indicator contains fluid which does what between the ball and the tube and ensures smooth, accurate movement of the ball?

Back 949

damps out vibrations

Front 950

In E2C, when the aircraft is in level flight, the ball,on the slip indicator is centered by what means?

Back 950

its own weight

Front 951

In E2C the turn and slip indicator is so calibrated that a standard turn of 360° takes how long with one-pointer-width deflection?

Back 951

4 minutes

Front 952

In E2C, the attitude director indicators are the primary attitude reference during what phases of flight?

Back 952

all

Front 953

In E2C pitch and roll indications, on attitude director indicators are displayed by a sphere in relation to a fixed what?

Back 953

miniature aircraft symbol

Front 954

In E2C, the sphere, in the attitude director indicators is light colored above the artificial horizon bar, black below the bar and is marked in 5° pitch increments in which directions?

Back 954

both

Front 955

In E2C, primary pitch, roll, and heading information for the ADI, is from either the HARS (AN/ASN--50) or what, depending on the position of the navigation control switches?

Back 955

CAINS (AN/ASN--92(V)

Front 956

In E2C magnetic heading for the ADI (attitude director indicators) is provided via the pilot’s or copilot’s what?

Back 956

multifunction control display unit (MFCDU)

Front 957

In E2C, the cabin pressure-altitude indicator dial is graduated from 10 to 50 (feet x 1,000), in increments of how much?

Back 957

1,000

Front 958

In E2C how many precision 8-day, 12-hour clocks are installed on the pilot’s and copilot’s instrument panels?

Back 958

Two

Front 959

In E2C, how many additional 8-day, 12-hour clocks are above the three operator’s consoles in the CIC compartment?

Back 959

Three

Front 960

In E2C, what, on the pilot’s instrument panel, indicates the acceleration of the aircraft along its vertical axis?

Back 960

accelerometer

Front 961

In E2C, the accelerometer is a self-contained mechanical device operated by what?

Back 961

gravitational forces

Front 962

In E2C, Applied g-loads are indicated on a dial graduated from -5g to +/-10g, in increments of what?

Back 962

0.5g

Front 963

In E2C, in the accelerometer, acceleration is sensed by what that slides on two shafts parallel to the aircraft’s vertical axis?

Back 963

a mass

Front 964

In E2C, the deice pressure gage indicates what (during system operation) in the wing and tail deicing system, for inflating the boots on the leading edges of the wing and tail?

Back 964

the pressure available

Front 965

In E2C deice pressure gage, the gage dial is calibrated from what, in increments of 1 psi?

Back 965

0 to 20 psi

Front 966

In E2C deice pressure gage, the pressure source for the gage is regulated by what from the engine bleed system?

Back 966

air pressure

Front 967

In E2C deice pressure gage, a non operation condition is indicated by a steady reading of what on the gage?

Back 967

18 psi

Front 968

In E2C the what indicates the suction (evacuation) available for deflating the wing and tail deicer boots?

Back 968

deice suction gage

Front 969

In E2C deice suction gage, the gage dial is graduated from 0 to 10 in Hg in major increments of 1 and in minor increments of what?

Back 969

0.2

Front 970

In E2C deice suction gage, a steady reading of what on the gage, indicates that the system is not operating? Pointer fluctuation indicates that the system is operating.

Back 970

6 psi

Front 971

In E2C in the propeller de-icing monitor panel, a defective heater circuit(s) may be indicated by what advisory light going out for a period of 20 seconds or more?

Back 971

the DE-ICING ON

Front 972

In E2C on the propeller de-icing monitor panel, readings outside which area on the meter indicate malfunctioning heater circuits?

Back 972

the white

Front 973

In E2C the propeller gearbox vibration meter, forward on which side of the pilot’s console, detects and indicates abnormal vibration levels which may be present?

Back 973

left hand side

Front 974

In E2C the propeller gearbox vibration meter, displays left or right engine/propeller vibration levels in what?

Back 974

inches/second

Front 975

In E2C, provisions are made to illuminate the advisory panel legend for left or right engine vibration if the vibration level exceeds what?

Back 975

1.5 inches/second

Front 976

In E2C when the brake cycle indicator’s pointer is in the upper limit of the block segment (FULL), approximately how many brake applications are available?

Back 976

15

Front 977

In E2C when the brake cycle indicator's pointer is at the upper limit of which segment (EMER), approximately 3 brake applications are available?

Back 977

the red

Front 978

In E2C, pressure from a 3,000 psi accumulator, that is charged how, enters the tube through a fitting at the rear of the brake cycle indicator?

Back 978

with a hydraulic hand pump

Front 979

In E2C the vertical gyro indicator attitude presentation is in what degrees roll, 92°climb, and 78° dive?

Back 979

360°

Front 980

In E2C what system heats, cools, ventilates, and pressurizes the cockpit, the CIC compartment, and the aft equipment compartment?

Back 980

the air cycle system

Front 981

In E2C the air cycle system supplies hot air to the cockpit for side window defogging, and to which system for the nose Antenna Assembly AS--2881/ALR--59?

Back 981

passive detection system (PDS anti-icing system)

Front 982

In E2C the air cycle system diverts a portion of hot bleed air from the which portion (14th stage) of each engine through and around the air cycle refrigeration unit and directs the mixture of hot and cold air to the cockpit, the CIC compartment, and the aft equipment compartment?

Back 982

compressor

Front 983

In E2C air cycle system, an alternate source of air distribution is obtained from what through the ramair scoop on the right side of the fuselage, under the right wing?

Back 983

the atmosphere

Front 984

In E2C air conditioning system, how are the cockpit foot, side, and face diffusers operated?

Back 984

manually

Front 985

In E2C air conditioning system, temperatures between what degrees are maintained automatically or manually in the cabin by a temperature control circuit consisting of compartment temperature selectors and compartment and duct-sensing elements with associated flow control valves and a centralized environmental controller?

Back 985

60° and 80°F (15° and 27°C)

Front 986

In E2C air conditioning system, the high-pressure, hot bleed air from both engines flows through the bleed air shutoff valves, bleed air line pressure compensating bellows, check valves, system bleed air shutoff valve, and the bleed airflow limiter to where?

Back 986

the air cycle refrigeration unit

Front 987

In E2C air conditioning system, a portion of hot bleed air is diverted around what to the temperature control valve of the side window defogging system and PDS anti-icing system?

Back 987

the flow limiter

Front 988

In E2C air conditioning system, some of the hot air leaving the flow limiter flows into the refrigeration unit; the remainder is diverted around it and flows to the cockpit and CIC compartment what?

Back 988

temperature control valves

Front 989

In E2C air conditioning system, the hot bleed air is also diverted around the bleed air shutoff valve to where?

Back 989

the deicing system

Front 990

In E2C air conditioning system, the hot engine bleed air is initially passed through the main section of what component in the refrigeration unit?

Back 990

heat exchanger

Front 991

In E2C air conditioning system, the heat exchanger uses ram air from what on the right side of the fuselage to remove heat from the engine bleed air?

Back 991

a scoop

Front 992

In E2C air conditioning system, some of the cooled air from the heat exchanger flows into the side window defogging system; the rest of the cooled air flows to what component in the refrigeration unit?

Back 992

cooling turbine

Front 993

In E2C air conditioning system, when what switch on the cockpit TEMP CONTROL panel and/or the SYS SELECT switch on the CIC compartment CABIN TEMP control panel is set to AUTO, a dc voltage is applied through the switch to the environmental controller and the temperature is controlled automatically in the cockpit and/or CIC compartment?

Back 993

the SYSTEM SELECT

Front 994

In E2C air conditioning system, what components, each of which forms a branch of a bridge circuit, sense changes in the temperature of the incoming air?

Back 994

inlet air temperature anticipators

Front 995

In E2C air conditioning system, if the duct air temperature exceeds what, the resistance of the cockpit and CIC compartment inlet air maximum temperature limiters, each of which forms a branch of another bridge circuit, changes and unbalances the circuit?

Back 995

310°F (154°C)

Front 996

In E2C air conditioning system, cockpit and CIC compartment temperature is monitored automatically by the what?

Back 996

air temperature sensing units

Front 997

In E2C air conditioning system, with the MANUAL TEMP switch held at DEC, a dc voltage is applied through the switch to the temperature control valve to drive it toward which position?

Back 997

closed

Front 998

How many major categories can Corrosion Preventive Compounds (CPC’s) be separated into?

Back 998

2

Front 999

Which type of CPC’s can be used to remove water, sea water, or other electrolytes from metal surfaces?

Back 999

Water displacing

Front 1000

Preservation of aircraft or components during periods of prolonged inactivity, storage, or shipment is known as which type of preservation?

Back 1000

Non-operational

Front 1001

What are used to protect metal aircraft parts and components?

Back 1001

Corrosion Preventive Compounds (CPC’s)

Front 1002

Which type of CPC’s are MIL-PRF-16173, Grades 1, 2 and 4 examples of?

Back 1002

2

Front 1003

What is a water displacing CPC which forms a clear, dry, flexible film?

Back 1003

AMLGUARD

Front 1004

What is a general purpose corrosion preventive compound which can be used whenever a CPC or a water displacing compound is called for but no specification is referenced?

Back 1004

MIL-PRF-81309

Front 1005

Which type of Corrosion Preventive Compound (CPC) is intended for lubrication of hinge areas and wherever a low temperature, water displacing lubricant is required?

Back 1005

MIL-PRF-32033

Front 1006

Which type of Corrosion Preventive Compound (CPC) is intended for corrosion protection and water displacement for non-moving parts?

Back 1006

MIL-DTL-85054

Front 1007

Which type of Corrosion Preventive Compound (CPC) is intended for corrosion protection of components with moving parts requiring minimal lubrication?

Back 1007

MIL-L-87177 Grade B

Front 1008

If MIL-PRF-63460 is used in an area which will later be sealed, allow at least how many hours for the solvent to evaporate prior to sealing?

Back 1008

4

Front 1009

What contains solvents which attack rubber "O" rings and other elastomeric parts?

Back 1009

MIL-PRF-63460

Front 1010

Which type of Corrosion Preventive Compound (CPC) is intended for lubrication and short term preservation of aircraft hinges and small and large caliber weapons?

Back 1010

MIL-PRF-63460

Front 1011

Do not use corrosion preventive compounds on engine parts or accessories which exceed which temperature?

Back 1011

800°F

Front 1012

What is a thin, water displacing, protective, penetrating lubricant used for cleaning, lubrication, and preservation of aircraft hinges and small or large caliber weapons?

Back 1012

MIL-PRF-63460

Front 1013

MIL-PRF-32033 suffers a loss of viscosity at very low temperatures; therefore, it shall not be used when temperatures can drop below what?

Back 1013

-40°F

Front 1014

MIL-PRF-16173 covers how many different grades of CPCs which can be applied by brushing or dipping?

Back 1014

5

Front 1015

What is a general purpose, water displacing, lubricating oil with preservative properties, and is intended for the lubrication and preservation of aircraft components?

Back 1015

MIL-PRF-32033

Front 1016

Increased protective measures are required, particularly on critical parts and high strength steel components if the storage of assemblies or parts will exceed how many days?

Back 1016

30

Front 1017

In E2C if the air temperature in the inlet ducts leading into the cockpit and/or CIC compartment exceeds what degrees, the inlet air maximum temperature switch closes a circuit that energizes a relay in the environmental controller?

Back 1017

250°F (121°C)

Front 1018

In E2C air conditioning system, if a power failure occurs in the environmental controller the system is automatically placed in the manual mode of operation and temperature is controlled by the what switches?

Back 1018

MANUAL TEMP

Front 1019

In E2C air conditioning system, if an electrical failure occurs in the system, the shutoff valve can be opened by rotating what knob on the shutoff valve?

Back 1019

manual override

Front 1020

In E2C a bleed air check valve in where from each engine prevents bleed air from flowing from one engine to the other when either engine is not running?

Back 1020

the bleed air line

Front 1021

In E2C, the bleed air flow limiter does what to the relatively high-temperature, high-pressure air?

Back 1021

restricts the flow

Front 1022

In E2C at an aircraft altitude of what, the flow limiter passes a maximum of approximately 21.5 pounds of air per minute?

Back 1022

35,000 feet

Front 1023

In E2C the air cycle refrigeration unit reduces the temperature of engine bleed air for use in what system?

Back 1023

the air cycle system

Front 1024

In E2C air cycle refrigeration unit, the bleed air is directed through the hot air passages of what, where it is partially cooled by the transfer of heat to ram air?

Back 1024

heat exchanger core

Front 1025

In E2C air cycle refrigeration unit, partially cooled bleed air is directed to the water diverter and then to the what, where a nozzle directs the air against the blades of the turbine wheel for further cooling?

Back 1025

cooling turbine

Front 1026

In E2C air cycle refrigeration unit, a fan bypass valve thermal switch is set to open the valve at approximately what degrees and close the valve at approximately 73°F (23°C)?

Back 1026

77°F (25°C)

Front 1027

In E2C air cycle refrigeration unit, the heat exchanger uses what for cooling hot bleed air?

Back 1027

ram air

Front 1028

In E2C when the air-conditioning system is operating, the ram air valve is normally held closed by 18-psi air pressure from where?

Back 1028

deicing system

Front 1029

In E2C, operating the RAM AIR control permits how much air pressure to escape and spring tension opens the valve?

Back 1029

18-psi

Front 1030

In E2C, the centralized environmental controller is the temperature control center of the what system?

Back 1030

air-conditioning

Front 1031

In E2C the what in the cockpit inlet air duct, opposite the main door, unbalances the bridge when the duct air temperature changes?

Back 1031

temperature anticipator

Front 1032

In E2C, the CIC compartment temperature limiter is in which duct in the CIC compartment under the floor panel to the right of the main door?

Back 1032

inlet air supply duct

Front 1033

In E2C the cockpit inlet air maximum temperature limiter prevents cockpit and CIC compartment supply air temperature from exceeding what degrees?

Back 1033

310°F (154°C)

Front 1034

In E2C, during which mode of air-conditioning system operation, the inlet air temperature switches prevent cockpit and CIC compartment supply air temperature from exceeding 250°F (121°C)?

Back 1034

manual

Front 1035

In E2C, the inlet air 300°F temperature switches prevent inlet air temperature from exceeding what degrees during manual operation of the system?

Back 1035

310°F (154°C)

Front 1036

In E2C, during normal air-conditioning system operation, all the relays, except which one, are energized?

Back 1036

No.4 air/ground safety

Front 1037

In E2C fan bypass valve temp control relay is energized when what thermal switch is closed (80°F (27°C))?

Back 1037

fan bypass valve

Front 1038

In E2C, the left and right propeller feathering relays connect the feathering circuits to the system, closing what when either propeller is feathered and energizing the associated feathering relay?

Back 1038

bleed air shutoff valve

Front 1039

In E2C the side diffuser behind the copilot’s seat is restricted to what degrees rotation to prevent inlet air from being directed at the temperature sensor?

Back 1039

120°

Front 1040

In E2C overheat detection warning and shutoff valve system an overheat condition is detected by the what?

Back 1040

sensing elements

Front 1041

In E2C, when the temperature adjacent to what exceeds 310°F (154°C), as sensed by the sensing elements, the resistance of the sensing elements decreases sufficiently to complete a ground in the bleed overheat detector control unit?

Back 1041

the right engine bleed air line

Front 1042

In E2C, the pilot or copilot places the RIGHT BLEED AIR ON-OFF switch in the OFF position causing the right engine bleed air shutoff valve to shutoff in the closed position lighting the what light?

Back 1042

R BLEED AIR OFF

Front 1043

What has sole responsibility and authority to establish policy for all aircraft fire fighting programs for the Office of the Chief of Naval Operations?

Back 1043

PMA-251

Front 1044

Which type of parts are particularly susceptible to corrosion attack when exposed to salt water or fire extinguishing materials?

Back 1044

Magnesium

Front 1045

Exposure of metal surfaces to salt water, Purple-K-Powder (PKP), and what else requires immediate action to prevent serious corrosion damage?

Back 1045

Protein foam

Front 1046

Do not expose plastic items, avionic components, wiring, or other components susceptible to heat damage to temperatures in excess of what during emergency cleaning procedures?

Back 1046

130°F

Front 1047

Procedures for decontamination of aircraft exposed to chemical, biological, or radiological (CBR) materials are contained in which publication?

Back 1047

NAVAIR 00-80T-121

Front 1048

Which substance when mixed with either fresh or salt water will form a dense foam over the liquid fuel to rapidly smother and cool hydrocarbon fuel fires such as gasoline, kerosene, and diesel?

Back 1048

Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF)

Front 1049

What will extinguish most type of fires without leaving a residue and are suitable for discharge in confined spaces?

Back 1049

Halons

Front 1050

What is a rubber-like compound used in aircraft applications for its excellent resistance to heat, abrasion, and aircraft fluids?

Back 1050

Viton

Front 1051

The carbon fibers of composite materials may be released into the atmosphere if their epoxy binder burns which occurs at temperatures in excess of what?

Back 1051

600°F

Front 1052

What is the principal base chemical for Purple-K-Powder (PKP)?

Back 1052

Potassium bicarbonate

Front 1053

Which publication should be referred to for approved fire extinguishing agents usable on aircraft?

Back 1053

NAVAIR 00-80R-14

Front 1054

Which emergency reclamation team shall provide expertise and facilities for processing equipment received from operational activities?

Back 1054

Intermediate level

Front 1055

Which type of inverted foam extinguishers are not approved portable fire fighting equipment for use on or around aircraft because they are very corrosive?

Back 1055

Soda acid

Front 1056

What is a dry, non-corrosive, inert gas that is used on flammable liquids and electrical fires because it does not leave any residues which might further harm the damaged electrical equipment

Back 1056

Carbon dioxide

Front 1057

What is a fluorocarbon fire extinguishant that is electrically nonconductive, non-corrosive, free of residue, has zero ozone depletion potential (ODP), and is an environmentally approved replacement for Halon systems?

Back 1057

HFC-125

Front 1058

For emergency treatment of aircraft fuel systems contaminated with seawater through means other than water, crash, or fire damage, refer to which publication?

Back 1058

NAVAIR 01-1A-35

Front 1059

What represents Japanese words that describe the steps of a workplace organization process?

Back 1059

5S

Front 1060

Which type of equipment would bomb racks and missile launchers be considered as?

Back 1060

AAE

Front 1061

Which code is used to identify an activity for the purpose of managing the IMRL?

Back 1061

AAI

Front 1062

The action organization is the activity that actually performs the maintenance action. It is identified by a how many-character alphanumeric code?

Back 1062

3

Front 1063

What is the equipment used within the maintenance complex that contributes to the completion of the maintenance mission?

Back 1063

Aeronautical

Front 1064

Who administratively control the assignment, employment, and logistic support of certain aircraft and aircraft engine?

Back 1064

ACCs

Front 1065

Which actions are taken during wartime to maximize the availability of mission capable aircraft, through effective use of maintenance resources, to assess damage and affect repair to return the aircraft to service?

Back 1065

ABDR

Front 1066

Which type of acceptance is the acceptance of an aircraft for which certain obligations with respect to the aircraft have not yet been fulfilled by the contractor?

Back 1066

Provisional

Front 1067

Which list is used to specify requirements for shipboard equipage and lists of miscellaneous material requirements for mechanical, electrical, ordnance, or electronic system(s) in operating spaces aboard ship?

Back 1067

AEL

Front 1068

Which term is defined as the Julian date on which a maintenance form is completed by a work center?

Back 1068

Action date

Front 1069

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used for all discrepancies, which are checked and found that either the reported deficiency cannot be duplicated, or the equipment is operating within allowable tolerances?

Back 1069

A

Hint 1069

"Allowable"

Front 1070

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used for Work Request and I-level Assisting Work Center MAFs only?

Back 1070

F

Hint 1070

MAF

Front 1071

Which Action Taken (AT) code is entered to closeout MAF Copy 1 when component repair is to be performed at another facility?

Back 1071

D

Front 1072

Which Action Taken (AT) code is entered when a repairable item of material, which is identified by WUC, is repaired?

Back 1072

C

Front 1073

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used to document the repair of a fiber optic cable utilizing the fusion splicing procedure?

Back 1073

I

Front 1074

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used to document the repair of a fiber optic cable terminal?

Back 1074

H

Front 1075

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used by either O-level or D-level to account for the usage of any fiber optic spare lines within the aircraft?

Back 1075

G

Front 1076

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used when an item is calibrated and found serviceable without need for adjustment?

Back 1076

J

Hint 1076

Adjustment

Front 1077

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used when an item must be adjusted to meet calibration standards?

Back 1077

K

Front 1078

Which Action Taken (AT) code is entered when a maintenance action must be stopped or delayed while awaiting parts, which are not available locally, and a component goes into an awaiting parts status?

Back 1078

L

Hint 1078

Locally

Front 1079

Which Action Taken (AT) code is entered when an item of material is removed and only the removal is to be accounted for?

Back 1079

P

Front 1080

Which Action Taken (AT) code is entered when an item of material is removed to facilitate other maintenance and the same item is reinstalled?

Back 1080

S

Hint 1080

Same

Front 1081

Which Action Taken (AT) code is entered when an item of material is removed due to a suspected malfunction and the same or a like item is reinstalled?

Back 1081

R

Hint 1081

Reinstall

Front 1082

Which Action Taken (AT) code is entered by an organizational activity when it becomes necessary to close out a maintenance action during or at the end of a reporting period for any reason, including subsystem capability impact reporting (SCIR) change, work order (WO) close out?

Back 1082

N

Hint 1082

Necessary

Front 1083

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used when an item of material is removed and replaced as a cannibalization action?

Back 1083

T

Front 1084

Which Action Taken (AT) code is entered when an item is installed and only the installation action is to be accounted for?

Back 1084

Q

Front 1085

Which Action Taken (AT) code is used when the time expended in locating a discrepancy is great enough to warrant separating troubleshooting time from repair time?

Back 1085

Y

Front 1086

Which Action Taken (AT) code is always used when actually treating corroded items, either on equipment or in the shop?

Back 1086

Z

Front 1087

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) code will be documented when no further maintenance can be performed due to D-level repair at the reporting custodian site?

Back 1087

M1

Front 1088

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) reason code is used for lack of adequate SE, maintenance area, or utility services, such as electricity or air pressure?

Back 1088

M2

Front 1089

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) reason code is used when the workload is in excess of work center capability?

Back 1089

M3

Front 1090

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) reason code is used when performance of maintenance is precluded by weather, operational conditions, general drill, training, ceremonies, open house, shipboard or shore station-imposed restrictions, etc.?

Back 1090

M5

Front 1091

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) reason code is used when maintenance requirement exists beyond normal working hours?

Back 1091

M4

Front 1092

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) reason code will be documented when no further maintenance can be performed due to other shops or maintenance actions?

Back 1092

M8

Front 1093

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) reason code will be used when the item cannot be repaired due to a lack of support funding for required repair parts or for beyond capability of maintenance (BCM) action?

Back 1093

M9

Front 1094

Which code will be used when a maintenance task requires time for curing of an adhesive, sealant, or paint before the maintenance can continue or be completed?

Back 1094

CT

Front 1095

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) reason code is used when awaiting the return of an engine or component from the aircraft intermediate maintenance department or detachment (AIMD) during a not mission capable maintenance (NMCM) period?

Back 1095

M6

Front 1096

Which Awaiting Maintenance (AWM) reason code is used when weapon systems or equipment is unavailable for maintenance due to flight operations or equivalent?

Back 1096

M7

Front 1097

In E2C overheat detection warning and shutoff valve system, the continuity of the what and the detector control units is checked by pressing the TEST PRESS switch?

Back 1097

sensing elements

Front 1098

In E2C overheat detection warning and shutoff valve system, the TEST PRESS switch closure simulates what, causing the BLEED AIR OVHT light on the caution lights panel, the MASTER CAUTION lights, and the OVERHEAT indicator lights on the OVERHEAT DETECT BLEED AIR panel to go on, indicating that the system is functioning?

Back 1098

overheat condition

Front 1099

In E2C overheat detection warning and shutoff valve system, each element consists of a single wire insulated by what kind of element, enclosed in an inconel tube with two end fittings and protective rubber caps?

Back 1099

salt sensor

Front 1100

In E2C the bleed air overheat detection and shutoff panel includes what kinda lights that come on to indicate an overheat condition in one of the bleed air lines?

Back 1100

OVERHEAT

Front 1101

In E2C, two engine bleed air shutoff valves in the bleed air lines adjacent to the engines are what type of valves that control the flow of engine bleed air from respective engine to the air-conditioning system?

Back 1101

solenoid-operated

Front 1102

In E2C a bleed air check valve in what from each engine prevents bleed air from flowing from one engine to the other when either engine is not running?

Back 1102

the bleed air line

Front 1103

In E2C pressurization starts at an altitude of what?

Back 1103

5,000 feet

Front 1104

In E2C pressurization system, from 5,000 to how many feet, the system maintains a constant 5,000-foot-altitude pressure?

Back 1104

35,000

Front 1105

In E2C pressurization system, from 35,000 feet to maximum, the system maintains pressure at what psi above the atmospheric pressure?

Back 1105

8.8

Front 1106

In E2C how is leakage in the pressurized areas prevented?

Back 1106

by the inflatable seal system

Front 1107

In E2C if the outflow regulator fails, the safety valve opens automatically when the cabin pressure differential exceeds what psi?

Back 1107

9.5

Front 1108

In E2C cabin pressurization system, when ram air is introduced into the system, the ducting negative pressure relief valve adjusts cabin pressure to what?

Back 1108

ambient pressure

Front 1109

In E2C cabin pressurization system, how is pressure maintained?

Back 1109

by the cabin pressure outflow regulator

Front 1110

In E2C cabin pressurization system, when which relay is energized (weight on wheels), the cabin pressure shutoff valve and the cabin pressure safety valve open and pressure is then dumped?

Back 1110

No. 4 air/ ground safety

Front 1111

In E2C the cabin pressure outflow regulator controls cabin pressure by doing what?

Back 1111

regulating airflow out of the cabin

Front 1112

In E2C the cabin pressure safety valve discharges excess air to the atmosphere to prevent what of the cabin?

Back 1112

over pressurization

Front 1113

In E2C the cabin pressure shutoff valves are used in conjunction with what and the cabin pressure outflow regulator?

Back 1113

the cabin pressure safety valve

Front 1114

In E2C the cabin pressure warning light aneroid switch senses what?

Back 1114

a low-pressure condition

Front 1115

In E2C the cabin pressure warning light aneroid switch is actuated by what and closes a circuit to cause the CABIN PRESS lights on the caution lights panel to go on?

Back 1115

a diaphragm

Front 1116

In E2C the cabin pressure check valves interconnect which line and the ambient static source?

Back 1116

vacuum supply

Front 1117

In E2C the cabin pressure dump (CABIN PRESS DUMP) switch overrides the pressure controls of the cabin pressurization system to do what?

Back 1117

release cabin pressure

Front 1118

In E2C side window defogging system the temperature sensor, maximum temperature switch, temperature control valve, and temperature controller automatically maintain the defogging air supply at what degree?

Back 1118

220°F (104°C)

Front 1119

In E2C the side window defogging system is turned on by clockwise rotation of which switch when the DE-FOG SIDE WINDOWS-NOSE ANTI-ICE switch is placed in the DE-FOG SIDE WINDOWS position?

Back 1119

DE-FOG TEMP CONT

Front 1120

In E2C when power is applied to the temperature controller, the defogging air temperature is automatically maintained at 220°F (104°C) by what in the temperature controller?

Back 1120

a bridge circuit

Front 1121

In E2C when the defogging air temperature drops below 250°F (121°C) and the maximum temperature switch opens, the pressure regulator and temperature control valve can be opened by rotating the DE-FOG TEMP CONT switch momentarily counterclockwise to what position?

Back 1121

OFF-RESET

Front 1122

In E2C if the temperature in what exceeds 250°F (121°C), the mercury in the bulb completes the relay coil circuit, in the side window defogging maximum temperature switch, to energize the relay?

Back 1122

the defog duct

Front 1123

In E2C side window defogging temperature control valve controls the flow of bleed air used to maintain the required surface temperature for what?

Back 1123

windshield defogging

Front 1124

In E2C the PDS anti-icing system uses a mixture of direct engine bleed air and engine bleed air that has been cooled to keep ice from forming on what in the nose cap?

Back 1124

the antenna assembly

Front 1125

In E2C the PDS anti-ice pressure regulator solenoid valve and the temperature control valve open to permit what type of air to flow through the system ducts to the nose cap?

Back 1125

warm

Front 1126

In E2C when power is applied to the temperature controller, the PDS anti-icing air temperature is automatically maintained at what degree by a bridge circuit in the temperature controller?

Back 1126

220°F (104°C)

Front 1127

In E2C the PDS anti-ice pressure regulator opens when its solenoid is energized by 28Vdc and permits air to flow to the what?

Back 1127

PDS anti-icing system

Front 1128

In E2C the deicing system is pneumatically operated and controlled how?

Back 1128

electrically

Front 1129

In E2C the deicing system removes accumulated ice from the leading edges of the wings, stabilizers, and fins by inflating and deflating what bonded to the leading edges?

Back 1129

rubber deicer boots

Front 1130

In E2C the electronic timer controls three distributor valves that apply how much air pressure to inflate the boots, and suction (6 in. Hg) to deflate the boots

Back 1130

(18 psi)

Front 1131

In E2C suction provided by the ejector is regulated?

Back 1131

by the suction relief valve

Front 1132

In E2C when the WING TAIL switch is set to ON, what is energized?

Back 1132

the electronic timer

Front 1133

In E2C the electronic timer energizes the distributor valves in sequence to apply air pressure and then suction to what?

Back 1133

the deicer boots

Front 1134

In E2C each group of deice boots is inflated for how long; 10 seconds after deflation starts, the succeeding group starts to inflate?

Back 1134

5 seconds

Front 1135

In E2C, the total time to complete the inflation cycle for the four deice boot groups is how long?

Back 1135

60 seconds

Front 1136

In E2C deice system, at the beginning of each inflation and deflation period of the deice boots, the pressure and suction gages indicate what in pressure and suction, respectively indicating normal system operation?

Back 1136

a momentary drop

Front 1137

In E2C th electronic timer controls the sequence, in which the deicer boots are inflated and deflated, by energizing and de−energizing the solenoids of what?

Back 1137

the distributor valves

Front 1138

In E2C the wing boots are controlled by the what in the leading edge of the outer panel of each wing?

Back 1138

distributor valve

Front 1139

In E2C deicing system, the suction port is connected to the main suction line, making approximately how much suction available at all times in the distributor valve?

Back 1139

4 in. Hg

Front 1140

Which delivery procedure eliminates the requirement for configuration verification during acceptance inspection when received from the factory?

Back 1140

JSF

Front 1141

What shall be used to establish a formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material installed on or designated for use on any aircraft of a specified T/M/S?

Back 1141

AIRs

Front 1142

What is the primary means of recording aircraft status changes?

Back 1142

XRAY

Front 1143

In E2C the pressure regulator and relief valve consists essentially of two bodies. One body regulates pressure, while the other is a relief valve to prevent what?

Back 1143

excessive pressure buildup

Front 1144

In E2C deicing system, what is the pressure source for the pressure gage?

Back 1144

pressure manifold

Front 1145

Movement of the SAFE/ ARMED handle is who's responsibility?

Back 1145

aircrew member

Front 1146

Safe escape is provided for most combinations of aircraft altitude, speed to a maximum speed of 600 KEAS between zero altitude and how many feet?

Back 1146

50,000 feet

Front 1147

After ejection, drogue deployment, man/seat separation and parachute deployment are automatically controlled by what?

Back 1147

electronic sequencer

Front 1148

What sustains the thrust of the catapult to carry the seat to a height sufficient to enable the parachute to deploy?

Back 1148

Underseat rocket motor

Front 1149

In SJU-17, after approximately how many inches of travel, the piston head strikes the guide bush and shears the three dowel screws?

Back 1149

38 inches

Front 1150

What accepts and locates the top of the catapult and takes the full thrust of the catapult during ejection?

Back 1150

The top cross beam

Front 1151

The drogue and canister assembly comprises a what diameter ribbon drogue?

Back 1151

57 inch (1.45m)

Front 1152

In SJU-17 the drogue is an Irvin T108-2, 57 inches (1.45m) diameter 20 deg conical ribbon drogue attached, at the confluence of the rigging lines, to what?

Back 1152

a drogue strop

Front 1153

What enables the parachute to deploy and develop rapidly without becoming entangled in the seat?

Back 1153

The parachute deployment rocket motor (PDRM)

Front 1154

In SJU-17, the functions of the what are to measure altitude and airspeed at the moment of ejection, to identify the correct recovery sequence and to provide the necessary output signals to enable the recovery sequence to be implemented?

Back 1154

electronic sequencer

Front 1155

In SJU-17, what supplies power for sequencer operation?

Back 1155

Two thermal batteries

Front 1156

In SJU-17, when deployed, the pitot head assemblies supply dynamic pressure inputs to what?

Back 1156

the electronic sequencer

Front 1157

In SJU-17, during ejection, what supplies a start signal to the sequencer at the correct time in the sequence?

Back 1157

the start switches

Front 1158

In SJU-17, during the ejection sequence, the multipurpose initiators (IMPs) supply what to operate the barostatic release unit delay mechanism, the underseat rocket motor, the pitot deployment mechanisms and the internally mounted start switch assemblies?

Back 1158

gas pressure

Front 1159

In SJU-17, the barostatic release unit (BRU) which is normally initiated by what, to supply gas pressure to release the upper and lower harness locks and fire the secondary cartridge in the parachute deployment rocket motor?

Back 1159

the sequencer

Front 1160

In SJU-17, what type of Underseat Rocket Motors are installed under the seat bucket is secured to the side plates by nuts and bolts?

Back 1160

MK 123 MOD 0 (forward seat) or MK 124 MOD 0 (aft seat)

Front 1161

In SJU-17, the backpad has three positions, fully forward, middle and fully aft which give a total forward/aft adjustment of how long?

Back 1161

1.6 inches

Front 1162

In SJU-17, doing what withdraws the handle from its housing and both sears from the seat initiator firing mechanisms to fire both impulse cartridges?

Back 1162

Pulling the ejection control handle

Front 1163

In SJU-17, in the event of partial or total sequencer failure, no action by the occupant is normally necessary as how long after ejection initiation mechanical initiation of the barostatic release unit cartridge will operate those mechanisms necessary to effect deployment of the personnel parachute and separation of the occupant from the seat?

Back 1163

4 seconds

Front 1164

In SJU-17, if the parachute deployment rocket motor fails to fire, what will operate those mechanisms necessary to effect deployment of the personnel parachute and separation of the occupant from the seat?

Back 1164

the barostatic release unit

Front 1165

In SJU-17, the maximum duty cycle, of the electric motor is 1 minute in how long of a period?

Back 1165

8 minute

Front 1166

In SJU-17, each leg restraint line consists of two lengths of blue nylon tubular braid, one approximately 6 inches (150mm) long, the other approximately how long, joined together by a special break ring?

Back 1166

38 inches (965mm)

Front 1167

In SJU-17, the parachute assembly comprises a how long diameter GQ Type 5000 personnel parachute packed into a rigid container and connected to the parachute risers?

Back 1167

21 feet (6.5m)

Front 1168

In SJU-17, how does the parachute canopy emerge from the bag, followed progressively by the remainder of the canopy?

Back 1168

periphery first

Front 1169

Which type of entry provides for a consolidated accounting of Technical Directives (TDs) when the equipment is new and upon completion of each standard rework or first-degree engine repair?

Back 1169

Block

Front 1170

What is designed to let the Supply and Maintenance personnel identify and order replacement parts for the aircraft or equipment?

Back 1170

IPB

Front 1171

What provides Configuration Management Auto Log Set (CM ALS) Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) equipment identification, monthly compilation of significant flight operational data, usage parameters, and accumulative usage data throughout the service life of the equipment?

Back 1171

EOR

Front 1172

Aircraft/Equipment Configuration Management (CM) Auto Log-Set (ALS) may be purged after how many years from the completed action/entry date from the last recorded flight?

Back 1172

2

Front 1173

What is the torque required to start nut or bolt rotation from a fixed position during a removal cycle without any axial load on the base of the nut/bolt?

Back 1173

Minimum breakaway torque

Front 1174

In SJU-17, what is used as a corrosion preventative for all movable bright metal parts?

Back 1174

MIL-PRF-81322 or AMS-G-4343

Front 1175

Do not use what to clean or remove light corrosion from cadmium plated parts on SJU-17?

Back 1175

abrasive cloth or mat

Front 1176

In SJU-17, minor corrosion will be evident as discoloration of the plated surface with color ranging from what?

Back 1176

light gray to black

Front 1177

In SJU-17, the appearance of what (unless extremely minor) shall be cause for part replacement?

Back 1177

red rust

Front 1178

In SJU-17 during aluminum forgings/castings, material removal shall not exceed what inch depth?

Back 1178

0.003

Front 1179

In SJU-17 minor indentations on retaining nut diaphragm are acceptable, but what shall be cause for replacement of retaining nut?

Back 1179

piercing of diaphragm

Front 1180

In SJU-17 during BRU removal, check that torque is what on bolt and nut? BRU could fail to fire if nut/bolt are over torqued.

Back 1180

13-17 in-lbs

Front 1181

During SJU-17 barostatic release unit altitude test ensure that the TATS has been prepared for use IAW what, WP004 00?

Back 1181

NAVAIR 17‐1‐133

Front 1182

During SJU-17 barostatic release unit altitude test TATS altitude test results should be what?

Back 1182

14,000 to 16,000 feet

Front 1183

During SJU-17 barostatic release unit altitude test troubleshooting, and operating attitude is outside limits, a probable cause is what is improperly aligned? The remedy is to ensure laser/rack pin are properly installed/aligned.

Back 1183

TATS laser Bean/Rack pin

Front 1184

During SJU-17 barostatic release unit altitude test make sure end of what is flush with or below the BRU body?

Back 1184

release piston

Front 1185

During SJU-17 barostatic release unit altitude test TATS BRU time delay test results should be what?

Back 1185

3.50 to 4.25 seconds

Front 1186

During arming of SJU-17 barostatic release unit, all occurrences of what shall be reported in accordance with NAVSEA OP 4 Vol 1 or NAVSEA OP 5 Vol 1 as applicable?

Back 1186

residual voltage

Front 1187

In SJU-17 to ensure correct locking of barostatic release unit electrical connectors, ensure what are visible through holes in outer shells of connectors?

Back 1187

bayonet pins

Front 1188

In F18a/c, to prevent damage to canopy side fairings, weight of canopy must be supported on what and canopy corner fittings?

Back 1188

canopy control cams

Front 1189

In F18A/C to prevent damage to emergency escape disconnect, what must be held stationary when removing TLX?

Back 1189

adapter of disconnect

Front 1190

In F18A/C to prevent death, injury or damage to equipment caused by escape system failure, what must be disconnected from emergency escape disconnect before installing canopy braces?

Back 1190

thin layer explosive (TLX)

Front 1191

In F18a/c aircraft seat oxygen survival kit SKU-10/A, a how big emergency oxygen cylinder, a pressure reducer and associated pipework are mounted on the underside of the platform?

Back 1191

100 cubic inch

Front 1192

In F18A/C Sea Water Activated Release System (SEAWARS) is made up of how many releases mounted outboard of the quick release fittings connected on the parachute risers?

Back 1192

two

Front 1193

In F18a/c when the ejection seat rocket motor ignites, what separates from the catapult?

Back 1193

the catapult inner piston

Front 1194

In F18a/c on dual seat configuration, which seat will leave the aircraft first?

Back 1194

the rear

Front 1195

In F18a/c, the drogue deployment catapult cartridge fires after a how many second delay, propelling the drogue deployment telescopic piston upwards, forcing the drogue assembly away from the seat?

Back 1195

0.22

Front 1196

In F18a/c what provides the joint helmet mounted cueing system (JHMCS) with a reference of seat position, which is needed to compensate for distortion of the magnetic field used by the JHMCS to compute helmet position?

Back 1196

Seat position sensor

Front 1197

In F18a/c the seat caution mode switch remains in which position without pin installed?

Back 1197

NORM

Front 1198

In F18a/c the lower face of the ballistic manifold has how many connectors?

Back 1198

4

Front 1199

In F18a/c which aircraft seat parachute is a 20 foot personnel parachute packed, together with a ribbon drogue, into a rigid container and connected to the parachute risers?

Back 1199

A/P28S-32

Front 1200

In F-18A/C how many connectors does the lower face of the RH ballistic manifold have?

Back 1200

4

Front 1201

in F-18A/C the parachute canopy incorporates a crown bridle, at the apex of which is attached, via a short strop, a how long ribbon drogue?

Back 1201

60 inch

Front 1202

In F-18A/C, full (aft) rotation of the Emergency Restraint Release (MOR) Handle, to actuate the manual override initiator firing mechanism, is prevented by what?

Back 1202

pin puller

Front 1203

What ensures that the occupant will be brought to, and locked in, the correct posture for ejection?

Back 1203

Powered Inertia Retraction Device (PIRD)

Front 1204

What system provides for canopy jettison and ejection of seats in correct sequence?

Back 1204

emergency escape sequencing system

Front 1205

In F-18A/C explosive stimulus traveling across the path between INPUT B and OUTPUT B SMDC booster tips, after how many seconds delay, activates the IFF switch and fires the cockpit SMDC to gas initiator?

Back 1205

0.70

Front 1206

In F-18A/C, the pin puller piston is held in the operated position by what?

Back 1206

residual gas pressure

Front 1207

Full rotation of the emergency restraint release (MOR) handle to withdraw the sear of the firing unit is prevented by what engaging the rear end of the slot in the emergency restraint release operating link.

Back 1207

pin puller

Front 1208

In F18A/C ejection seat firing sequence is operated by what and SMDC explosive stimulus traveling through the system?

Back 1208

ballistic gas pressure

Front 1209

In F18A/C RH multi purpose initiator when the altitude is below what, the rack assembly will rise under the action of its spring, the rate of ascent being governed by the delay mechanism?

Back 1209

15,000 +/- 1,000 feet

Front 1210

In F18A/C catapult, after approximately how many inches of travel, the piston head contacts the guide bushing and shears the three dowel screws?

Back 1210

38

Front 1211

In F18A/C the negative-G strap is webbing passed through an arrowhead lug and a plain lug and stitched to form a quadruple thickness strap approximately how long with a lug at each end?

Back 1211

8 inches

Front 1212

In F-18A/C during ejection, what supplies a start signal to the sequencer at the correct time in the sequence?

Back 1212

the start switches

Front 1213

In F-18A/C the leg restraint lines include a predetermined value (approx. how many lbs)

Back 1213

900

Front 1214

In F18A/C when deployed, the pitot head assemblies supply dynamic pressure inputs to what?

Back 1214

Electronic sequencer

Front 1215

In F18-A/C the SAFE/ARMED handle in the up position prevents accidental actuation of the ejection seat initiator by positioning linkage to interfere with the removal of what?

Back 1215

the sears

Front 1216

In F18-A/C the drogue and canister assembly comprises a 57 inch diameter ribbon drogue, pressure packed into a how long light alloy cylinder, closed at the upper end?

Back 1216

8.25 inch

Front 1217

The F18-A/C fire detection system is made up of what fire detection elements, the fire detection control unit, and the FIRE warning lights?

Back 1217

loop A and loop B

Front 1218

In F18-A/C which detection element loop are in the: APU bay, R and L AMAD bays, R and L forward engine bays, and R and L aft engine bays?

Back 1218

loop A

Front 1219

In F18-A/C which detection elements are in the APU bay, R and L AMAD bays, and the R and L aft engine bays?

Back 1219

loop B

Front 1220

In F18-A/C DFIRS records the activation of the what in the DFIRS Signal Data Recorder?

Back 1220

FIRE lights

Front 1221

In F18-A/C the APU and AMAD detection elements respond to an average temperature of 475 degrees F (246.1 degrees C) or a discrete temperature of what?

Back 1221

1000 degrees F (537.8 degrees C)

Front 1222

In F-18A/C each fire detection element is made up of a gas filled tube attached to what?

Back 1222

a responder unit

Front 1223

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test, audible flow of nitrogen through regulator or rapid decrease in system pressure with nitrogen source removed indicates what and must be corrected before doing timed pressure drop test?

Back 1223

massive system leak

Front 1224

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test, slowly increase pressure on purging unit or nitrogen cylinder by turning pressure regulator valve clockwise until the OBOGS leakage test adapter set pressure gauge assembly, pressure gage indicates what?

Back 1224

80 +/- 4 psi

Front 1225

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test, if testing as a result of an inflight OBOGS DEGD caution, inspect what and regulator assembly B-nuts for tightness?

Back 1225

aircrew oxygen hose

Front 1226

The Aircraft Oxygen System Test Set contains what which can be damaged if special handling techniques are not used?

Back 1226

electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD)

Front 1227

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test, to prevent thermal failure of Oxygen Concentrator, OBOGS control switch must be set to what as soon as possible after removing external air supply?

Back 1227

OFF

Front 1228

In F18-A/C, the on-board oxygen generating system (OBOGS) requires how long to stabilize?

Back 1228

6 minutes

Front 1229

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test, after Oxygen Monitor pneumatic BIT button is pressed, OBOGS DEGD caution should be displayed on LDDI, MASTER CAUTION light comes on and aural warning tone sounds in headset(s) within how long?

Back 1229

65 seconds

Front 1230

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test, after setting LOW FLOW/ HIGH FLOW S5 switch to HIGH FLOW, OEAS PRESSURE G1 gage pressure should cycle how?

Back 1230

12 times per minute in 5.0 to 10 psig range

Front 1231

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test after pressing and releasing Oxygen Monitor electronic BIT button, OBOGS DEGD caution is displayed on LDDI, MASTER CAUTION light comes on, and warning tone sounds in headset(s) within how long, and OBOGS DEGD caution on LDDI goes off within 20 seconds?

Back 1231

10 seconds

Front 1232

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test initial startup or operation below what degrees, ambient temperature TEST MONITOR HEATER ON lights will be on?

Back 1232

40 degrees F

Front 1233

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test, to prevent possible damage to the Environmental Control System (ECS), do not pressurize the system over what?

Back 1233

50 psig

Front 1234

During F18-A/C OBOGS system test, for adapter assembly to function correctly filter must be in which position with filter manual drain slightly open to dispose of accumulated water?

Back 1234

vertical position

Front 1235

In F18-A/C the canopy unlatch thruster, mounter where, provides an attaching point for the connecting link and canopy?

Back 1235

on the canopy deck

Front 1236

In F18-A/C the water spray manifold assembly has how many spray nozzles that spray a mist of water on the forward surface of the secondary heat exchanger for cooling?

Back 1236

three

Front 1237

In F18-A/C the water spray nozzle, located where, sprays a mist on the forward surface of the secondary heat exchanger?

Back 1237

secondary heat exchanger ram air inlet duct

Front 1238

In F18-A/C moisture laden air from where enters the water extractor and is given a swirling motion by the helix?

Back 1238

the condenser/reheater heat exchanger

Front 1239

In F18-A/C the turbine protective temperature sensor is a what kind of thermostat, which contains a fluid filled sensing element and a ball metering valve?

Back 1239

pneumatic bleed off

Front 1240

In F18A/C, which end of the turbine/compressor assembly recieves partly conditioned air from the system flow modulating pressure regulator valve, where it is compressed to approximately double its inlet pressure?

Back 1240

Compressor

Front 1241

In F18A/C the compressor protective temperature sensor is located in the compressor inlet duct of the turbine/compressor assembly and vents what to throttle the system flow modulating pressure regulator valve, if airflow temperature exceeds the sensor set point?

Back 1241

Control pressure

Front 1242

In F18A/C, the air cycle air conditioning system conditions engine bleed air to satisfy cockpit and avionics environmental control requirements and to pressurize what?

Back 1242

Aircraft fuel system

Front 1243

In F18A/C air cycle air conditioning system, the cold dry air leaving the turbine is mixed with warm air from what to control temperature?

Back 1243

Anti-ice add heat valve

Front 1244

In F18A/C which valve, when opened allows water to be sprayed through the water spray nozzle on the forward surface of the secondary heat exchanger?

Back 1244

Water spray shutoff valve

Front 1245

In F18A/C the shutoff solenoid, in the system flow modulating press regulator, is controlled by what, which allows the valve to be opened or closed by controlling actuator head pressure?

Back 1245

ECS mode switch

Front 1246

In F18A/C the heat exchanger ejector ejects bleed air into the ram air exit duct of the secondary heat exchanger for what?

Back 1246

Low speed and ground operation

Front 1247

In F18A/C at speeds below how many knots, the ADC provides a ground for the secondary ejector control relay to remove power from the valve solenoid, allowing differential pressure to hold the valve open?

Back 1247

165 knots

Front 1248

In F18A/C the windshield anti-ice /rain removal switch allows the primary ejector valve to remain open at airspeeds above how many knots and reduces air temperature to the windshield anti-ice and rain removal system?

Back 1248

130 knots

Front 1249

In F18A/C if the upstream pressure is less than how much and the differential delta P is less than 10 psig, the avionics ram air servo allows the avionics ram air valve to open?

Back 1249

35 psig

Front 1250

In F18A/C what is used to control the flow of bleed air to the primary heat exchanger ejector in the primary heat exchanger ram air exit duct?

Back 1250

Primary ejector valve

Front 1251

In F18A/C the primary ejector valve remains open at airspeeds above how many knots if the WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE/ RAIN removal switch is set to ANTI-ICE?

Back 1251

130 knots

Front 1252

In F18A/C to leak test ECS test port (XVI), start APU and operate in what mode? Verify no airflow leakage at ECS test port.

Back 1252

ECS mode

Front 1253

In F18A/C the anti-ice add heat valve is controlled by the ACS temperature/flow controller and differential pressure sensed across what?

Back 1253

condenser/reheater heat exchanger

Front 1254

In F18A/C the oxygen plenum is an inline aluminum storage cylinder with a capacity of what?

Back 1254

97.7 cubic inches

Front 1255

In F18A/C if the compressor outlet temperature exceeds what the controller will provide command signals to the system flow modulating pressure regulator to throttle system flow to within a temperature control range that prevents turbine/compressor overheat and possible failure?

Back 1255

650° F (343° C)

Front 1256

Which program uses training model managers to provide systematic review and evaluation of all phases of instruction for assigned weapon systems?

Back 1256

AMT

Front 1257

What is the official statement of billets, personnel, and training input and resource requirements to support the introduction and operational use of aircraft, systems, subsystems, equipment, and other developments, including non-hardware related developments?

Back 1257

NTSP

Front 1258

Which system is the single authoritative source for manpower data?

Back 1258

TFMMS

Front 1259

Which information technology system must be used to document corrective and preventive actions?

Back 1259

eCAM

Front 1260

What within quality assurance workbench (QAWB) NAVAIR Depot Maintenance System (NDMS) business processes document internal product deficiencies?

Back 1260

DWOs

Front 1261

In F18-A/C the bleed air leak detection (BALD) system is made up of a bleed air leak detection warning system control unit and how many sensing elements used to detect hot air leaks around clamps, boots, ducts and valves of the bleed air system and some components of the air cycle air conditioning system?

Back 1261

11

Front 1262

In F18-A/C BALD system, the pressure actuated integrity switch actuates (opens) if the inert gas has done what from the sensing element, making the element inoperative?

Back 1262

escaped from

Front 1263

In F18-A/C when a sensing element detects an overheat, the nose wheelwell DDI displays which maintenance code?

Back 1263

831

Front 1264

In F18-A/C BALD system, which messages tell the pilot when the primary regulators are closed?

Back 1264

L BLD OFF and/or R BLD OFF

Front 1265

In F18-A/C BALD system, how many indicators on the control unit identify a sensing circuit that is reporting an alarm (leak) or failing the system built-in test?

Back 1265

seven

Front 1266

In F18A/C the cabin/defog ram air solenoid is controlled how, and when energized shuts off air pressure to the cabin/defog ram air control valve?

Back 1266

Electrically

Front 1267

In F18A/C the cabin/defog plenum distribution cable assembly connects what with the cabin/defog plenum distribution valve?

Back 1267

defog control assembly

Front 1268

In F18A/C, which valve closes when air pressure is applied to the Cabin/defog system?

Back 1268

Cabin/defog automatic drain valve

Front 1269

In F18A/C the control handle on the cockpit mounted panel (right console) adjusts what to control the flow of windshield defog and cabin cooling air?

Back 1269

The cabin/defog plenum distribution valve

Front 1270

In F18-A/C when which switch is set in the RAM/DUMP position, the cabin/defog ram air solenoid is energized to open the cabin/defog ram air inlet door assembly?

Back 1270

cabin press switch

Front 1271

In F18-A/C cabin/defog system, depending on the mode of operation the cabin flow valve modulates in response to torque motor control inputs to limit what to the cockpit?

Back 1271

cooling airflow

Front 1272

In F18A/C when ECS MODE is in which position, airflow to the cockpit is maintained and limited to a preset rate and makes cabin add heat valve position adjustments, as required, to maintain a constant cabin temperature?

Back 1272

AUTO

Front 1273

In F18-E/F air cycle air conditioning system, the auxiliary air inlet doors are controlled by what but are forced closed on the ground when the BLEED AIR switch is OFF independent of the ECS temperature/flow controller?

Back 1273

ECS temperature/flow controller

Front 1274

In F18-E/F air cycle air conditioning system, to prevent a turbine overheat, the water extractor bypass valve will not be commanded in what position if the controller senses the secondary heat exchanger bypass valve is open or the system flow modulating pressure regulator valve has failed?

Back 1274

Open

Front 1275

In F18-E/F air cycle air conditioning system, if pressure within the reheater exchanger exceeds what psig, the bypass relief valve opens allowing airflow to bypass the reheater and condenser heat exchanger and flow directly to the water extractor?

Back 1275

14.5

Front 1276

In F18-E/F, ECS refrigeration components along with what from the warm air system make up the air cycle air conditioning system (ACS)?

Back 1276

The primary heat exchanger

Front 1277

In F18-E/F air cycle air conditioning system, with ECS switch in which position, the system flow modulating pressure regulator valve goes to the spring loaded full open position, applying airflow to the cockpit and avionics?

Back 1277

MAN

Front 1278

In F18-E/F air cycle air conditioning system, with ECS MODE switch in which position the system flow modulating pressure regulator is driven full closed, stopping all airflow to the ACS turbine/compressor?

Back 1278

OFF/RAM

Front 1279

In F18-E/F air cycle air conditioning system, servo air moisture separation mode provides what to prevent damage to valve actuators from freezing condensation?

Back 1279

warm dry air

Front 1280

In F18-E/F air cycle air conditioning system, what advisory message is persistent when the auxiliary air inlet doors are not in the commanded position?

Back 1280

ECSDR

Front 1281

In F18-E/F how many LED indicators on the BALD control unit identify the BALD alarm circuit reporting a leak or BALD alarm circuit failing BIT?

Back 1281

seven

Front 1282

In F18-E/F which switch initiates the bleed air leak detection system integrity test?

Back 1282

FIRE test switch

Front 1283

In F18-E/F bleed air leak detection (BALD) system,what detect hot air leaks around clamps, boots, ducts and valves in the bleed air system?

Back 1283

sensing elements

Front 1284

In F18-E/F BALD system, if the simulated leak is not detected by the BALD control unit, which MSP code, will be set?

Back 1284

952, BALD control unit fail

Front 1285

In F18-G cabin/defog system, if a cabin over-temperature condition exists, between what degrees, the cabin overtemp protection switch will close the cabin add heat valve?

Back 1285

175 to 205°F (79 to 95°C)

Front 1286

In F18-G cabin/defog system on the ground if the AEA PRECOOL switch is set to ON, the cabin flow valve is driven to which position to allow maximum air flow to the AEA pallet bay for cooling?

Back 1286

Fully closed

Front 1287

In F18-E/F cabin/defog system when ECS MODE switch is in MAN warm air manifold temperature downstream of the cabin add heat valve is controlled to what degree?

Back 1287

170°F (76°C)

Front 1288

In F18-G what is required when ambient conditions cause the AEA electronics components in the AEA pallet bay to exceed their operational limits?

Back 1288

AEA ground cooling

Front 1289

In F18-E/F cabin/defog system, cabin supply air temperature is increased about how many degrees to improve canopy defogging when the cockpit DEFOG control is set to HIGH?

Back 1289

40°F (22.2 °C)

Front 1290

In F18-E/F cabin pressurization system, differential operation begins at approximately how many feet?

Back 1290

24,000

Front 1291

In F18-E/F when control cabin pressure rises what psid above atmosphere, the differential metering valve opens?

Back 1291

5.3

Front 1292

In F18-E/F cabin air pressure regulator, in which position does no cabin air exit through the valve? In this position, the cabin can be pressurized and operation of cabin air pressure safety valve can be verified.

Back 1292

TEST ONLY ALL OFF

Front 1293

In F/A-18EF, the cockpit pressure warning system uses a cockpit installed absolute pressure switch to provide a what color caution light indication, CABIN, if cockpit pressure altitude exceeds a nominal 21,000 ft?

Back 1293

yellow

Front 1294

In F18-E/F cabin pressurization system, large supply surges are usually caused by excessive fluctuation where, or failures in the primary bleed air pressure regulators?

Back 1294

bleed air source (engines)

Front 1295

In F18-E/F the cabin air pressure safety valve will open when negative pressure, in the cabin, exceeds what psid?

Back 1295

0.3

Front 1296

In F18-E/F cabin pressurization system, the altimeter indicates cabin pressure from 0 to what?

Back 1296

50,000

Front 1297

In EA-18G cabin pressurization system, when airborn, the sealed crew station is pressurized by conditioned air from what system?

Back 1297

cabin cooling and defog

Front 1298

In F/A-18E the canopy actuator manual drive unit is turned how many turns clockwise to close the canopy or open?

Back 1298

69 to 71 turns

Front 1299

In F/A-18F, EA-18G the canopy actuator manual drive unit handle is turned how many turns clockwise to close the canopy or open it?

Back 1299

222 to 226 turns

Front 1300

In F/A-18E/F where is the external canopy control switch located?

Back 1300

Door 9

Front 1301

In F/A-18F and EA-18G, using the external manual drive receptacle, a 3/8 inch drive tool is inserted into the drive receptacle and turned how many turns counterclockwise to open or close the canopy?

Back 1301

110 to 114 turns

Front 1302

In F/A-18E using the external manual drive receptacle, a 3/8 inch drive tool is inserted into the drive receptacle and turned how many turns counterclockwise to open or close the canopy?

Back 1302

34 to 36 turns

Front 1303

In F/A-18EF when inspecting SMDC/TLX booster tips, if booster tip is not concentric within how many inch tolerance in radius, bar will not pass completely around booster tip and SMDC/TLX must be replaced?

Back 1303

0.010 inch

Front 1304

In F/A-18EF SMDC/TLX booster tip and skirted ferrule inspection, radial rotation of ferrule on line is permissible provided it does not exceed what using light finger pressure?

Back 1304

180°

Front 1305

In F/A-18EF, to prevent death or injury, make sure canopy jettison rocket motor is installed with exhaust nozzle facing which direction?

Back 1305

Down

Front 1306

In F/A-18EF, if a bend requiring alignment is within three to four inches of the SMDC booster tip, the flexing must not exceed five degrees. Alignment of other established bends must not exceed what?

Back 1306

Ten degrees

Front 1307

What prevents explosive stimulus from initiating seat ejection?

Back 1307

One-way transfer valve

Front 1308

What serves as the point of contact for satisfying maintenance material requirements?

Back 1308

SRS

Front 1309

Which program is used to permit all government furnished material requirements of each commercial contractor to be properly processed by the government Supply System through a single Supply activity regardless of which DOD Supply activity is assigned inventory control responsibility?

Back 1309

SSSCP

Front 1310

Which Movement priority designation will be assigned to all material being shipped for investigation?

Back 1310

03

Front 1311

What is assigned by the Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) to all activities in the Navy establishment for determining priorities for material support?

Back 1311

FAD

Front 1312

What is responsible for internal and external preservation (prior to packing) of all components?

Back 1312

IMA

Front 1313

In F/A-18EF, the canopy jettison system is a what operated emergency canopy removal system?

Back 1313

Pyrotechnically

Front 1314

In F/A-18EF, a what in the cockpit manually initiates canopy jettison without seat ejection?

Back 1314

CANOPY JETT lever

Front 1315

In F/A-18EF canopy jettison system, airframe escape events include, canopy jettison, ejection seat/canopy jettison sequencing and initiation of what?

Back 1315

Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS)

Front 1316

In F/A-18EF fire protection system, if either the loop A or loop B APU fire detection element is not working because of a broken wire or what from the tube, all four sections of the APU FIRE warning light remain dark during testing of the respective loop?

Back 1316

Escaped gas

Front 1317

In F/A-18EF fire protection system, in the normal position (open), the fire extinguisher switch uses how many resistors to prevent stray or induced voltage accidentally firing a cartridge?

Back 1317

Three

Front 1318

In F/A-18EF fire protection system, an overheat condition is sensed in the APU bay by what?

Back 1318

APU fire detection elements

Front 1319

In F/A-18EF, pressing the APU FIRE warning light starts a how long delay timer within the APU spooldown delay and auto discharge relay?

Back 1319

9 to 11 seconds

Front 1320

In F/A-18EF, activation of the left engine FIRE warning light, APU FIRE warning light, and right engine FIRE warning light is recorded in the what or digital memory device (DMD)?

Back 1320

memory unit (MU)

Front 1321

In F/A-18EF, what arms the fire protection system, monitors optical fire detectors, determines dry bay extinguisher firing sequence, triggers dry bay extinguishers and initiates bit?

Back 1321

fire suppression control alarm (FSCA)

Front 1322

In F/A-18EF aircraft that have software OR logic, if one or more optical fire detectors (OFD) report a potential fire, the FSCA commands a discharge and does not record any information causing the what command?

Back 1322

discharge

Front 1323

In F/A-18EF aircraft that have software AND logic, normally how many or more OFDs are required to report a potential fire to have the FSCA generate a discharge command?

Back 1323

two

Front 1324

In F/A-18EF OBOGS system, if the monitor analysis shows the sample mixture to have a too low oxygen concentration, a signal is sent to what which will cause the OBOGS DEGD caution message to appear on the LDDI?

Back 1324

Signal Data Computer (SDC)

Front 1325

In F/A-18EF a heater assembly, in the OBOGS concentrator, keeps the inlet air temperature at what degrees to maximize sieve performance?

Back 1325

80°F (27°C)

Front 1326

In F/A-18EF OBOGS system, the over temperature switch located on the heater assembly in the OBOGS concentrator turns off the heater at 300 degrees Fahrenheit (149 degrees Celsius) for protection against what?

Back 1326

thermal run-away

Front 1327

A what capacity oxygen cylinder is stored in the F/A-18EF survival kit?

Back 1327

100 cubic inch

Front 1328

In F/A-18EF OBOGS system, during weight off wheels operation conditioned bleed air is provided from one of two sources, the primary heat exchanger outlet or what?

Back 1328

water extractor outlet

Front 1329

In F/A-18EF OBOGS system, if the HPWS pressure switch senses system pressure above what, the primary heat exchanger shutoff valve is commanded closed?

Back 1329

39 psi

Front 1330

In F/A-18EF OBOGS system, if the HPWS pressure switch senses a pressure less than 39 psi the primary heat exchanger shutoff valve is commanded to what position?

Back 1330

open

Front 1331

In F/A-18EF OBOGS system, what caution message is displayed on the left digital display indicator (LDDI) when the oxygen monitor senses oxygen concentration is below a preset level?

Back 1331

OBOGS DEGD

Front 1332

When performing sticker clip test on F/A-18EF, after applying tension to upper end of sticker clip strap lug, pull forward and in which direction to seat bucket until lug separates from sticker clip retainer?

Back 1332

perpendicular

Front 1333

When performing sticker clip test on F/A-18EF strap lugs should separate from sticker clip retainer at how many pounds of tension?

Back 1333

40-55

Front 1334

The F/A-18EF windshield is made of what, mounted in a metal frame?

Back 1334

polycarbonate

Front 1335

The F/A-18EF windshield is normally bolted closed but is connected to the fuselage on the forward end by how many hinge arms so that it can be opened to provide access for maintenance of equipment below the windshield?

Back 1335

two