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212 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Research indicated that people love to come to Las Vegas to cut loose, and have fun. In response, a campaign was developed with the theme:
a. “Come one, Come All”
b. “Do it Here”
c. “Vegas Never closes”
d. “Get Going While the Going is Good”
e. “What Happens in Las Vegas, Stays in Las Vegas”
e. “What Happens in Las Vegas, Stays in Las Vegas”
Why are marketers decreasing their usage of advertising in mass media to reach their target market and increasing their use of integrated marketing communications?
a. The mass market has become fragmented.
b. The explosion of new technologies has given consumers greater control over the communication process.
c. The use of the Internet and electronic commerce is growing.
d. New global markets are emerging.
e. All of the above explain the increasing reliance on integrated marketing communications.
e. All of the above explain the increasing reliance on integrated marketing communications.
_____ is the process of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of ideas, goods and services to create exchanges that satisfy individual and organizational objectives.
a. Integrated marketing communications
b. Marketing
c. Advertising
d. Sales promotion
e. Exchange communications
b. Marketing
3. Which of the following statements about marketing is true?
a. A marketing transaction does not have to involve the exchange of money.
b. Marketing is used by nonprofit organizations.
c. Marketing is used by colleges and universities to solicit donations in exchange for psychological satisfaction.
d. Effective marketing requires that managers recognize the interdependence of sales and promotion and how they can be combined to develop a marketing program.
e. All of the above statements about marketing are true.
e. All of the above statements about marketing are true.
Which of the following statements about marketing is true?
a. Most marketers are seeking a one-time exchange or transaction with their customers.
b. The focus of production-driven companies is on developing and sustaining relationships with their customers.
c. It is often more cost effective to use marketing to retain customers than to acquire new ones.
d. Marketing does not play an important role in developing and sustaining relationships with customers.
e. By definition, a marketing transaction involves the exchange of money.
c. It is often more cost effective to use marketing to retain customers than to acquire new ones.
To decrease marketing costs and to improve response rates Williams-Sonoma catalog retailer, decided it needed to better match their catalog brands to recipients. Based on the retailer's understanding of a customer's special interests one person might receive a catalog about cookware while his neighbor receives a catalog focused on household goods with a July 4th theme. This strategy to be more attuned to its customers' needs and at the same time improving its own financial picture is an example of how a company can use:
a. mass marketing
b. an information marketing system
c. a product penetration strategy
d. relationship marketing
e. batch processing
b. an information marketing system
The _____ is the controllable elements of product, promotion, price, and place (distribution), which are used to facilitate exchange in a marketplace.
a. promotional mix
b. marketing mix
c. advertising mix
d. IMC mix
e. internal exchange environment
b. marketing mix
Arm & Hammer UltraMax deodorant contains time-released baking soda and provides “extra muscle for the game of life.” Ads for the product feature Jason Giambi, MVP of Extra Innings 2002. His quote, “When your day goes into extra innings, you need a deodorant with extra muscle,” appeared in television and print ads. At the same time, Arm & Hammer ran sweepstakes in which people could enter to win a chance to meet Giambi plus other great prizes. To enter sweepstakes customers had to fill out a $1-off coupon for deodorant or visit the website ahultramax.com. This is an example of:
a. the marketing mix
b. exchange
c. integrated marketing communications
d. the 4As
e. relationship marketing
c. integrated marketing communications
Integrated marketing communications requires a “big picture’ approach to planning marketing and promotion programs, requiring advertising agencies to develop a(n):
a. alternative approach for each media method
b. support system for production differentiation
c. total marketing communications strategy
d. reduced emphasis on information advertising and increased emphasis on persuasive marketing
e. all of the above
c. total marketing communications strategy
4. Which of the following statements describes a reason why marketers are adopting the concept of integrated marketing communications?
a. There is a shift in marketplace power from retailers to manufacturers.
b. Escalating price competition in many markets has forced marketers to pour more of their promotional budget into price promotions rather than media advertising.
c. Privacy issues are causing many marketers to abandon database marketing.
d. Companies are paying their advertising agencies using a fixed salary as opposed to incentive plans.
e. All of the above are reasons why marketers are adopting the concept of integrated marketing communications.
b. Escalating price competition in many markets has forced marketers to pour more of their promotional budget into price promotions rather than media advertising.
The brand identity for Quaker Oats would include:
a. consumer perception that the cereal is nutritious
b. the Quaker gentleman who appears on the box and in the Quaker ads
c. the round shape of the oatmeal package
d. the taste of the cooked oatmeal
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Marketers use advertising to:
a. create brand image
b. strike a responsive chord with consumers when differentiation using other elements of the marketing mix is difficult
c. create symbolic appeals for a company or brand
d. take advantage of the fact that advertising is a very cost-effective method of reaching a large audience
e. do all of the above
e. do all of the above
_____ is a system of marketing by which organizations communicate directly with target customers to generate a response and/or a transaction.
a. Advertising
b. Sales promotion
c. Direct marketing
d. Publicity
e. Public relations
c. Direct marketing
_____ is nonpersonal communication neither directly paid for nor run under identified sponsorship.
a. Advertising
b. Sales promotion
c. Publicity
d. Public relations
e. Personal selling
c. Publicity
Which of the following is NOT a technique used to generate publicity?
a. new releases
b. feature articles
c. photographs, films, and videotapes
d. packaging
e. press conferences
d. packaging
Which of the following statements describes a disadvantage associated with publicity?
a. Publicity is expensive to implement.
b. Publicity has relatively low credibility.
c. Publicity is not always under the control of the organization that reaps the negative and positive benefits from it.
d. Publicity is not useful with a market segmentation strategy.
c. Publicity is not always under the control of the organization that reaps the negative and positive benefits from it.
A lawsuit charged Adam's Mark Inn with racism because it allegedly charged African-American guests higher rates and provided them with lower-quality rooms and poorer service. News of the lawsuit was reported by the wire service, and it appeared in several newspapers. This is an example of:
a. sales detraction
b. negative advertising
c. cause selling
d. negative publicity
e. neutral publicity
d. negative publicity
_____ is a promotional mix element that allows for direct contact between a buyer and seller and allows a message to be modified according to the needs or reactions of the customer.
a. Advertising
b. Direct mail
c. Public relations
d. Sales promotion
e. Personal selling
e. Personal selling
According to the marketing and promotions process model, which of the following is NOT a stage in the target marketing process?
a. market identification
b. promotional decisions
c. market segmentation
d. positioning through marketing strategies
e. target market selection
b. promotional decisions
The market segmentation process:
a. divides a market into distinct groups that have heterogeneous needs
b. divides a market into distinct groups that will respond similarly to marketing actions
c. offers one version of the product to all markets
d. identifies markets with unfulfilled needs
e. positions products in the minds of prospects and customers
a. divides a market into distinct groups that have heterogeneous needs
Factors that influence the decision as to how far the segmentation process should go include:
a. whether the segment is accessible
b. whether sufficient funds exist for developing the necessary advertising campaign
c. the availability of media that reaches the segment
d. the ability of the sales force to reach the segment
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Division of the market based on age, sex, family size, income, and other measurable characteristics is known as:
a. demographic segmentation
b. psychographic segmentation
c. quantified aggregation
d. lifestyle aggregation
e. undifferentiated marketing
a. demographic segmentation
All of the following are demographic factors EXCEPT:
a. age
b. family size
c. income
d. sex
e. product usage
e. product usage
Which of the following is a potential basis for segmenting the consumer market for prune juice?
a. age
b. how often juice is drunk
c. benefits sought
d. lifestyle
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Changing Mr. Peanut and using multiple images for Mr. Goodwrench are examples of companies____________________
a. using a demographic marketing approach
b. attempts to limit competitive response
c. using a low-tech approach that appeals to late adopters and laggards
d. repositioning themselves
e. niche marketing to infrequent buyers
d. repositioning themselves
A marketer who is developing a marketing planning program is making decisions about:
a. all of the elements in the marketing mix
b. market segmentation variables
c. the type and number of marketing objectives to set
d. positioning strategies to use
e. the organization's mission statement
a. all of the elements in the marketing mix
7. How does strong brand equity benefit the seller?
a. Product quality becomes completely irrelevant.
b. It allows the seller to use undifferentiated marketing.
c. It enables the seller to hide product success from its competition.
d. It allows the seller to achieve higher sales volume and/or profit.
e. All of the above statements describe how strong brand equity benefits the seller.
d. It allows the seller to achieve higher sales volume and/or profit.
_____ is the intangible asset of added value or goodwill that results from the favorably image, impressions, differentiation, and/or strength of a consumer's attachment to a company's name or trademark.
a. Product affiliation
b. Product symbolism
c. Brand equity
d. Brand symbolism
e. Trademark recognition
c. Brand equity
The _____ is an outside firm that specializes in the creation, production, and/or placement of the communications message and that may provide other marketing and promotions related services.
a. media organization
b. sales promotion firm
c. research organization
d. advertising agency
e. creative boutique
d. advertising agency
From the perspective of a promotional planner, the primary purpose of most media is to:
a. entertain consumers
b. inform consumers
c. provide a way of reaching consumers with the company's marketing communications message
d. help the company understand the marketplace
e. do all of the above
e. do all of the above
_____ segmentation divides consumers into groups according to their usage, loyalties, or buying responses to a product.
a. Benefit
b. Geographic
c. Demographic
d. Behavioristic
e. Psychographic
d. Behavioristic
Problems associated with a(n) _____ include difficulty with coordination and less of an understanding of the overall marketing goals for individual products or brands.
a. decentralized marketing system
b. in-house agency
c. centralized marketing system
d. brand management system
e. creative boutique
a. decentralized marketing system
Which of the following describes a limitation associated with the decentralized organizational structure for advertising?
a. Brand managers are often overqualified and want too much input into advertising.
b. Brand mangers are typically highly experienced in advertising and understand exactly what advertising can do for a brand.
c. Brand managers do not devote enough attention to short-term planning and administrative tasks.
d. Brand managers often end up competing for management attention, marketing budgets, and other resources.
e. With their reliance on intuition, brand managers often jeopardize the creative activities of the advertising agency.
d. Brand managers often end up competing for management attention, marketing budgets, and other resources.
Consumer behavior is defined as:
a. conspicuous consumption
b. the process people engage in when searching, for selecting, and using products and services they need
c. the act of physically purchasing a product
d. the act of making a final decision as to which product to purchase
e. the process product producers use to design new products
b. the process people engage in when searching, for selecting, and using products and services they need
A(n) _____ occurs during the first stage in the consumer decision making process.
a. internal search
b. external search
c. problem recognition
d. alternative evaluation
e. post-purchase evaluation
c. problem recognition
Consumer problem recognition occurs when:
a. the consumer has depleted his or her inventory of a product
b. the consumer is dissatisfied with his or her previous purchase
c. the consumer has a situation creating new needs
d. the purchase of one product necessitates a new purchase of a related product
e. any of the above occur
e. any of the above occur
On a trip to Spokane, Joy experienced car trouble. She knew she needed to find a good mechanic, so she asked the advice of the people running the motel where she was staying. She also called the local Better Business Bureau to help and looked in the local Yellow Pages. Finally, she called a friend who used to live in Spokane for his recommendation. Joy was obviously engaged in which stage of the consumer decision making process?
a. problem recognition
b. information search
c. postpurchase evaluation
d. subliminal problem avoidance
e. purchase decision
b. information search
_____ is the stage of the consumer decision making process whereby the individual scans information stored in memory to recall past experience and/or knowledge regarding various purchase alternatives.
a. Problem recognition
b. Internal information search
c. External information search
d. Alternative evaluation
e. Post purchase evaluation
b. Internal information search
The various brands identified as purchase options to be considered during the alternative evaluation process are known as:
a. decision criteria
b. a brand attribution list
c. the working model
d. the evoked set
e. subliminal choices
d. the evoked set
9. During which stage of the consumer decision-making process are evoked sets and evaluative criteria relevant?
a. problem recognition
b. information search
c. postpurchase evaluation
d. alternative evaluation
e. purchase decision
d. alternative evaluation
Which of the following techniques can marketers use to ensure their brand is included in the consumer's evoked set?
a. Create top-of-mind awareness.
b. Use comparative advertising to encourage consumers to consider their brand along with market leaders.
c. Use point-of-purchase displays to draw attention to a brand in the store.
d. Use in-store sampling to encourage consumers to try a brand.
e. Do all of the above.
e. Do all of the above.
_____ are the concrete outcomes of product or service usage that are tangible and directly experienced by consumers.
a. Functional consequences
b. Psychosocial consequences
c. Bundles of attributes
d. Service assessments
e. Physiological stimuli
a. Functional consequences
_____ is defined as the passing of information, the exchange of ideas, or process of establishing a commonness of thought between a sender and receiver.
a. Advertising
b. Sales promotion
c. Encoding
d. Decoding
e. Communication
e. Communication
Successful communication depends on
a. the nature of the message
b. the interpretation of the message by the audience
c. the environment in which a message is received
d. the receiver's perception of the source of the message
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following is NOT a basic element of the communications process?
a. source
b. message
c. channel
d. integration
e. receiver
d. integration
Communication problems in international marketing include misinterpretation of:
a. brand names
b. ad slogans
c. signs and symbols
d. language
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Putting thoughts, ideas or information together in symbolic form is called:
a. encoding
b. deciphering
c. shaping
d. flighting
e. decoding
a. encoding
Commercials for Planter's nuts describe the nuts as a delicious snack food for everyone. The commercials show animals that eat nuts as part of their usual diet trying to convince humans to share their Planter's nuts. In these commercials, the source of the advertising message is:
a. Mr. Peanut, the company's visual image personality
b. the television networks on which the ads run
c. the specific television shows in which the ads are seen
d. Planter's peanuts
e. people who talk about how humorous the commercials are
d. Planter's peanuts
The communication process begins with the process of _____, which leads to the development of a _____ that contains the information or meaning a source hopes to convey.
a. encoding; message
b. encrypting; transmission
c. encoding; response
d. decoding; message
e. decoding; transmission
a. encoding; message
The source or sender of an advertising communication:
a. is typically a salesperson
b. is never a nonpersonal entity
c. is typically identified as the owner of the medium in which the communication appeared
d. can be an individual or a nonpersonal entity such as a corporation
e. is never involved in the encoding process
d. can be an individual or a nonpersonal entity such as a corporation
When marketers develop an advertising message, one of their primary goals is to encode the message:
a. in a way that makes their message unique to each individual who is exposed to the ad
b. so that it can only be understood by members of the target audience
c. so that it will be understood and interpreted in a similar way by most consumers
d. using nonverbal communication so as to eliminate problems with connotations and jargon
e. so that it requires effort to decode it
c. so that it will be understood and interpreted in a similar way by most consumers
The encoding process leads to the development of:
a. a message
b. noise
c. a channel
d. feedback
e. a receiver
a. a message
Which of the following would be an example of an advertising message?
a. a radio commercial telling you to why you should fly to Florida on Delta Airlines
b. a print ad explaining a sweepstakes in which the winner will receive a walk-on role on an NBC soap opera
c. a print ad for DeBeers diamonds with a picture of a woman wearing a diamond necklace and the DeBeers name
d. a television ad that tells you to watch the next episode of ER
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
_____ is the study of the nature of meaning and how words, gestures, and symbols acquire meaning.
a. Communication derivation
b. Language arts
c. Symbolics
d. Semiotics
e. Linguistics
d. Semiotics
To help understand what the teddy bear on its Snuggle fabric softener might symbolize to consumers, Lever Brothers could use:
a. life style research
b. cognitive response research
c. involvement research
d. semiotic analysis
e. common ground research
b. cognitive response research
Advertisers can determine how people react to words like juvenile, immature, and childish that have the same basic denotation but differing connotations through the use of:
a. psychoanalysis
b. semiotic analysis
c. common ground research
d. affective theory
e. involvement research
b. semiotic analysis
A series of anti-smoking commercials show three people having fun and then one getting killed in some particularly gruesome fashion using some bogus product. The tag at the end of the commercial reads, "The only product that is allowed to kill one out of every three people is tobacco." What combination of independent and dependent variables does the advertiser using the persuasion matrix consider for this commercial?
a. source/attention
b. source/comprehension
c. message/yielding
d. channel/behavior
e. receiver/attention
c. message/yielding
A mobile phone company uses Catherine Zeta-Jones in all of its print and broadcast advertising. The extremely attractive and talented English-born actress is used because she is more likely to attract the attention of potential consumers of mobile phones. In terms of the response stages of the persuasion matrix, the mobile phone company is trying to influence:
a. retention
b. channels
c. attention
d. presentation
e. behavior
c. attention
Marketers who try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message influence are concerned about their credibility. The two important dimensions associated with credibility are:
a. consistency and image
b. image and trustworthiness
c. recognizability and expertise
d. expertise and trustworthiness
e. image and expertise
d. expertise and trustworthiness
Information from a credible source influences beliefs, opinions, attitudes, and/or behaviors through a process known as:
a. identification
b. compliance
c. internalization
d. conformity
e. yielding
c. internalization
Expertise and trustworthiness are very important when focusing on source _____, one of the categories of source attributes.
a. power
b. attractiveness
c. credibility
d. identification
e. image
c. credibility
A pharmaceutical company wants to promote a new over-the-counter allergy inhaler. The company has hired as its spokesperson an actor who has played a physician for several years on a popular soap opera. The first line of the commercial is, "Hi. I play a doctor on television." For people who are unfamiliar with this actor, the message source lacks _____, one of the source attribute categories.
a. credibility
b. power
c. positive image
d. attractiveness
e. charisma
a. credibility
The source characteristic of attractiveness encompasses:
a. power, expertise, and recognizability
b. similarity, likability, and familiarity
c. comfort, recognizability, and beauty
d. beauty, familiarity, and recognizability
e. expertise, familiarity, and comfort
b. similarity, likability, and familiarity
_____ is defined as an attraction for a source based on a resemblance between the source and receiver.
a. Likability
b. Familiarity
c. Similarity
d. Expertise
e. Power
c. Similarity
_____ is defined as an affection for a source as a result of the source's physical appearance, behavior, or other physical characteristics.
a. Expertise
b. Power
c. Compliance
d. Familiarity
e. Likability
e. Likability
Source attractiveness leads to persuasion through a process of:
a. internalization
b. identification
c. compliance
d. repositioning
e. comprehension
b. identification
The use of celebrities in commercials is generally based on the source characteristics of _____ and represents an attempt to induce persuasion through the ______ process.
a. expertise; yielding
b. expertise; identification
c. power; identification
d. attractiveness; identification
e. attractiveness; internalization
d. attractiveness; identification
Before setting objectives for advertising and promotion, an organization should:
a. conduct a situation analysis to identify marketing and promotional issues facing the firm
b. develop its media objectives
c. develop creative objectives
d. develop communication goals
e. create a creative mission statement
a. conduct a situation analysis to identify marketing and promotional issues facing the firm
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between marketing and communications objectives?
a. Marketing objectives and communications objectives are synonymous.
b. Marketing objectives evolve from communication objectives.
c. Communications objectives are derived from marketing objectives.
d. For a successful campaign, communications objectives can be developed before or after the development of marketing objectives.
e. There is no relationship between the two.
c. Communications objectives are derived from marketing objectives.
Pace Foods had a goal of expanding its business beyond its traditional Texas market base. This goal is an example of a _____ objective while the goal of establishing a position of authenticity and making Mexican food seem fun is an example of a(n) _____ objective:
a. communication; marketing
b. communication; positioning
c. marketing; communication
d. positioning; organizational
e. advertising; functional
c. marketing; communication
To be effective, marketing objectives need to be:
a. reasonable and attainable
b. erudite and challenging
c. philosophical and fungible
d. long-term and qualitative
e. all of the above
a. reasonable and attainable
_____ objectives are types of objectives that are usually stated in terms of specific, measurable outcomes such as sales volume, market share, or return on investment.
a. Sales
b. Marketing
c. Communication
d. Advertising
e. Organizational
b. Marketing
To develop integrated marketing communications objectives, managers need the situation analysis to provide them with information on:
a. demographics and purchase motives of target markets
b. the main features, advantages and benefits of the product to be promoted
c. competitors' brands
d. how the brand should be positioned
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Direct-response advertisers generally set objectives and measure success in terms of:
a. brand awareness
b. brand attitudes
c. purchase intentions
d. sales response generated by an ad
e. brand equity
d. sales response generated by an ad
Various response hierarchy variables such as awareness, knowledge, interest, attitudes, and intention are the basis for:
a. marketing objectives
b. sales-oriented objectives
c. image objectives
d. communications objectives
e. the carry-over effects
d. communications objectives
Which of the following is at the top of the communication effects pyramid?
a. awareness
b. knowledge
c. liking
d. preference
e. purchase/repurchase
e. purchase/repurchase
Managers who use the communications effects pyramid to set objectives believe:
a. lower-level objectives such as purchase and reuse form the foundation of the communications program
b. the foundation of the communications program is set by accomplishing lower-level objectives such as awareness, knowledge, and comprehension
c. advertising and promotion should first accomplish lower-level objectives such as trial and purchase
d. advertising and promotion should first accomplish higher-order objectives such as trial and purchase and then create awareness and brand knowledge
e. advertising and promotion cannot accomplish lower-order objectives
b. the foundation of the communications program is set by accomplishing lower-level objectives such as awareness, knowledge, and comprehension
19. In January 2003, Philip-Morris Companies, Inc., and Kraft Foods became the Altria Group. The name change reflected the fact the company has changed itself structurally, behaviorally, and culturally. The new name was designed to focus attention on the company's superior performance, financial strength, and its commitment to integrity and corporate responsibility. Advertising to make consumers aware of the name change would more than likely have _____ objectives.
a. sales-oriented
b. market-oriented
c. product development
d. communications
e. product penetration
d. communications
Which of the following statements about communications objectives is true?
a. It is easy to translate sales goals into communications objectives.
b. It can be difficult to determine the relationship between communications objectives and sales performance.
c. Communications objectives cannot serve as operational guidelines to the planning, execution, and evaluation of the promotional program.
d. Marketing managers do not recognize the value of setting communications objectives.
e. There are precise formulas to use when translating sales goals into specific communications objectives.
b. It can be difficult to determine the relationship between communications objectives and sales performance.
The role of any advertising message is to:
a. communicate information about a company's product or service
b. motivate a consumer to take action
c. shape consumers desires and goals
d. create images that can position a brand in the consumer's mind
e. do all of the above
e. do all of the above
In the development of an advertising campaign or message, creative _____ involves determining what the message will say or communicate, while _____ deals with how the message will be implemented or executed.
a. strategy; tactics
b. tactics; strategy
c. mission: strategy
d. tactics; vision
e. vision; mission
a. strategy; tactics
Which of the following statements about creative strategy and execution is true?
a. A good creative strategy and execution guarantees a brand will exceed its sales objectives.
b. A good creative strategy almost never helps generate sales for a brand.
c. Ads that are very creative and popular among consumers still may not increase sales of a brand.
d. Companies have no trouble coming up with creative advertising that differentiates their brands from the competition.
e. Good creative strategy cannot help a struggling brand regain its former prominence.
c. Ads that are very creative and popular among consumers still may not increase sales of a brand.
Many companies are willing to spend hundreds of millions of dollars each year on creative advertising because:
a. they believe strongly in competitive parity
b. they realize marketing success is unrelated to their creative advertising effort
c. good creative strategy and execution are often critical to the success of a product or service
d. they want to win creative awards in order to respond to the intangibility and homogeneity characteristics of service
e. the development of good creative strategy is a science and is explained by marketing research
c. good creative strategy and execution are often critical to the success of a product or service
_____ is a quality possessed by individuals that enables them to generate novel approaches to handling problems and that is reflected in new and improved solutions to those problems.
a. Uniqueness
b. Dramatization
c. Creativity
d. Proficiency
e. Personification
c. Creativity
According to the universal advertising standards developed by the D'Arcy, Masius Benton & Bowles agency, a creative advertising message is built around a:
a. unique selling plan (USP)
b. strong brand image
c. power idea or a creative core
d. slice-of-life concept
e. dramatization
c. power idea or a creative core
"Diamonds are forever," “Tastes Great, Les Filling,” and "Just do it” are all examples of:
a. unique selling propositions
b. long-running advertising campaign themes
c. inherent drama appeals
d. copy platforms
e. creative blueprints
b. long-running advertising campaign themes
A unique selling proposition (USP):
a. should offer a specific benefit to the consumer
b. must be a feature, benefit, or advantage that the competition either cannot or does not offer
c. must be strong or important enough to pull consumers to the brand
d. should be an important part of a repetitive advertising strategy
e. is accurately described by all of the above
e. is accurately described by all of the above
A(n) _____ refers to the approach used in an advertisement to elicit some consumer response or influence feeling. The way this approach is turned into an advertising message is the _____.
a. advertising appeal; advertising campaign
b. creative execution style; advertising appeal
c. creative execution style; advertising campaign
d. advertising appeal; creative execution style
e. brand image; positioning
d. advertising appeal; creative execution style
The _____ is the manner in which an advertising idea is turned into a message and presented to consumers.
a. advertising appeal
b. creative execution style
c. rational appeal
d. emotional appeal
e. big idea
b. creative execution style
An ad for Enbrel, a prescription medicine for people who have rheumatoid arthritis, tells the reader that this drug has proven to work for people who have had little or no pain relief from other drugs. The factual, news like nature of the ad indicates it is using a(n) _____ appeal.
a. informational/rational
b. product popularity
c. emotional
d. fear
e. refutational
a. informational/rational
Advertising appeals that focus on functional or utilitarian needs and emphasize product features and benefits are known as _____ appeals.
a. informational/rational
b. emotional
c. price
d. inherent drama
e. image
a. informational/rational
To announce sales, special offers, or everyday low prices, retailers often use a _____ appeal.
a. functional
b. popularity
c. favorable price
d. transformational
e. productive
c. favorable price
Aleve ran a series of ads showing everyday people having to deal with minor arthritic pains. In each instance, the individual was pleased to learn that two Aleve were just as effective as taking eight of his or her old pain reliever. This ad campaign is using a(n) _____ appeal.
a. emotional
b. competitive advantage
c. fear
d. favorable price
e. transformational
b. competitive advantage
McDonald's creates commercials designed to make parents feel good when they take their children to their restaurants. This is an example of:
a. how rational appeals are used
b. how product popularity appeals are used
c. transformational advertising
d. reminder advertising
e. teaser advertising
c. transformational advertising
Advertising appeals that relate to consumers' social and/or psychological needs for purchasing a product or service are known as _____ appeals.
a. informational
b. rational
c. irrational
d. emotional
e. feature
d. emotional
Advertisers create emotional advertising appeals by:
a. using humorous advertisements
b. using sexual appeals
c. using transformational advertising
d. creating favorable mood states
e. doing all of the above
e. doing all of the above
The Oscar Mayer ad touched the child in all of us when it showed Andy on the pier singing the "My bologna has a first name" jingle. This example of _____ advertising won America's heart and stomach.
a. competitive advantage
b. refutational
c. transformational
d. transactional
e. image
c. transformational
Research shows consumers perceive Miller beer as strong, bold, and adventurous. This is an example of how consumers assign a _____ to a brand.
a. product rank
b. personality
c. product features
d. unique selling proposition
e. market rank
b. personality
Hershey's advertises heavily around Christmas with ads that show only a picture of red, green and silver wrapped Hershey Kisses chocolate. Hershey's is using _____ advertising.
a. transformational
b. reminder
c. curiosity
d. emotional integration
e. teaser
b. reminder
_____ advertising is sometimes used to create curiosity and build interest and excitement in a new product or brand by talking about it but not showing it.
a. Reminder
b. Teaser
c. Curiosity
d. New product
e. Rational appeal
b. Teaser
Which of the following statements about the use of teaser advertising is true?
a. Teaser ads cannot be used to draw attention to and generate publicity for an upcoming advertising campaign.
b. Teaser ads do not work well because consumers really do not pay much attention to advertising.
c. Teaser ads can be effective but marketers must be careful not to use them too long.
d. Teaser ads usually offend consumers.
e. None of the above statements about the use of teaser advertising is true.
c. Teaser ads can be effective but marketers must be careful not to use them too long.
When an advertiser cites technical information such as the results of laboratory studies in an advertisement, a(n) _____ execution is being used.
a. dramatization
b. slice-of-life
c. scientific/technical evidence
d. testimonial
e. animation
c. scientific/technical evidence
Which of the following is an advertising execution approach designed to illustrate key advantages or features of a product by showing it in actual use?
a. comparison
b. demonstration
c. scientific evidence
d. straight-sell
e. animation
b. demonstration
Traditional mass media advertising is being replaced with:
a. branded entertainment
b. Internet advertising
c. satellite radio
d. product placements
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
The primary objective of ______ is to develop a framework that will deliver the message to the target audience in the most efficient, cost-effective manner possible.
a. media planning
b. market segmentation
c. target marketing
d. organizational planning
e. a communication hierarchy
a. media planning
Media options include:
a. television
b. direct marketing
c. newspapers
d. transit advertising
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
_____ is the measure of the number of different audience members exposed at least once to a media vehicle.
a. Frequency
b. Reach
c. Viewer number
d. Coverage
e. Exposure
b. Reach
_____ refers to the potential audience that might receive the message through a vehicle.
a. Frequency
b. Reach
c. Viewer number
d. Coverage
e. Exposure
d. Coverage
_____ is the number of times a receiver is exposed to a message in a given time period.
a. Potency
b. Reach
c. Coverage
d. Frequency
e. Mediatronics
d. Frequency
The times during the year when television audiences are measured in order to set advertising rates are called:
a. sweeps periods
b. GRP flighting periods
c. frequency estimates
d. availabilities
e. upgraded media scheduling
a. sweeps periods
An index number of 100 means the:
a. use of the product is proportionately greater in that segment than in one that is average
b. segment being analyzed is average
c. use of the product is proportionately fewer in that segment than in one that is average
d. probability of wasted coverage is 100 percent
e. the probability of success in this market is 100 percent
b. segment being analyzed is average
External factors that may have an influence on the determination of media strategies include:
a. administrative capabilities
b. competitive factors
c. size of the media budget
d. how tasks are delegated with the agency
e. all of the above
b. competitive factors
In calculating both the brand development index (BDI) and the category development index (CDI) a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and High CDI. What do these results imply?
a. high market share; good market potential
b. low market share; good market potential
c. high market share; monitor for sales decline
d. low market share; poor market potential
b. low market share; good market potential
Which of the following situations offers the advertiser the least attractive marketing opportunity?
a. high BDI; high CDI
b. high BDI; low CDI
c. low BDI; high CDI
d. low BDI; low CDI
d. low BDI; low CDI
Which of the following indices reflects a company with low market share in a given market?
a. low brand development index (BDI)
b. high brand development index (BDI)
c. low category development index (CDI)
d. high category development index (CDI)
a. low brand development index (BDI)
In terms of advertising, scheduling constant advertising without variation is referred to as:
a. flighting
b. continuity
c. geographical weighting
d. circulation
e. pulsing
b. continuity
Seasonal products such as Mother's Day cards and Valentine candy would best make use of which scheduling alternative?
a. weighted ratings
b. market share
c. flighting
d. pulsing
e. continuous
c. flighting
My product is hand-tooled leather wallets, which can be purchased at any time of the year, but which are more often purchased during the Christmas season and before Father's day. Given a limited budget, which strategy would likely be the most effective if I wanted to try to stimulate trial and/or sales?
a. ratings
b. share
c. flighting
d. pulsing
e. continuous
d. pulsing
An important change in television advertising during the 1970s was the emergence of:
a. the 30-second commercial
b. people meters in determining television viewership
c. remote controls allowing consumers to zap commercials
d. government censorship of advertising messages
e. all of the above
d. government censorship of advertising messages
During the 1990s cable and ______________ reduced network dominance of TV advertising?
a. cable companies
b. three major networks
c. Internet providers
d. satellite television companies
e. XM television
d. satellite television companies
Television is considered an excellent advertising medium because of:
a. its ability to combine visual images with sound and motion
b. the tremendous creative flexibility and opportunities available through television
c. its ability to convey a mood or image for a brand
d. its value in demonstrating a product or service
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Audience selectivity on television is possible due to:
a. the use of PVRs
b. program content
c. zipping and zapping
d. the use of interconnects
e. a market penetration market growth strategy
b. program content
_____ refers to the practice of fast-forwarding through commercials on prerecorded programs, while _____ refers to channel changing via remote control mechanisms.
a. Zipping; zapping
b. Zapping; zooming
c. Zipping; time shifting
d. Time shifting; zipping
e. Zooming; zipping
a. Zipping; zapping
29. The pervasiveness and intrusive nature of _____, as an advertising medium, contributes to the high level of distrust consumers have for the ads that appear in it.
a. radio
b. television
c. newspapers
d. direct response
e. magazines
b. television
Morning, daytime, prime time, and late fringe are all examples of:
a. television dayparts
b. radio dayparts
c. types of syndication
d. run-of-station spots
e. none of the above
a. television dayparts
The _____ is the average number of people estimated to have listened to a radio station for a minimum of five minutes during any quarter-hour in a time period expressed as a percentage of the survey area population.
a. average quarter-hour figure
b. cumulative audience
c. average quarter-hour rating
d. average quarter hour share
e. average daily market share
b. cumulative audience
The largest radio audiences occur during which of the following dayparts?
a. morning drive time and evening drive time
b. daytime and late evening
c. evening drive time and daytime
d. nighttime and morning drive time
e. all night and daytime
a. morning drive time and evening drive time
Avia makes athletic shoes. Avia's marketing research has shown there are a large number of serious runners living in the Pacific Northwest region of the United States. These individuals would be willing to pay over $200 for a good pair of running shoes. To reach this market, the best media option would probably be:
a. regional editions of general interest magazines such as Time or Newsweek
b. the sports section of national newspapers such as USA Today
c. regional editions of general sports magazines such as a Sports Illustrated
d. regional editions of specialty magazines such as Runner's World
d. regional editions of specialty magazines such as Runner's World
Nearly two-thirds of all advertising dollars spent in magazines are spent in _____ magazines.
a. consumer
b. international
c. business
d. regional
e. national
a. consumer
Selectivity, reproduction quality, creative flexibility, and prestige are all potential advantages of which advertising medium?
a. place-based media
b. magazines
c. local radio
d. billboards
e. local newspapers
b. magazines
A company that manufactures paintball equipment might prefer to advertise in specialized publications such as Paintball Sports magazine rather than general interest magazines and sports magazines such as Sports Illustrated because of:
a. the broader reach of specialized publications
b. the greater audience selectivity of specialized publications
c. fewer ads and less clutter in specialized publications
d. because of the higher degree of pass-along readership
e. the creative flexibility available in specialized magazines and not available in more general-interest publications
b. the greater audience selectivity of specialized publications
Ads have been placed on the back of envelopes that contain airplane tickets and on banners pulled by planes that are flown over sports arenas. Both of these are examples of:
a. support media
b. out-of-home advertising
c. indirect communications
d. advertising accessories
e. category ads
a. support media
Those vehicles used to reinforce communications messages that may have been received from other forms of advertising are called:
a. support media
b. source media
c. indirect communications
d. accessory advertising
e. category ads
a. support media
Which of the following is an example of an out-of-home advertising medium?
a. a billboard on the top of a taxi in New Orleans
b. an ad placed inside a bus shelter
c. banners pulled by airplanes over sporting events
d. an ad on a park bench
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following is a threat facing sponsors of outdoor advertising?
a. an inability to use creativity
b. an inability to have the needed geographic selectivity
c. local and national ordinances
d. an inability to create awareness through the use of billboards
c. local and national ordinances
Which of the following business is most likely to buy outdoor advertising?
a. a local Ford car dealership
b. 3M Company
c. Carnation Company
d. Quaker Oatmeal
e. RubberMaid
a. a local Ford car dealership
Truck sides, taxi displays, and wrapped vehicles are all examples of:
a. transit media
b. in-office media outlets
c. areas where government has regulated advertising
d. product placements
e. all of the above
a. transit media
Airplanes pulling banners, blimps, and skywriting are all examples of:
a. sales promotions
b. flighting
c. aerial advertising
d. stationary advertising
e. free-form advertising
c. aerial advertising
A City of Macon public transit system bus painted to look like a large moving loaf of Wonder Bread is an example of:
a. out-of-store advertising
b. a mobile billboard
c. free-form advertising
d. a spectacular
e. a sales promotion
b. a mobile billboard
Direct marketing:
a. is not a useful tool for a company that is using an integrated marketing communications plan
b. seeks the same objectives as advertising, sales promotion, and personal selling strategies in an IMC plan
c. is one of the slowest growing forms of promotion in terms of dollar expenditures
d. can generate immediate behavioral response
e. is accurately described by all of the above
d. can generate immediate behavioral response
Unlike traditional marketing, the typical goal of direct marketing is to:
a. create brand image
b. generate an immediate behavioral response
c. utilize telephone communication exclusively
d. create awareness
e. convey detailed information
b. generate an immediate behavioral response
Which of the following is a type of response that could be generated by direct marketing?
a. a vote for a mayoral candidate
b. a subscription to Martha Stewart Living magazine
c. an inquiry for more information on a water reclamation system for a car wash
d. a purchase of a tin of St. Julien macaroon cookies
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following is an example of direct-response media?
a. direct mail
b. interactive television
c. telemarketing
d. print
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following is an example of direct-response media?
a. billboards
b. place-based media
c. the Internet
d. product placement
e. guerrilla media
c. the Internet
A press conference called by the Winchester County Museum informed the public of the need for major repairs to prevent water damage to the museum's collection of primitive paintings. During the conference, the museum representative announced that each family in Winchester County and neighboring counties could expect to receive a donation envelope in the mail within the next few days. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with:
a. a trade promotion
b. public relations
c. advertising
d. personal selling
e. consumer promotion
b. public relations
The Internet is more likely to be used for ___________, while _______ is more likely to be used to relax.
a. publicity; sports
b. persuasive selling; non-persuasive selling
c. business-to-business marketing; telemarketing
d. information; television
e. indirect selling; radio
d. information; television
The Internet:
a. is accessible to anyone with a computer and a modem
b. was developed by the U.S. Defense Department
c. is a worldwide means of exchanging information
d. uses a series of interconnected computers
e. is accurately described by all of the above
e. is accurately described by all of the above
_____ is a worldwide means of exchanging information and communicating through a series of interconnected computers.
a. The Internet
b. Interactive television
c. Teleshopping
d. Audiotext
e. Videotext
a. The Internet
What was the primary objective marketers sought when they first employed the Internet as a communications tool?
a. to sell their product
b. to stimulate repurchase of their product
c. to level the competitive playing field
d. to disseminate information
e. to create a competitive advantage
d. to disseminate information
Which of the following statements about the role of the Web site is true?
a. Web sites are only used to disseminate information.
b. A Web site is the place where a provider makes information available to users of the Internet.
c. The maintenance of a Web site requires very little time and effort.
d. Other media cannot be integrated with the Web site.
e. Making a Web site work and having one work successfully is the same thing.
b. A Web site is the place where a provider makes information available to users of the Internet.
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective for a marketer who is employing the Internet as a communications vehicle?
a. to create an image
b. to generate interest
c. to disseminate information
d. to prevent price wars
e. to create awareness
d. to prevent price wars
One of the advantages of the Internet for direct marketers is it is:
a. ubiquitous
b. free
c. interactive
d. known for quality information
e. all of the above
c. interactive
Many marketers think that gen Y responds best when marketers bring their message to places they congregate, particularly when done without:
a. sales promotion
b. the heavy air of commercialism
c. government interference
d. risk
e. discounting
b. the heavy air of commercialism
______ is defined as a direct inducement that offers an extra value or incentive for the product to the sales force, distributors, or to ultimate consumer with the primary objective of creating an immediate sale.
a. Brand advertising
b. A sales promotion
c. Direct marketing
d. A promotional allowance
e. Specialty marketing
b. A sales promotion
Which of the following elements of the integrated marketing communications programs is designed to provide an extra incentive to consumers to purchase a brand?
a. advertising
b. direct mail
c. public relations
d. price
e. sales promotion
e. sales promotion
Coupons, bonus packs, premiums, and samples are promotional offers that are targeted toward:
a. consumers
b. retailers
c. wholesalers
d. salespeople
e. all of the above
a. consumers
Consumer-oriented sales promotions are part of a promotional ______ strategy.
a. EDLP
b. pull
c. trade
d. premium
e. push
e. push
All of the following are examples of trade-oriented sales promotion activities EXCEPT:
a. off-invoice allowances
b. promotional allowances
c. point-of-purchase displays
d. trade shows
e. coupons
e. coupons
All of the following are examples of consumer-oriented sales promotion activities EXCEPT:
a. samples
b. coupons
c. refunds/rebates
d. trade shows
e. bonus packs
d. trade shows
How has the view of sales promotions changed during the past decades?
a. Sales promotions are now considered an essential part of an organization's branding strategies.
b. Sales promotion tactics are now developed before the strategy is determined.
c. Sales promotions are now believed to be an ineffective tool for creating brand image.
d. Creatives have become more sophisticated, and this sophistication has led to a decline in their dependence on sales promotion.
e. There is no difference between how marketers used to treat sales promotions and how they treat them now.
a. Sales promotions are now considered an essential part of an organization's branding strategies.
Why are organizations like KFC, Heinz Foods, Toys R Us, and Budweiser placing more emphasis on sales promotions than ever before?
a. because they want to use sales promotions rather than engage in price wars
b. because they are convinced sales promotions can be used to build brand equity more effectively and more quickly than other promotional mix elements
c. because the use of sales promotions allows them to cut back and/or completely eliminate their use of coupons
d. because consumers have less time to shop
e. because the use of allowances, deals, and premiums confuse consumers
b. because they are convinced sales promotions can be used to build brand equity more effectively and more quickly than other promotional mix elements
Marketing planning and reward systems may lead to an increase in the use of sales promotion because sales promotions encourage:
a. managers to use advertising to build brand equity
b. managers to use consumer-oriented sales promotion to meet long-term performance goals
c. sales reps to encourage their marketing managers not to use promotions to help them get orders from retailers
d. the use of price-oriented promotions to generate short-term sales
e. all of the above
d. the use of price-oriented promotions to generate short-term sales
_____ is the management function that evaluates public attitudes, identifies the policies and procedures of an organization with the public interest, and executes a program of action to earn public understanding and acceptance.
a. Public relations
b. Image advertising
c. Corporate advertising
d. Dyadic communications
e. Integrated marketing communications
a. Public relations
Which of the following is a required stage in the public relations process?
a. the integration of sales promotion and personal selling with the public relations process
b. the identification of what portion of the budget is specifically designated to public relations
c. the hiring of a specialized firm that understands the public relations process
d. the determination and evaluation of public attitudes
e. all of the above
d. the determination and evaluation of public attitudes
Which of the following would most reflect the traditional role of public relations?
a. a company's sponsorship of a Little League team
b. a company's donations to a local charity
c. sponsorship within an organization of a blood drive
d. the mailing of a press release announcing a new product
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following is NOT a reason for conducting research to determine public attitudes?
a. It provides input into the planning process.
b. It leads directly to more product sales.
c. It serves as an "early warning system" to detect problems.
d. It results in more internal support.
e. It increases the effectiveness of communications.
b. It leads directly to more product sales.
A good reason for conducting research to determine public attitudes is because:
a. it is a way to determine whether to use status quo pricing
b. it allows the company to appear to care about its publics
c. it is similar to and more effective than a SWOT analysis
d. it serves as an early warning system for identifying potential problems
e. it can reveal any untapped target markets through demographic evaluations
d. it serves as an early warning system for identifying potential problems
Why is publicity viewed as being so much more important than advertising, sales promotion, or other forms of public relations?
a. control of the message
b. timing of the message
c. credibility of the message
d. accuracy of the message
e. all of the above
c. credibility of the message
Which of the following communications methods is potentially the most powerful?
a. sales promotions
b. advertorials
c. specialty advertising
d. publicity
e. advocacy advertising
d. publicity
Why is publicity considered by many marketers to be the strongest form of marketing communications?
a. its effectiveness at completing the communications process
b. its ability to make or destroy a brand.
c. the fact that consumers perceive the communication as biased
d. the ease with which it is coordinated with other communications activities
e. the positive image it always attaches to products and organizations
b. its ability to make or destroy a brand.
Publicity:
a. is typically a long-term strategy
b. is designed to provide positive information about the competition
c. is news about a person, product, or service that appears in broadcast or print medi
d. is always under the control of the firm
e. may not originate from sources other than the firm
c. is news about a person, product, or service that appears in broadcast or print media
The copy platform:
a. specifies the basic elements of the creative strategy
b. is also called a creative platform
c. is usually prepared by the account representative or manager assigned to the account
d. is also called a creative blueprint
e. is accurately described by all of the above
e. is accurately described by all of the above
A widely used advertising execution style for packaged goods products which attempts to portray a situation consumers might face in their daily lives is known as:
a. dramatization
b. slice-of-life
c. theater style
d. a testimonial
e. a demonstration
b. slice-of-life
How does strong brand equity benefit the seller?
a. Product quality becomes completely irrelevant.
b. It allows the seller to use undifferentiated marketing.
c. It enables the seller to hide product success from its competition.
d. It allows the seller to achieve higher sales volume and/or profit.
e. All of the above statements describe how strong brand equity benefits the seller.
d. It allows the seller to achieve higher sales volume and/or profit.
When FX cable network promotes its television show The Shield, it shows bloody and provocative excerpts from upcoming episodes. Which combination of independent and dependent variables does the advertiser using the persuasion matrix consider for this commercial?
a. source/attention
b. source/comprehension
c. message/yielding
d. channel/behavior
e. receiver/attention
c. message/yielding
When the Financial Times published an article about The Mills Corporation building a multi-leisure complex in Madrid, Spain, the company supplied the written information the author of the articles needed to write knowledgeably about complex that will offer a blend of entertainment, retailing, lodging, and offices. In fact, this information was made available to several different European and U.S. newspapers. Which public relations tool was employed?
a. community involvement
b. integrated public relations activities (IPRA)
c. exclusives
d. MPR
e. press release
e. press release
Which of the following is a recommended tool for improving the likelihood that the public relations story will be told?
a. press conferences
b. interviews
c. the Internet
d. exclusives
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
A magazine ad for pet health insurance contains both a toll-free number to call and a Web site to visit for more information. This ad is an example of the combining of direct marketing with:
a. a trade promotion
b. public relations
c. advertising
d. personal selling
e. consumer promotion
c. advertising
Direct marketing:
a. is a valuable tool in integrated marketing communications (IMC)
b. can generate immediate behavioral response
c. creates a direct channel of distribution
d. seeks different objectives from advertising, sales promotion, and personal selling strategies
e. is accurately described by all of the above
e. is accurately described by all of the above
Psychographic studies are used by advertising agencies to:
a. identify age, educational level, and ethnic background of the target audience
b. provide creative personnel with a better understanding of the target audience for whom they are developing the advertising message
c. determine how to allocate the advertising budget
d. understand specific consumption problems consumers encounter with various products and services
e. do all of the above
b. provide creative personnel with a better understanding of the target audience for whom they are developing the advertising message
“Encouraging current drinkers of Coca-Cola to drink more of the beverage,” would be an example of a(n) _____ objective.
a. sales-oriented
b. market-oriented
c. product development
d. communications
e. product penetration
a. sales-oriented
Which of the following is NOT a controllable variable in the communications process?
a. senders
b. source
c. message
d. channel
e. receivers
a. senders
An advertiser who is "managing the buzz" is dealing with something that is a topic of conversation for lots of consumers—it is what is hot in society. In terms of the promotional mix, "managing the buzz" would be most closely associated with:
a. corporate advertising
b. sales promotions
c. personal selling
d. publicity and public relations
e. direct-response advertising
d. publicity and public relations
The media plan is a guide for:
a. development of specific creative objectives
b. media selection
c. sales and marketing forecasts and potentials
d. account auditing
e. is accurately described by all of the above
b. media selection
Which of the following has contributed to the problem of advertising clutter on television?
a. the increased use of 30-second and 15-second commercials
b. the use of zipping and zapping techniques by some advertisers
c. the mandate of the National Association of Broadcasters to increase the amount of time available for commercials
d. decisions by the major networks to decrease the number of minutes they make available for commercials
e. all of the above
a. the increased use of 30-second and 15-second commercials
Which the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the use of advertising?
a. ability to control the message
b. low cost per contact
c. ability to create brand images and symbolism
d. immediate feedback
e. control of message content and media placement
d. immediate feedback
During which stage of the consumer decision making process are both functional and psychosocial consequences important?
a. problem recognition
b. information search
c. postpurchase evaluation
d. alternative evaluation
e. purchase decision
c. postpurchase evaluation
Of all out-of-home media, _____ advertising enjoys the highest gross billings and the largest percentage of the market.
a. transit
b. sports stadium
c. airport
d. billboard
e. in-store
d. billboard
Which of the following statements about newspapers and magazines as advertising media is true?
a. Most magazines and newspapers could survive without advertising revenue.
b. Newspapers are a primary source of shopping information for many consumers.
c. The number of daily newspapers in most cities has been increasing due to a dramatic increase in the amount of readily available advertising revenue.
d. Magazines are not really dependent on advertising revenue since they can charge higher prices for their publications.
e. All of the above statements about newspapers and magazines as advertising media are true.
b. Newspapers are a primary source of shopping information for many consumers.
What does it mean when the text describes newspapers and magazines as high-involvement media?
a. They have to be acquired outside the home.
b. Unlike network television, they must be actively sought.
c. They are not purchased using routine purchase decision-making techniques.
d. They generally require consumers to expend some time and energy to process the information they provide.
e. They provide connotative meanings to life.
b. Unlike network television, they must be actively sought.
The primary advertising medium in terms of both ad revenue and number of advertisers is:
a. network television
b. radio
c. magazines
d. newspapers
e. direct mail
a. network television
Which of the following statements about communications objectives is true?
a. When setting objectives using the communications effect pyramid, the last step reached is trial.
b. Sales goal cannot be translated into communications objectives.
c. Marketing and advertising managers do not rely on experience and intuition when setting communications goals.
d. Communications objectives are the criteria used in the DAGMAR approach to setting advertising goals.
e. All of the above statements about communications objectives are true.
d. Communications objectives are the criteria used in the DAGMAR approach to setting advertising goals.
According to the universal advertising standards of the D'Arcy, Masius Benton & Bowles agency, creative and effective advertising:
a. requires synergy
b. does not use a brand personality
c. uses a complex product or brand positioning strategy
d. is careful to not be distinctly different from other advertising
e. neither rewards nor punishes the prospect
a. requires synergy
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons offered for the rapid adoption of the Internet?
a. Consumers desire for information
b. Consumers desire to control the information they receive
c. The ability to target customers effectively
d. The ability of consumers to compare reputable versus questionable data sources
e. The increase in high speed Internet access
d. The ability of consumers to compare reputable versus questionable data sources
Another name for alternative media is:
a. functional communications
b. nontraditional media
c. techno media
d. responsive media
e. nonstructured communications
b. nontraditional media
Examples of the use of alternative media include:
a. a physician's ad in the Yellow Pages
b. the name, address, and phone number of a plumbing company at the bottom of a giveaway calendar
c. a billboard for Friendly Ford on Interstate 75
d. an ad for Cheerwine soft drink on a NASCAR racing vehicle
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
_____ are individuals who act as salespersons for a number of local stations and represent them in their dealings with national advertisers.
a. Station managers
b. Affiliates
c. Negotiators
d. Station reps
e. Sponsors
d. Station reps
Various response hierarchy variables such as awareness, knowledge, interest, attitudes, and intention are the basis for:
a. marketing objectives
b. sales-oriented objectives
c. image objectives
d. communications objectives
e. the carry-over effects
d. communications objectives
Advocates of communication-based objectives for advertising propose using _____ as a basis for setting these objectives.
a. sales
b. market share
c. stages of a hierarchical response model
d. carry-over effects
e. market behavior
c. stages of a hierarchical response model
At what stage of the creative process would consumers in the target audience be asked to evaluate storyboards and animatics?
a. preparation
b. incubation
c. verification/revision
d. illumination
e. verdict
c. verification/revision
National advertisers may use spot television advertising to:
a. concentrate advertising in areas where market potential is the greatest
b. concentrate advertising in areas where more ad support is needed
c. advertise in test market areas
d. offer support and cooperative advertising to local dealers and retailers
e. do all of the above
e. do all of the above
Marketing goals defined in terms of sales, profits, or market share increases are:
a. situational response objectives
b. usually not appropriate for promotional objectives.
c. integrated marketing communications objective
d. relationship marketing objectives
e. internal marketing goals
e. internal marketing goals
Which of the following would be an example of a message source?
a. actress Sarah Michelle Geller in Revlon commercials
b. Writers' Digest magazine
c. the organization in Orlando to promote tourism
d. Michael Jordan
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Arbitron:
a. focuses primarily on measurement of local radio audiences
b. measures listenership to webcasts
c. provides radio stations with monthly cume ratings
d. competes with RADAR as a source of national network rating numbers
e. is accurately described by all of the above
c. provides radio stations with monthly cume ratings
Which of the following statements about aerial advertising is true?
a. Aerial advertising is expensive in absolute.
b. Aerial advertising can be used to reach specific target markets.
c. Aerial advertising is seldom used by local advertisers.
d. Aerial advertising is illegal at sporting events.
e. All of the above statements about aerial advertising are true.
b. Aerial advertising can be used to reach specific target markets.
A spokesperson who delivers an advertising message and/or demonstrates a product or service is known as a(n):
a. direct source
b. indirect source
c. message shaper
d. source mirage
e. source echo
b. indirect source
Which of the following conditions must be met to effectively utilize integrated marketing communications?
a. Individuals working in marketing need to thoroughly understand the creative process of advertising.
b. Advertising agencies need to acquire firms specializing in other areas of marketing communications.
c. Individuals working in marketing, advertising, and other promotional areas need to better understand how to use a variety of marketing communications tools.
d. All promotional mix elements need to be brought under the control of the ad agency
e. All of the above conditions must be met for an effective utilization of integrated marketing communications.
c. Individuals working in marketing, advertising, and other promotional areas need to better understand how to use a variety of marketing communications tools.
Marketers often introduce new brands into markets that are mature and saturated because of consumer's tendency toward:
a. internal search
b. novelty seeking behavior
c. external search
d. brand loyalty
e. habitual choice behavior
b. novelty seeking behavior
A study by Roobina Ohanian of consumers' perceptions of celebrity endorsers found that the characteristic that most influenced consumers' intentions to purchase a product endorsed by a celebrity was perceived:
a. expertise
b. attractiveness
c. trustworthiness
d. similarity
e. likability
b. attractiveness
Marketers often introduce new brands into markets that are mature and saturated because of consumer's tendency toward:
a. internal search
b. novelty seeking behavior
c. external search
d. brand loyalty
e. habitual choice behavior
b. novelty seeking behavior
A study by Roobina Ohanian of consumers' perceptions of celebrity endorsers found that the characteristic that most influenced consumers' intentions to purchase a product endorsed by a celebrity was perceived:
a. expertise
b. attractiveness
c. trustworthiness
d. similarity
e. likability
b. attractiveness
Many marketing managers approach promotion from a(n) _____ perspective and believe the objective of advertising and other promotional mix elements is to relay information about a product to customers.
a. informational
b. communications
c. sales-oriented
d. segmentation
e. product development
a. informational