Year 4 Lrh

Front 1

An acute, non-traumatic haemoabdomen in a big dog is most likely due to which of the following?

a) Splenic Haematoma
b) Splenic Haemangiosarcoma
c) Liver mass
d) DIC
e) Perforated gut mass

Back 1

B. Accounting for 70% of cases. C comes second.

Front 2

Splenectomy is the treatment option of choice for haemangiosarcoma - what is the prognosis without chemotherapy?

a) 2 weeks
b) 3-6 weeks
c) 4-6 months
d) >6 months
e) >2 years

Back 2

B.

Front 3

Splenectomy is the treatment option of choice for haemangiosarcoma - what is the prognosis WITH chemotherapy?

a) 2 weeks
b) 3-6 weeks
c) 4-6 months
d) >6 months
e) >2 years

Back 3

C.

Front 4

Which of the following is NOT a common complication seen during a total splenectomy?

a) Gastritis
b) Pancreatitis

c) DIC

d) Peritonitis

e) Arrhythmias

Back 4

D. The pancreas and gut can have their blood supply compromised during surgery and therefore may see signs.

Front 5

Which of the following is NOT a type of pathogenesis that can be encountered with FeLV?

a) Abortive
b) Regressive
c) Transient
d) Progressive
e) Atypical

Back 5

C. This is a type of FIP.

A = virus cleared
B = Transient viraemia and myelosupp
D = Persistent viraemia
E = Focal / Atypical

Front 6

Which of the following pathogens is responsible for causing FIP?

a) Mycoplasma Felis
b) Retroviridae

c) Panleukopenia

d) Distemper
e) Coronavirus

Back 6

E.

C and D are the same and cause Feline Infectious Enteritis, whilst A causes FIA and B causes FIV and FeLV

Front 7

Which of the following feline viruses can become latent in the bone marrow and cause myelosuppression?

a) FIA
b) FIP

c) FPV

d) FeLV
e) FIV

Back 7

D.

Front 8

Which of the following feline viruses can be spread by flea bites?

a) FIP
b) FIA

c) FPV

d) FeLV
e) FIV

Back 8

B.

Front 9

Which of the following feline viruses can be transmitted via milk?

a) FIA
b) FPV

c) FIP

d) FeLV
e) FIV

Back 9

D.

Front 10

Which of the following feline viruses can increase the chance of lymphoma by 60%?

a) FIA
b) FPV

c) FIP

d) FeLV

Back 10

D. FIV also can increase your likelihood by 5, by its mechanism is unknown

Front 11

Which of the following feline viruses is least likely to cause anaemia on an infected cat's blood profile?

a) FIP
b) FIA

c) FeLV

d) FIV

Back 11

A. All of the others cause myelosuppression / haemolysis

Front 12

Which of the following feline diseases can be controlled (but not cured) by Zidovudine?

a) FIP
b) FPV

c) FeLV

d) FIV
e) FIA

Back 12

D. Zidovudine is an anti-viral drug that prevents further replication, but cannot cure the pre-existing disease

Front 13

What is the most common pathophysiology seen in FIP?

a) Transient Infection
b) Persistent Infection

c) FIP

d) Resistent Infection
e) Latent Infection

Back 13

A. 70% of cases are short.

Front 14

Which of the following organs can both PRODUCE and DIFFERENTIATE lymphoid cells?

a) Bone Marrow
b) Liver

c) Spleen

d) Thymus
e) Lymph Node

Back 14

C. Production is from the BM / Spleen / Liver
Differentiation is from the Thymus / Spleen / LN

Front 15

When evaluating the amount of leukocytes on a blood smear manually, at least how many fields of view should you use to ensure a fair result?

a) 2
b) 5

c) 8

d) 10
e) 15

Back 15

D.

Front 16

Why might leukocytes not be visible on a blood smear in an acute infection?

Back 16

Because myeloid stem cells take 4-5 days to differentiate

Front 17

Which type of leukocyte is shown here?

a) Monocyte
b) Basophil

c) Eosinophil

d) Segmented Neutrophil
e) Band Neutrophil

Back 17

D.

Front 18

Which type of leukocyte is shown here?

a) Monocyte
b) Basophil

c) Eosinophil

d) Segmented Neutrophil
e) Band Neutrophil

Back 18

E.

Front 19

Which type of leukocyte is shown on the right?

a) Monocyte
b) Basophil

c) Eosinophil

d) Segmented Neutrophil
e) Band Neutrophil

Back 19

A. NOT A BAND NEUTROPHIL. Neutrophils are more granular.

Front 20

Which type of leukocyte is shown on the right?

a) Monocyte
b) Basophil

c) Eosinophil

d) Segmented Neutrophil
e) Band Neutrophil

Back 20

B.

Front 21

Which type of leukocyte is shown on the right?

a) Monocyte
b) Basophil

c) Eosinophil

d) Segmented Neutrophil
e) Band Neutrophil

Back 21

C.

Front 22

Which of the following feline breeds is most predisposed to lymphoma?

a) Burmese
b) Siamese
c) DSH
d) Ragdoll
e) Maine Coon

Back 22

B.

Front 23

Which of the following presentations of lymphoma is most common in dogs?

a) Extranodal
b) GIT
c) Renal
d) Skin
e) Multicentric

Back 23

E. Generalised lymphadenomegaly (80%)

Front 24

Which of the following presentations of lymphoma is most common in cats?

a) Extranodal
b) GIT
c) Renal
d) Skin
​e) Multicentric

Back 24

B. (50%)

Front 25

Which of the following regarding a mediastinal lymphoma is false?

a) It causes hypercalcaemia in 10-40% of dogs
b) It usually occurs at a younger age in cats
c) It can cause Horner's Syndrome
d) Most are B Cell lyphomas
​e) Lung sounds are usually reduced ventrally

Back 25

D. They are mostly T Cells

Front 26

Which of the following signs would NOT be seen in a dog with lymphoma and paraneoplastic hypercalcaemia?

a) PUPD
b) Vomiting
c) Constipation

d) Tachycardia
e) Muscle Tremors

Back 26

D. You would likely see bradyarrythmias

Front 27

Which of the following statements regarding the grade of lymphomas in dogs and cats is most true?

a) Dogs are mostly high and cats are mostly low
b) Dogs are mostly high, and cats vary
c) Dogs are mostly low, and cats are mostly low

d) Dogs are mostly low, and cats are mostly high
e) Dog can vary, whilst cats are mostly high

Back 27

B.

Front 28

Which of the following diagnostic tests is most commonly used to differentiate between a T Cell and B Cell Lymphoma?

a) PARR
b) Flow Cytometry
c) LN FNA and Cytology

d) ELISA
e) Bone Marrow Aspirate

Back 28

B.

Front 29

Which of the following diagnostic tests is most commonly used to differentiate between a malignant and reactive lymph node?

a) PARR
b) Flow Cytometry
c) ELISA

d) BM Aspirate
e) LN Aspirate and Cytology

Back 29

A. PCR for Antigen Receptor Rearrangements
(1 band = malignant. Multiple bands = reactive)

Front 30

If an owner has financial constraints, which of the following stages in lymphoma diagnostics is NOT compulsory in a cat?

a) Flow Cytometry
b) FNA and Cytology
c) Full organ work up (haem/biochem/urin)

d) Tumour Staging
e) FeLV / FIV testing

Back 30

D. Staging is not always necessary, but is ideal. A full organ work up should be done to see if the patient is suitable for chemotherapy

Front 31

Which of the following treatments is most suitable for a dog with lymphoma, whose owner does not wish to use chemotherapy?

a) Doxycycline
b) Cyclophosphamide
c) Vincristine

d) Prednisolone
e) Azothiaprine

Back 31

D.

Front 32

Which of the following is NOT a classification of lymphoma monitoring?

a) Complete Remission (No ^LNs)
b) Partial Remission (>30% reduction)
c) Stable Disease
d) Progressive Disease (>20% increase)
e) Deteriorating Disease (>50% increase)

Back 32

E.

Front 33

What is the best way to monitor for lymphoma progression in dogs?

a) Measure LNs
b) Radiography
c) Repeat FNAs
d) Repeat bloods
e) Body Weight

Back 33

A. Although all of these are suitable, LNs are typically affected in the dogs and can be used well as markers for progression.

Front 34

Which of the following chemotherapy drugs can cause haemorrhagic cystitis when treating for lymphoma?

a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Chlorambucil
c) Vincristine
d) Doxorubicin

​e) Lomustine

Back 34

A.

Front 35

What is the main side effect seen in dogs with lymphoma being treated with Doxorubicin?

a) PUPD
b) Diabetes
c) Hyperadrenocorticism
d) Renal Failure
​e) DCM

Back 35

E. Ideally ECHO dogs prior to treatment.

Front 36

How would you most accurately differentiate Stage V Lymphoma (involving the bone marrow) from Acute Lymphoid Leukaemia?

a) Cytopenias are worse in ALL
b) LNs are bigger in ALL
c) CD34 Flow Cytometry
d) Clinical signs are usually worse with ALL
​e) Bone Marrow Aspirate

Back 36

C. ALL is CD34 +ve as precursors for T Cells are involved.

Front 37

Which of the following paraneoplastic signs is associated with multiple myeloma?

a) Muscle Tremors and PUPD
b) Hyperviscosity
c) Ataxia and possible blindless
d) Anaemia
​e) Megaoesophagus

Back 37

B. Associated with hyperglobinaemia from the plasma cells.

Front 38

What is the Median Survival Time for a dog with Multiple Myeloma?

a) 2 weeks
b) 6-10 weeks
c) 2-3 months
d) 12-18 months
​e) >3 years

Back 38

D.

Front 39

"Endemic Stability" is a principle associated with which large animal disease? (Describe it)

a) Anaplasmosis
b) Babesiosis
c) Louping Ill
d) West Nile Virus
​e) Schmallenberg Virus

Back 39

B. Because calves usually develop immunity at 6 months old and become asymptomatic carriers, without the presence of ticks, immunity can be impaired and cause disease later on in life.

Front 40

Which of the following tests should be done to determine the SPECIES of Babesia in a cow?

a) Smear with methanol and Giemsa
b) Smear with just Giemsa
c) PCR with tail blood
d) IFA with tail blood
​e) ELISA

Back 40

A. This is called a THIN slide, as it is fixed. This enables identification of species

Front 41

Which of the following tests should be done to accurately DIAGNOSE Babesia presence in a cow?

a) Smear with methanol and Giemsa
b) Smear with just Giemsa
c) PCR with tail blood
d) IFA with tail blood
​e) ELISA

Back 41

B. This is called a THICK slide, without fixing. This causes RBC lysis and concentrates the amount of parasites, allowing for better identification.

Front 42

Which of the following diseases can infect both cows, horses, sheep, goats, dogs and humans?

a) Louping Ill
b) Tick-Bourne Fever

c) West Nile Virus
d) Schmallenberg Virus

Back 42

B.

Front 43

Which of the following diseases can be diagnosed by the AGID test?

a) EIV
b) EVA

c) EIA
d) EHV
e) All of the above

Back 43

C. The Coggin's Test!

Front 44

Which of the following arthobod bourne diseases requires Culicoides species as a vector?

a) West Nile Virus
b) Babesia

c) Crimean-Congo Haemorrhagic Fever
d) Equine Infectious Anaemia
e) Bluetongue Virus

Back 44

E. As well as Schmallenberg

Front 45

Which of the following arthrobod bourne diseases requires Anopheles as a vector?

a) EIA
b) Babesia

c) FIA
d) WNV
e) Anaplasma

Back 45

D.

Front 46

Which of the following pathogen manifests itself inside canine monocytes?

a) Babesia Canis Canis
b) Anaplasma Phagocytophilum

c) Leishmania
d) Bartonella Henselae
e) Borrelia
f) Ehrilichia Canis

Back 46

F. See morulae on smear

Front 47

Which of the following pathogen manifests itself inside canine macrophages?

a) Babesia Canis Canis
b) Anaplasma Phagocytophilum

c) Leishmania
d) Bartonella Henselae
e) Borrelia
f) Ehrilichia Canis

Back 47

C. Skin/Proteinuria signs.

Front 48

Which of the following pathogen requires Phlebotomas (the sandfly) as a vector?

a) Babesia Canis Canis
b) Anaplasma Phagocytophilum

c) Leishmania
d) Bartonella Henselae
e) Borrelia
f) Ehrilichia Canis

Back 48

C.

Front 49

Which of the following pathogens is visible here?

a) Babesia Canis Canis
b) Anaplasma Phagocytophilum

c) Leishmania
d) Bartonella Henselae
e) Borrelia
f) Ehrilichia Canis

Back 49

C. Trophozoites

Front 50

Which of the following pathogen is seen here?

a) Babesia Canis Canis
b) Anaplasma Phagocytophilum

c) Leishmania
d) Bartonella Henselae
e) Borrelia
f) Ehrilichia Canis

Back 50

A.

Front 51

Which of the following pathogen is seen here?

a) Babesia Canis Canis
b) Anaplasma Phagocytophilum

c) Leishmania
d) Bartonella Henselae
e) Borrelia
f) Ehrilichia Canis

Back 51

F. Morulae inside macrophage

Front 52

In which of the following diseases does the dog play an incidental host via the sylvatic cycle?

a) Anaplasmosis
b) Lyme Disease
c) Leishmaniosis
d) Ehrlichiosis
e) Bartonellosis

Back 52

B. Via humans

Front 53

In which of the following diseases is inflammatory polyarthritis quite a characteristic sign?

a) Borreliosis
b) Babesiosis
c) Ehrlichiosis
d) Leishmania
​e) Anaplasmosis

Back 53

A. Lyme disease!

Front 54

Which of the following prophylactics will NOT protect against Dirofilaria?

a) Selamectin (Stronghold)
b) Milbemycin (Milbemax)
c) Imidacloprid (Advantage)
d) Moxidectin (Advocate)

Back 54

C.

Front 55

Which of the following arthopod-bourne diseases in most commonly found in the cat?

a) Borrelia
b) Babesia
c) Dirofilaria
d) Leishmania
​e) Bartonella

Back 55

E. Via RBCs and FLEAS