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305 Cards in this Set

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The papillary layer of the dermis is most closely associated with the _____________ layer of the epidermis.

Stratum basale.

The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis are composed mainly of ___________.

Connective tissue.

Collagen lends ________ to the skin.

Elasticity.

True or false: The hypodermis is a source of blood vessels in the epidermis.

False.

The hair matrix contains _________.

A layer of basal cells.

Sebaceous glands are a type of ________.

Sweat gland.

In humans, exposure of the skin to sunlight is required for _____.

Vitamin D synthesis.

An individual using a sharp knife notices a small amount of blood where he just cut himself. Which layer of skin did he have to cut into in order to bleed?

The papillary dermis.

If you cut yourself and bacteria enter the wound, what cells would help get rid of the bacteria?

Langerhans cells.

Bedsores are preventable by ______________.

Eliminating pressure points.

After a skin injury, the body initiated a wound-healing response. The first step of this response is the formation of a blood clot to stop bleeding. What is the next response?

An increase in Pacinian corpuscles around the wound.

What determines the color of skin?

Melanin.

Melanin is produced by _______.

Melanocytes.

What is the process that darkens skin when it is exposed to UV light?

Exposure to UV irradiation stimulates the melanocytes to produce and secrete more melanin.

Apocrine glands are associated with __________.

Hair follicles.

Where can you find eccrine sweat glands?

All over the body, especially the forehead and palms of the hands.

What does eccrine sweat glands release?

They release a watery sweat, mixed with some metabolic waste and antibodies.

Which are larger- apocrine or eccrine sweat glands?

Apocrine.

_________ sweat glands are larger than eccrine sweat glands and like deeper in the dermis, sometimes even reaching the hypodermis.

Apocrine sweat glands.

_________ release a thicker sweat that is often decomposed by bacteria on the skin, resulting in an unpleasant odor.

Apocrine sweat glands.

Acne results from ________.

A blockage of sebaceous glands by sebum.

________ is a type of sweat gland that is associated with hair follicles in the armpits and genital regions.

Apocrine sweat glands.

_______ is a smooth muscle that is activated in response to external stimuli that pill on hair follicles and make hair “stand up”.

Arrector pili.

_________ is the cancer than originated from basal cells in the epidermis of the skin.

Basal cell carcinoma.

_______ is the extension of the papillary layer of the dermis that increases surface contact between the epidermis and dermis.

Dermal papilla.

The ________ is the layer of skin between the epidermis and hypodermis. It is composed mainly of connective tissue and containing blood vessels, hair follicles, sweat glands, and other structures.

Dermis.

The ________ is a structure that forms an impermeable junction between cells.

Desmosome.

_________ is a clear protein-bound lipid found in the stratum lucidum that is derived from keratohyalin and helps to prevent water loss.

Eleiden.

The ________ is the nail fold that meets the proximal end of the nail body, also called the cuticle.

Eponychium.

The ________ is the nail fold that meets the proximal end of the nail body, also called the cuticle.

Eponychium.

The __________ is a superficial burn that injures only the epidermis.

First-degree burn.

A ________ is a burn in which full thickness of the skin and underlying muscle and bone is damaged.

Fourth-degree burn.

A ________ is a burn in which full thickness of the skin and underlying muscle and bone is damaged.

Fourth-degree burn.

The ________ is the structure at the base of the hair root that surrounds the dermal papilla.

Hair bulb.

The ________ is the cavity or sac from which hair originates.

Hair follicle.

_____ is the layer of basal cells from which a strand of hair grows.

Hair matrix.

__________ is a mass of connective tissue, blood capillaries, and nerve endings at the base of the hair follicle.

Hair papilla.

________ is the part of hair that is below the epidermis anchored to the follicle.

Hair root.

________ is the part of hair that is above the epidermis but is not anchored to the follicle.

Hair shaft.

________ is the keratinous filament growing out of the epidermis.

Hair.

__________ is the connective tissue connecting the integumentary to the underlying bone and muscle.

Hypodermis.

The integumentary system can be described as...

The skin and its accessory structures.

A ______ is a type of scar that has layers raised above the skin surface.

Keloid.

_________ is a type of structural protein that gives skin, hair. And nails it’s hard, water-resistant properties.

Keratin.

_________ is a granulated protein found in the stratum granulosum.

Keratohyalin.

_______________ are specializes dendritic cells found in the stratum spinosum that function as macrophages.

Langerhans cells.

_______________ are specializes dendritic cells found in the stratum spinosum that function as macrophages.

Langerhans cells.

Langerhans cells are found in the _________.

Stratum spinosum.

__________ is a receptor in the skin that responds to light touch.

Meissner corpuscle. (Tactile corpuscle.)

__________ is a receptor cell in the stratum basale of the epidermis that responds to the sense of touch.

Merkel cell.

Melanocytes are found in the ___________.

Stratum basale.

___________ is a type of skin cancer that originates from the melanocytes of the skin.

Melanoma.

What are the 6 functions of the skin as an organ system?

(1) Protection.


(2) Body temp. regulation.


(3) Cutaneous Sensations.


(4) Metabolic functions.


(5) Blood reservoir.


(6) Excretion.

What is involved in the PROTECTION function of the skin?

It acts as a physical, chemical, and biological barrier.

What is involved in the CUTANEOUS SENSATIONS function of the skin?

The skin has...


- Meissner’s corpuscles that sense light touch.


- Pascinian corpuscles that sense vibration and deep pressure.


- Free nerve endings that sense pain.


- Hair follicle receptors that pick up on surface sensation.

What is involved with the METABOLIC FUNCTIONS function of the skin?

The skin is involved in vitamin D synthesis, melanin, and keratin.

What is involved with the METABOLIC FUNCTIONS function of the skin?

The skin is involved in vitamin D synthesis, melanin, and keratin.

What is involved with the EXCRETION function of the skin?

It involves the excretion of metabolic wastes and salt in sweat.

The skin is water-resistant due to ______, made by _________ in the stratum basale.

Keratin; Keratinocytes.

What are the 5 layers of the epidermis?

(1) stratum corneum


(2) stratum lucidum


(3) stratum granulosum


(4) stratum spinosum


(5) stratum basale.

The stratum _________ contains lamellae granules.

Granulosum.

The stratum _________ contains lamellae granules.

Granulosum.

The stratum ________ contains keratinocytes.

Spinosum.

The stratum _______ contains merkel cells and melanocytes.

Basale.

The _____________ is between the epidermis and dermis.

Dermal papilla.

The stratum _________ is a single layer of cells composed primarily of basal cells.

Basale.

A basal cell is a precursor of __________.

Keratinocytes.

Cells are constantly going through mitosis in the stratum __________.

Basale.

_________ stimulate sensory receptors.

Merkel cells.

_________ stimulate sensory receptors.

Merkel cells.

__________ are cells that produce the pigment melanin.

Melanocytes.

Merkel cells and melanocytes are found in the __________ (layer).

Stratum basale.

What is the function of melanin?

Provides color/pigment and protection from UV rays.

The stratum _________ has 8-10 layers of keratinocytes and contains langerhans cells.

Spinosum.

The stratum _________ is composed of 3-5 layers. Keratin and keratohyalin give it it’s grainy appearance.

Granulosum.

The stratum ________ appears translucent due to eleidan.

Lucidum.

The stratum ______ is exposed to the outside environment and is composed of 15-30 layers.

Corneum.

The ______ is the “core” of the skin. It contains blood and lymph vessels, nerves, and other structures such as hair follicles and sweat glands.

Dermis.

The ______ is the “core” of the skin. It contains blood and lymph vessels, nerves, and other structures such as hair follicles and sweat glands.

Dermis.

The ________ of the dermis is made up of loose areolar connective tissue and contains fibroblasts, adipocytes, small blood vessels, phagocytes, lymphatic capillaries, nerve fibers, and Meissner’s corpuscles.

Papillary layer.

The __________ is composed of dense irregular connective tissue, it is well vascularized and has a rich sensory and sympathetic nerve supply.

Reticular layer.

The ___________ appears reticulated due to tight mesh work of fibers. Elastin fibers and collagen fibers are found here.

Reticular layer.

The _________ is the subcutaneous layer/superficial fascia. It serves to connect the skin to the underlying fascia (fibrous tissue) of bones and muscles. It consists of well-vascularized loose, areolar connective tissue and adipose tissue.

Hypodermis.

Langerhans cells are also called __________ cells.

Dendritic.

___________ cells are found in the stratum spinosum. They participate in immune responses by engulfing bacteria, foreign particles, and damaged cells.

Langerhans.

Minerals make bone ______.

Hard.

What is the function of hair?

(1) Protection.


(2) Sensory input.


(3) Thermoregulation.


(4) Communication.

What is the function of hair?

(1) Protection.


(2) Sensory input.


(3) Thermoregulation.


(4) Communication.

What is the function of nails?

(1) Protection.


(2) Support.


(3) Counter pressure for touch, perception, and manipulation.


(4) Allows grasping.


(5) Used to scratch and groom.

What are the two types of sweat glands?

Eccrine and apocrine.

Eccrine sweat consists of...

99% water, NaCl, vitamin C, antibodies, dermacidin, metabolic wastes.

Eccrine sweat consists of...

99% water, NaCl, vitamin C, antibodies, dermacidin, metabolic wastes.

In eccrine sweat glands the ducts lead to...

They lead to pores on the surface of the skin.

Eccrine sweat consists of...

99% water, NaCl, vitamin C, antibodies, dermacidin, metabolic wastes.

In eccrine sweat glands the ducts lead to...

They lead to pores on the surface of the skin.

Thermoregulation is one _______ sweat glands function.

Eccrine.

Where are apocrine sweat glands found?

Axillary and anogenital regions.

Apocrine sweat glands secrete...

Sebum. Sweat, lipids, and proteins.

Apocrine sweat gland ducts lead to...

Hair follicles.

Apocrine sweat glands are not active until...

After puberty.

Which glands are sudoriferous?

The two sweat glands: Eccrine & Apocrine.

What are the glands that use the merocrine secretory process?

Sweat glands- eccrine & apocrine.

Sebaceous glands use the _________ secretory process.

Holocrine.

Sebaceous glands are found over the entire body except for...

The palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

___________ or _________ glands are found in the eyelids and are a specialized sebaceous gland.

Meibomian; Tarsal.

____________ glands are modified sweat glands found in the external ears.

Ceruminous.

Cerumen is secretes by the ceruminous glands and can be described as...

A waxy, lubricating secretion that impedes entrance into the war and waterproofs the war canal.

Eumelanin (melanin) brings about a __________ pigment.

Brown/Black.

Pheomelanin (melanin) brings about a _________ pigment.

Red.

What are the two types of melanin?

Eumelanin and pheomelanin.

________ is the generic inability to produce melanin.

Albinism.

_________ : red color did to the amount of oxygen in the blood. It is best seen in light skinned individuals.

Hemoglobin.

_________ produces a yellow-orange color, it is stored in fatty areas and stratum corneum and can be converted to vitamin A.

Carotene.

_________ (or ______) can be seen when blushing, fever, hypertension, inflammation, and/or allergy take place.

Erythema (redness)

_______ (or ________) can be seen when someone is afraid or fearful, angry, under emotional stress, anemic, or has low blood pressure.

Pallor (blanching)

___________ (or _________-ness) can be seen in individuals with liver disorders.

Jaundice (yellow)

__________ (or ________) can be seen in someone with Addison’s disease, or pituitary gland tumors.

Bronzing (metallic)

___________ (or _________) can be seen when blood escapes from capillaries, or a clotted mass/hematoma.

Black and blue (bruising).

First degree burns involve damage to the...

Epidermis.

Second degree burns involve damage to...

The epidermis and upper dermis.

Third degree burns involve damage to the...

The epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis.

Fourth degree burns involve damage to...

All the way down to the bone.

_________ is the most common skin cancer, is the least malignant, and rarely metastasizes.

Basal cell carcinoma.

_________ is the most common skin cancer, is the least malignant, and rarely metastasizes.

Basal cell carcinoma.

__________ is the second most common skin cancer, it is derived from the keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum. It can metastasize if not removed.

Squamous cell carcinoma.

Melanoma has the ABCD rule. What does that stand for?

ABCD: Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color, Diameter.

What are the 5 functions of the skeletal system?

(1) Supports the body.


(2) Facilitates movement.


(3) Protects internal organs.


(4) Produces blood cells. (Hematapoiesis.)


(5) Stores/Releases minerals & fats.

What are the components of the skeletal system?

Bone & cartilage.

What is the DIAPHYSIS of a long bone?

The tubular shaft that runs between the proximal and distal ends of a long bone.

What is the EPIPHYSIS of a long bone?

The wide section at the end of each bone, it is filled with spongy bone and red bone marrow.

What is the EPIPHYSIS of a long bone?

The wide section at the end of each bone, it is filled with spongy bone and red bone marrow.

What is the METAPHYSIS of a long bone?

It is between the epiphysis and diaphysis. It contains the growth plate. As it grows it ossifies.

What is the EPIPHYSIS of a long bone?

The wide section at the end of each bone, it is filled with spongy bone and red bone marrow.

What is the METAPHYSIS of a long bone?

It is between the epiphysis and diaphysis. It contains the growth plate. As it grows it ossifies.

Diploë belongs to __________.

Flat bones.

What is diploë?

A layer of spongy bone that is sandwiched between 2 layers of compact bone found in flat bones. (Ex: skull.)

What is the epiphyseal plate?

The area of growth in a long bone. It is a layer of hyaline cartilage where ossification occurs in immature bones.

__________ is the completely ossified remnant of the epiphyseal plate.

Epiphyseal line.

_________ is the sheet of hyaline cartilage in the metaphysis of an immature bone.

Epiphyseal plate.

What is the PERIOSTEUM?

The fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of the bone (and continuous with ligaments).

What is the PERIOSTEUM?

The fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of the bone (and continuous with ligaments).

What is the ENDOSTEUM?

The delicate membranous lining of a bones medullary cavity.

________________ is dense and strong. It is found under the periosteum and in the diaphysis of long bones.

Compact bone tissue.

You will find the following structures in __________: osteons, central canals, perforating (volkmann’s) canals, lacunae, lamellae, and canaliculi.

Compact bone tissue.

Spongy bone tissue is also called ___________.

Cancellous bone.

Spongy bone tissue is also called ___________.

Cancellous bone.

_________ contains no osteons. Contains a lattice-like network of matrix spikes called trabeculae.

Spongy bone tissue.

You can find the following structures in ________: trabeculae, lacunae, canaliculi, and lamellae.

Spongy bone tissue (or cancellous bone).

You can find the following structures in ________: trabeculae, lacunae, canaliculi, and lamellae.

Spongy bone tissue (or cancellous bone).

_________ is dense osseous tissue that can withstand compressive forces.

Compact bone.

You can find the following structures in ________: trabeculae, lacunae, canaliculi, and lamellae.

Spongy bone tissue (or cancellous bone).

_________ is dense osseous tissue that can withstand compressive forces.

Compact bone.

____________ is trabeculated osseous tissue that supports shifts in weight distribution.

Spongy bone (or cancellous bone).

______________ is the process by such bone forms directly from mesenchymal tissue.

Intramembranous ossification.

______________ is the process by such bone forms directly from mesenchymal tissue.

Intramembranous ossification.

______________ is the process in which bone forms by replacing (the initial template of) hyaline cartilage.

Endochondral ossification.

______________ is the process by such bone forms directly from mesenchymal tissue.

Intramembranous ossification.

______________ is the process in which bone forms by replacing (the initial template of) hyaline cartilage.

Endochondral ossification.

Intramembranous ossification: mesenchymal cells differentiate into ___________.

Osteoblasts.

______________ is the process by such bone forms directly from mesenchymal tissue.

Intramembranous ossification.

______________ is the process in which bone forms by replacing (the initial template of) hyaline cartilage.

Endochondral ossification.

Intramembranous ossification: mesenchymal cells differentiate into ___________.

Osteoblasts.

Endochondral ossification: mesenchymal cells differentiate into __________.

Chondrocytes.

What is appositional growth?

When a bone grows wide/Growth in diameter (outside).

What is appositional growth?

When a bone grows wide/Growth in diameter (outside).

What is longitudinal growth (in bones)?

When a bone grows longer.

What is appositional growth?

When a bone grows wide/Growth in diameter (outside).

What is longitudinal growth (in bones)?

When a bone grows longer.

______________ growth happens inside the growth plate, between the structures in the area surrounding the cells.

Interstitial.

Think: inside.

What is appositional growth?

When a bone grows wide/Growth in diameter (outside).

What is longitudinal growth (in bones)?

When a bone grows longer.

______________ growth happens inside the growth plate, between the structures in the area surrounding the cells.

Interstitial.

Think: inside.

What is interstitial growth?

The growth taking place inside the growth plate, between the structure, in the area surrounding the cells.

_____________ is the ongoing replacement of old bone with new bone that occurs in adult life. It involve bone resurfacing and bone decomposition on the same surface.

Bone remodeling.

_____________ is the ongoing replacement of old bone with new bone that occurs in adult life. It involve bone respiration and bone decomposition on the same surface.

Bone remodeling.

About ________ percent of the skeleton is remodeled annually.

5-10.

What are the steps of endochondral ossification?

(1) Mesenchymal cells differentiate into chondrocytes.


(2) The cartilage model of the future bony skeleton and perichondrium form.


(3) Capillaries penetrate cartilage. Perichondrium transform into periosteum. Periosteal collar develops. Primary ossification center develops.


(4) Cartilage and chondrocytes continue to grow at ends of the bones.


(5) Secondary ossification centers develop.


(6) Cartilage remains at epiphyseal (growth) plate and at joint surface as articular cartilage.

Bones at the base of the skull and long bones form via ____________.

Endochondral ossification.

The flat bones of the face, most of the cranial bones, and the clavicles are formed via _____________.

Intramembranous ossification.

What are the stages of bone repair?

(1) Bleeding and clotting.


(2) Clotting forms a fracture hematoma.


(3) Bond cells die around injury.


(4) Chondrocytes create an INTERNAL callus by secreting fibrocartilage into the break.


(5) Periosteal chondrocytes and osteoblasts create an EXTERNAL callus out of hyaline cartilage and bone- stabilizing the fracture.


(6) Osteoclasts resorb dead bone, osteogenic cells become osteoblasts and cartilage is replaced by trabecular bone.


(7) Compact bone then replaces spongy bone and the healing is done.

During bone healing, how is an internal callus made?

Chondrocytes create an internal callus by secreting fibrocartilage into the break.

During bone healing, how is an internal callus made?

Chondrocytes create an internal callus by secreting fibrocartilage into the break.

During bone healing, how is the external callus formed?

Periosteal chondrocytes and osteoblasts create an external callus out of hyaline cartilage and bone.

How does the parathyroid hormone influence/effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

It stimulates the osteoclasts, increases calcium in the blood, stimulates calcium resorption in the kidneys and small intestines, stimulates vitamin D synthesis.

How does calcitonin effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

It inhibits osteoclasts, stimulates osteoblasts, decreases calcium in bone.

How does calcitonin effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

It inhibits osteoclasts, stimulates osteoblasts, decreases calcium in bone.

How does growth hormone effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

It increases the length of bones, enhances mineralization, and improves bone density.

How does the hormone THYROXINE effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

Thyroxine stimulates bone growth and promotes synthesis of bone matrix.

How does the hormone THYROXINE effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

Thyroxine stimulates bone growth and promotes synthesis of bone matrix.

How do sex hormone effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

Sex hormones promote osteoblastic activity and production of bone matrix. It is responsible for the adolescent growth spurt. Promotes the conversion of the epiphyseal plate into the epiphyseal line.

How does the hormone THYROXINE effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

Thyroxine stimulates bone growth and promotes synthesis of bone matrix.

How do sex hormone effect bone growth/bone tissue loss?

Sex hormones promote osteoblastic activity and production of bone matrix. It is responsible for the adolescent growth spurt. Promotes the conversion of the epiphyseal plate into the epiphyseal line.

____________ (hormone) stimulates the absorption of calcium and phosphate from the digestive tract.

Calcitriol.

What type of bone functions in leverage?

Long bones.

What type of bone functions in providing stability and support while allowing for some motion?

Short bones.

What type of bone functions in providing points of attachment for muscles and protecting internal organs?

Flat bones.

What type of bones functions in protecting internal organs?

Irregular bones.

What type of bones functions in protecting tendons from compressive forces?

Sesamoid bones.

____________ fracture is caused by falling on an outstretched arm.

Colles fracture.

_______________ is a bone disease characterized by a decrease in bone mass, reduction in thickness of compact bone and size of trabeculae, and it is common after menopause in women.

Osteoporosis.

________________ is brittle bone disease. Bones do not form properly, are fragile and easily broken. It effects the bodies production of collagen. Leads to deformities. There is no cure.

Osteogenesis imperfecta.

___________ is a bone disease characterized by a disorder of bone remodeling process- overactive osteoclasts, osteoblasts try to compensate but the new bone that is laid down is weak and brittle and prone to fractures.

Paget’s disease.

_____calcemia causes the muscles and therefore the heart to beat improperly.

Hypocalcemia.

List the 4 simplified steps of fractured bone healing.

(1) Hematoma.


(2) Fibrocartilage callus. (Inside)


(3) Bony (hyaline) callus. (Outside)


(4) Remodeling.

A(n) _____ fracture is at an angle, but not necessarily from twisting mechanism.

Oblique fracture.

A(n) ___________ fracture can be described as “blowing everything apart”. It often requires surgery.

Comminuted fracture.

A(n) _________ fracture can be described as “bone shoved into bone.”

Impacting fracture.

_________ makes up the model for long bones, the embryonic model.

Hyaline cartilage.

____________ tissue turns into flat bones.

Fibrous connective tissue.

___________ is released when blood calcium levels fall, it stimulates osteoclasts which break down bone and release hydroxyapatite.

Parathyroid hormone.

What is Wolf’s Law?

Stress on bone builds bone.

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?

The axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton.

What bones does the axial skeleton contain?

The axial skeleton contains the skull, vertebral column, thoracic cafe, hyoid bone, and ear ossicles.

What bones does the axial skeleton contain?

The axial skeleton contains the skull, vertebral column, thoracic cafe, hyoid bone, and ear ossicles.

What bones does the appendicular skeleton contain?

The appendicular skeleton contains the extremities and their girdles (pectoral and pelvic).

What bones does the axial skeleton contain?

The axial skeleton contains the skull, vertebral column, thoracic cafe, hyoid bone, and ear ossicles.

What bones does the appendicular skeleton contain?

The appendicular skeleton contains the extremities and their girdles (pectoral and pelvic).

What are the cranial bones?

The cranial bones are...


Frontal


Parietal


Occipital


Temporal


Sphenoid


Ethmoid

What bones does the axial skeleton contain?

The axial skeleton contains the skull, vertebral column, thoracic cage, hyoid bone, and ear ossicles.

What bones does the appendicular skeleton contain?

The appendicular skeleton contains the extremities and their girdles (pectoral and pelvic).

What are the cranial bones?

The cranial bones are...


Frontal


Parietal


Occipital


Temporal


Sphenoid


Ethmoid

_____________ forms the forehead, roofs of the eye orbits, and most of the anterior cranial floor.

The frontal bone.

The __________ forms greater portion of sides and roof of cranial cavity.

Parietal bones.

The ________ forms the posterior part and most of the base of the skull.

Occipital bone.

The ________ forms the posterior part and most of the base of the skull.

Occipital bone.

The ______________ is where the medulla oblongata connects with the spinal cord.

Foramen magnum.

The occipital condyles articulate with the ___________.

Atlas.

The external occipital protuberance and nuchal lines are areas of ________.

Muscle attachment.

The _______ forms the inferior lateral sides of the skull and part of the cranial floor.

Temporal bones.

The _______ forms the inferior lateral sides of the skull and part of the cranial floor.

Temporal bones.

The ____________ articulates with the _________ forming the temporomandibular joint.

Mandibular fossa; mandible.

The _____________ directs sound waves into the ear.

External acoustic meatus.

____________ house internal carotid arteries carrying blood to the brain.

Carotid canals.

The ___________ is the keystone of the cranial floor- articulates with all the other cranial bones, holding them together.

Sphenoid bone.

The ___________ is the keystone of the cranial floor- articulates with all the other cranial bones, holding them together.

Sphenoid bone.

Inside the sphenoid body is the ____________.

Sphenoid sinus.

The ___________ is the keystone of the cranial floor- articulates with all the other cranial bones, holding them together.

Sphenoid bone.

Inside the sphenoid body is the ____________.

Sphenoid sinus.

The ___________ in the sphenoid bone contains the pituitary gland.

Sells turcica.

The _____________ form muscles attachments for muscles that move the mandible.

Pteryoid processes.

The __________ forms the superior part of the nasal septum.

Ethmoid bone.

The ________ forms the roof of the nasal cavity and contains olfactory foramina through which smell sensations are transmitted to the brain.

Cribriform plate.

The Crista Galli serves as an attachment site for the ____________.

Meninges.

There are __________ air spaces inside the ethmoid bone that form the ethmoid sinuses.

3-18.

___________ are extra bone pieces that occur within a suture in the cranium. They are mostly found in the lambdoid suture.

Wormian bones.

What is the smallest facial bone?

The lacrimal bone(s).

What are the three smallest bones in the body?

The auditory ossicles: stapes, incus, malleus.

What are the three smallest bones in the body?

The auditory ossicles: stapes, incus, malleus.

The orbit is made up of which 3 cranial bones? And which 4 facial bones?

Cranial bones: frontal, sphenoid, and ethmoid.


Facial bones: palatine, zygomatic, lacrimal, and maxilla.

_____________ are lined with nasal mucosa, filled with air, communicate with the nasal cavity, lighten the skull, and add resonance to the voice.

Paranasal sinuses.

The sacrum is made up of _______ fused vertebrae.

Five.

The sacrum is made up of _______ fused vertebrae.

Five.

The coccyx is made up for _____ fused vertebrae.

Four.

What curves are primary curves?

The thoracic and sacral.

What curves are primary curves?

The thoracic and sacral.

Which curves of the vertebral column are secondary?

The cervical and lumbar curves.

When is the cervical curve formed?

When babies hold their heads up.

When is the cervical curve formed?

When babies hold their heads up.

When are the lumbar curves formed?

When babies begin to sit and walk.

In intervertebral disc the animus fibrous is the....

Fibrocartilage outer ring.

In intervertebral disc the animus fibrous is the....

Fibrocartilage outer ring.

In intervertebral discs the nucleus pulposus is...

The pulpy elastic tissue.

The _________ is attached to the cervical spinous processes abs the external occipital protuberance. It supports the skull and prevents it from falling forward.

The nuchal ligament.

The ____________ supports vertebral column during forward bending motions.

Supraspinous ligament.

The _______ resists excess backward bending. Stretching or tearing this ligament = whiplash.

Anterior longitudinal ligament.

What is the role of the axial skeleton?

It protects the brain, spinal cord, heart, and lungs. It serves as an attachment site for muscles that move the head, neck, and back. (AND for muscles that act across the shoulder and hip joins to move their their corresponding limbs.)

What is the role of the axial skeleton?

It protects the brain, spinal cord, heart, and lungs. It serves as an attachment site for muscles that move the head, neck, and back. (AND for muscles that act across the shoulder and hip joins to move their their corresponding limbs.)

How many bones is the axial skeleton made of?

80.

_________ protects the brain, spinal cord, hearts, and lungs, and forms the vertical, central axis of the body and includes all bones of the head, neck, chest, and back.

The axial skeleton.

_________ protects the brain, spinal cord, hearts, and lungs, and forms the vertical, central axis of the body and includes all bones of the head, neck, chest, and back.

The axial skeleton.

_________ are a fibrocartilaginous pad that fills the gap between adjacent vertebral bodies.

Intervertebral discs.

_________ protects the brain, spinal cord, hearts, and lungs, and forms the vertical, central axis of the body and includes all bones of the head, neck, chest, and back.

The axial skeleton.

_________ are a fibrocartilaginous pad that fills the gap between adjacent vertebral bodies.

Intervertebral discs.

What is the role of intervertebral discs?

They provide padding between vertebrae during weight bearing. They also change shape to allow movement in the vertebral column.

_________ is the opening through which a spinal nerve exists from the vertebral column.

Intervertebral foramina.

___________ is an immovable joint between adjacent bones of the skull that are filled with dense, fibrous connective tissue that unites the bones.

Sutures.

___________ is an immovable joint between adjacent bones of the skull that are filled with dense, fibrous connective tissue that unites the bones.

Sutures.

What two bones does the coronal suture bring together?

It joins the frontal bone to the left and right parietal bones.

___________ is an immovable joint between adjacent bones of the skull that are filled with dense, fibrous connective tissue that unites the bones.

Sutures.

What two bones does the coronal suture bring together?

It joins the frontal bone to the left and right parietal bones.

What bones does the sagittal suture bring together?

It unites the left and right parietal bones.

___________ is an immovable joint between adjacent bones of the skull that are filled with dense, fibrous connective tissue that unites the bones.

Sutures.

What two bones does the coronal suture bring together?

It joins the frontal bone to the left and right parietal bones.

What bones does the sagittal suture bring together?

It unites the left and right parietal bones.

What bones does the lambdoid suture bring together?

It joins the occipital bones to the left and right parietal and temporal bones.

___________ is an immovable joint between adjacent bones of the skull that are filled with dense, fibrous connective tissue that unites the bones.

Sutures.

What two bones does the coronal suture bring together?

It joins the frontal bone to the left and right parietal bones.

What bones does the sagittal suture bring together?

It unites the left and right parietal bones.

What bones does the lambdoid suture bring together?

It joins the occipital bones to the left and right parietal and temporal bones.

What bones does the squamous suture bring together?

It unites the squamous portion of the temporal bone with the parietal bone.

________ is the name of the weakest part of the skull. It is “H” shaped and sits at the intersection of four bones.

Pterion.

What three bones form the coxa/hip bone?

The ilium, ischium, and pubis.

The cranial nerves IX, X, XI and the internal jugular view pass through the ___________. It is also the exit point for all the venous return blood leaving the brain.

Jugular foramen.

The internal carotid artery passes through the ___________.

Carotid canal.

The optic nerve and ophthalmic artery with accompanying sympathetic nerve fibers pass through the __________. It allows passage of the optic nerve from the retina to the brain.

Optic canal.

The cranial nerves III, IV, and VI pass though the ___________. It provides passage for the artery that supplies the eyeball, sensory nerves, and the nerves that supple the muscles involved with eye movement.

Superior orbital fissure.

The zygomatic nerve of V2 passes through the ____________.

Inferior orbital fissure.

______________ is an excessive posterior curvature of the thoracic region.

Hyperkyphosis.

_____________ is an excessive anterior curvature of the lumbar region.

Hyperlordosis.

____________ an abnormal, lateral curvature, accompanied by twisting of the vertebral column.

Scoliosis.

What are the two primary curves?

Thoracic and sacral/sacroccygeal.

What are the two primary curves?

Thoracic and sacral/sacroccygeal.

What are the two secondary curves?

Cervical and lumbar.

What is unusual about the hyoid bone?

It is an independent bone that does not contact any other bone and thus is not apart of the skull. It is held in position by a series of small muscles that attach to it from above or below.

Posterior to the spinal cord is the ___________ that consists of a series of short, paired ligaments, each of which interconnects the lamina regions of adjacent vertebrae.

Ligamentum flavum.