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608 Cards in this Set

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1. Nausea, vomiting (onset < 6 hr) after eating cold cuts, or potato salad, or mayonnaise, or custards is caused by
Staphylococcus aureus
2. Rapid-onset food poisoning mediated by staphylococcal
Enterotoxin
3. Tx of staphylococcal food poisoning
Rehydration
4. Nausea and vomiting, +/- diarrhea (onset < 6 hr) after eating reheated rice is caused by
Bacillus cereus
5. Bacterial spores are resistant to heat due to
dipicolinic acid core
6. Nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea w/ rapid (onset >6 hr) after eating reheated meat or gravy is caused by
Clostridium perfringens
7. Peptic-ulcer dz (PUD) in a patient w/o NSAIDs use is caused by
Helicobacter pylori
8. Helicobacter pylori attaches to gastric cells inducing
inflammation and cytokines
9. Abx treatment and H. pylori eradication significantly impact
PUD and MALT
10. First-line, triple-drug regimen for PUD due to H. pylori is
PPI + clarith + amox
11. Acute, severe secretory diarrhea, vomiting, severe dehydration, during travel to tropics, is caused by
Vibrio cholerae
12. Cholera (A-B, subunit) toxin induces secretion of Na and bicarbonate-rich non-inflammatory fluid from
Small intestine
13. Vibrio cholerae is isolated from stool by culture on
thiosulfate-citrate-buffered sucrose (TCBS) agar
14. Aerobic, gram negative, comma-shaped bacilli of cholera are microscopically similar to
Campylobacter
15. Tx to avoid mortality of cholera is
Ringer’s lactate with extra K+
16. Besides rehydration, treat cholera as soon as vomiting ceases with
doxycyline
17. Secretory diarrhea, fever and vomiting during travel are caused by
Enterotoxic E. coli
18. Secretory diarrhea w/ fatty, foul-smelling stools in campers, hikers; also day-care outbreaks is caused by
Giardia lamblia
19. Following ingestion of 15-25 cysts, excysted trophozoites adhere at brush border of enterocytes and contribute to malabsorption. TOW?
Giardiasis
20. Dx of giardiasis is confirmed by
Stool antigen (+)
21. Giardiasis is specifically treated with
Metronidazole
22. Protracted, secretory diarrhea w/ large fluid loss in AIDS is caused by acid-fast protozoa
Cryptosporidium >> Cyclospora > Isospora
23. Frank bloody diarrhea, after drinking roadside fruits drinks, is caused by
E. coli O157:H7
24. Pathogenesis of hemorrhagic enterocolitis caused by E. coli involves
Shiga toxin (a cytotoxin)
25. Complication of hemorrhagic enterocolitis in children
hemolytic uremic syndrome
26. Profuse diarrhea, fever, vomiting, and dehydration in infants is caused by
Rotavirus
27. Mechanism of rotaviral diarrhea involves
Villus destruction
28. Infantile watery diarrhea and fever are caused by
Adenovirus 40,41
29. Outbreak of nausea, vomiting, fever in adults is caused by
Norovirus
30. Cause of nausea/vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea +/- bloody 12-48h after eating eggs or poultry or peanut butter?
Non-typhoidal Salmonella
31. Abx treatment of uncomplicated acute gastroenteritis due to Salmonella forces condition of
carrier (in bile ducts) state
32. Abx used only to treat septic phase of salmonella gastroenteritis is
ciprofloxacin
33. Cause of fevers (>103°), headaches; macular rash on torso (rose spots) abdominal pain and little diarrhea later in a pt with hx of travel (to tropics)?
Salmonella typhi
34. Cause of diarrhea w/ occult blood, abdominal cramping and fever, 2d after ingestion of poultry-contaminated salad
Campylobacter jejuni
35. Abx to treat campylobacter enteritis with high fevers in pregnancy, and HIV is
Erythromycin
36. Cause of dysentery-like illness with fever + abdominal cramps, tenesmus + blood & mucus in children?
Shigella sonnei
37. Dysentery due to invasive Shigella spp. in elderly is treated with
Ciprofloxacin
38. Cause of dysentery-like illness (+/- pseudoappendicitis) in the northern region after eating cheese
Yersinia enterocolitica
39. Cause of dysentery-like illness in a patient w/ hx of broad-spectrum abx use
Clostridium difficile
40. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea (CDAD) is mediated by toxins
A (enterotoxin) + B (cytotoxin).
41. Lab confirmation of CDAD is based on
stool toxins A or B positive
42. Besides rehydration and cessation of inciting meds, CDAD is treated with
Metronidazole (mild) or oral vancomycin (severe/relapse)
43. Health-care associated (nosocomial) spread of Clostridium difficile diarrhea and protracted outbreak is due to
Soiling/contact or spores in rooms
44. Hx of abdominal pain, tenesmus, stools with mucus + blood in a patient, who recently traveled to tropics; CBC: eosinophilia. TOW?
Amebic dysentery
45. Stool microscopy to confirm amebic dysentery should reveal characteristic trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica w/
endocytosed RBCs (distinction from luminal ameba)
46. Rx of amebic dysentery involves
Metronidazole + iodoquinol
47. Abscesses in liver or peritonitis in travelers w/ or w/o hx of amebic dysentery is confirmed by
Serology for E. histolytica
48. A boar hunter develops dysentery after eating meat at campsite; O& P test should reveal a ciliate parasite, known as
Balantidium coli
49. Most likely cause of chronic abdominal pain, diarrhea; intestinal obstruction; cholangitis; liver abscess, in children
Ascaris lumbricides
50. Ova & Parasite test using microscopy for oval eggs (with a thick coarse shell) in stool confirms
ascariasis
51. A child has stomach ache, distended abdomen, poor appetite. Pearl-colored earthworm-like organisms in the stool. Major immune response against this infection?
IgE
52. DOC of ascariasis is
Mebendazole
53. Vomiting, cramping, diarrhea, epigastric pain, weight loss in an immigrant from developing country is caused by
Strongyloides stercoralis
54. DOC of strongyloidosis is
Ivermectin
55. Pt w/ AIDS (low CD4+ counts) develops pulmonary infiltrates (+eosinophilia) and/or gram negative sepsis. TOW?
Invasive strongyloidosis
56. Weakness, fatigue, lightheadedness, dyspnea, pruritis; pallor; iron- deficiency anemia; eosinophilia (hx of outdoor activity). TOW?
Hookworm (Necator americanas) infection
57. Fever, periorbital edema, subconjunctival hemorrhages, muscle weakness, and rash, after eating undercooked pork (Lab: eosinophilia., ↑CPK, ↑LDH &). TOW?
Trichinellosis
58. Abdominal pain, bloating, altered appetite after ingestion of sushi. CBC: megaloblastic anemia; leukocytosis/eosinophilia. TOW?
Diphyllobothriasis (fish tapeworm)
59. Dx of tape worm infection is confirmed by
Proglottids in stool
60. Tape worm infections are treated with broad-spectrum agent
Praziquantel
61. Cause of fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly in an immigrant from Africa or Orient; pt recalls wading in stagnant water. RUQ ultrasound (+); CBC: eosinophilia.
Schistosoma mansoni (Africa) S. japonicum (Far East)
62. Microscopy of stool in chronic stage of schistosomiasis reveals
Large eggs with lateral spine.
63. Chronic stage of schistosomiasis is treated with
Praziquantel
64. Patient with acute jaundice is HAV IgM (+); household contact should receive for prophylaxis
Inactivated HAV vaccine
65. Patient with jaundice for < 1 week has HBsAg (+), Anti-HBc IgM (+). TOW?
Acute HBV infection
66. Multiple sex partners, IDU, infants born to infected mothers are risk groups for which hepatitis virus
HBV
67. This is an enveloped, double stranded DNA virus w/ ss-break; transmitted by infective body fluids. TOW?
HBV
68. This asymptomatic man has hep serology profile of HBsAg (-), Anti-HBs (+), Anti-HBc IgG (+), Anti-HBc IgM (-). TOW?
Resolved hepatitis B
69. This man has jaundice and is HBsAg (+) > 6 months, Anti-HBs (-), HBeAg (+), Anti-HBc IgG (+), HBV DNA > 20,000 IU/ml. TOW?
Chronic active hepatitis B
70. This man has jaundice and is HBsAg (+) > 6 months, HBeAg (+) and evidence of necroinflammation. He should receive
Peg-IFN 2a + lamivudine(or cidofovir)
71. This man has no jaundice, but HBsAg (+) >6 months, Anti-HBs (-), Anti-HBc IgG (+), HBeAg (-), persistently normal ALT. TOW?
Inactive HBsAg carrier
72. This man, at the time of annual physical exam, reveals Anti-HBs (+) and other markers are (-). TOW?
HBV immunized
73. Virologic confirmation of chronic jaundice in a HBV-immunized pt w/ IDU or hemodialysis is based on
HCV RNA > HCV IgG
74. More chronicity of HCV (than HBV) is due to immune-evasive quasispecies generated during replication (in blood) of
error-prone HCV RNA virus
75. Fulminant hepatitis in a patient, who has multiple sexual partners and is HBsAg (+); HBcIgM (-), can be fatal due to what?
HDV superinfection.
76. Cause of acute onset of jaundice, nausea, right-upper quadrant pain, hepatomegaly in pregnant women in India
HEV
77. Fever, arthralgia, carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum; elevated WBCs or ESR/CRP. Clinical Dx is confirmed by
Rising ASO titer
78. Type II hypersensitivity due to molecular mimicry in a immunological sequel of streptococcal pharyngitis causes
Acute rheumatic fever (ARF)
79. ARF is diagnosed and treated with
Anti-streptolysin O (ASO) titer and benzathine penG.
80. A man with IDU has flu-like symptoms; 1-3 minor peripheral signs: conjunctival hemorrhage, Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots, plus vegetation in tricuspid valve. Blood Cx (BCx) should yield
S. aureus
81. A pt w/ hx of extraction of impacted tooth 3 weeks ago now has subacute (native, mitral-valve) endocardits. BCx should yield
Viridans streptococci.
82. A pt w/ hx of St. Jude bypass 2 months ago has now subacute bacterial endocarditis. BCx should yield
Staphylococcus epidermidis
83. A pt with AIDS and recent hx of UTI has now subacute, native mitral-valve endocarditis. BCx should yield
Enterococcus faecalis (or faecium)
84. DOC of acute endocarditis in patient with IDU due to sensitive S.aureus (MSSA)
Nafcillin +gentamicin
85. DOC of acute endocarditis in patient with IDU due to resistant S. aureus (MRSA).
Vancomycin + rifampin
86. DOC of subacute, native mitral-valve endocarditits due to viridans streptococci.
PenG +/- gentamicin
87. DOC of subacute, prosthetic-valve endocarditis due to Staphylococcus epidermidis
Vancomycin + gentamicin
88. DOC of subacute, native mitral-valve endocardits due to Enterococcus faecalis (or faecium)
High-dose ampicillin +gentamicin
89. Patient with enterococcal bacteremia fails to respond to vancomycin. MOR of the organism
D-Ala-D-Ala is changed to DAla-D-lac
90. Hx of catheter-related endocarditis, involving prosthetic or native valves. BCx (+) for budding yeast. Pt does not respond to AmphoB or fluconazole; should receive
Caspofungin
91. Patient with colon cancer has bacteremia due to
Streptococcus bovis
92. Cause of febrile, malaise, arthralgia, dyspnea, edema, palpitations. ST/T wave change, heart block, dysrhythmias; CXR: cardiomegaly
Coxsackievirus > echovirus >Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas)
93. Cause of runny nose, red throat, and nasal pus
Rhinoviruses
94. Rhinoviruses and enteroviruses belong to picornavirus family, but the rhinoviruses differ from enteroviruses on
Growth at 22oC/noninvasive
95. Rhinovirus receptor in the nasal passages and upper tracheobronchial tree is
ICAM-1
96. Rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza, coronavirus, RSV, metapneumovirus, and adenovirus all cause
Upper-respiratory infections(URIs)
97. Sinusitis, otitis, laryngitis, exacerbations of bronchitis and asthma are mostly secondary to
Viral URIs
98. In HEENT, Streptococcus pneumoniae, non-typable Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis all cause
Acute otitis media (AOM) & sinusitis
99. AOM and sinusitis are empirically treated with amoxicillin + clavulanate. Why use clavulanate?
Haemophilus and Moraxella are beta-lactamase producers
100. Cause of pharyngeal pain, dysphagia, fever; red throat + purulent exudate that responds to penicillin
Streptococcus pyogenes (aka: Group-A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus = GABHS)
101. GABHS is differentiated from GBBHS by what?
Bacitracin sensitivity
102. Common mode of acquisition of URI due to Streptococcus pyogenes?
Infective droplets
103. Major virulence factor with anti-phagocytic function of Streptococcus pyogenes
M-protein fibrils
104. Damage in posterior pharynx and tonsils due to Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with what host response?
Pyogenic inflammation
105. DOC of acute bacterial pharyngitis in a pt w/ Pen allergy
Erythromycin > clindamycin
106. Pyogenic complication of streptococcal pharyngitis
Tonsillar abscess
107. Toxigenic complication of streptococcal pharyngitis
Scarlet fever >> TSS (rare)
108. Immunologic complication of streptococcal pharyngitis
Acute rheumatic fever (ARF)
109. Cause of fever, red throat + purulent exudate - pseudomembrane with lymphadenopathy, in a pt w/ questionable immunization
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
110. Gram/special stain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae should reveal
Gram(+) rods in palisade arrangements/metachromatic granules
111. Virulence genotype of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is acquired by
Transduction (phage mediated transfer of exotoxin gene)
112. Isolate on tellurite agar culture of throat swab for a cause of diphtheria is confirmed by
Immunodiffusion (ELEK) assay for toxin
113. Mechanism of action of exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae
ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (inhibits protein synthesis)
114. Damage to pharynx and cardiac myosites due to Corynebacterium diphtheriae is mediated by
Cytotoxicity of A-B toxin
115. Virologic Dx of URI symptoms, fever; red throat + purulent exudate; hepato-splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, in a teenager, is confirmed by
heterophile antibody (+)
116. Host cells preferentially infected by EBV are
B cells
117. EBV is biologically similar to what class of viruses?
herpes viruses
118. Host immune system controls the EBV infection, mediated by
CD8+ T lymphocytes
119. Rash occurs following which antibiotic(s) to treat infectious mononucleosis?
amoxicillin
120. Burkitt's lymphoma in some African population is a B-cell tumor due to oncogenesis by
EBV
121. B-cell tumor in the Oriental population that consumes preserved fish, is due to oncogenesis by
EBV
122. Heterophile-negative infectious mononucleosis syndrome is due to ?
CMV
123. Gram-positive bacteria that cause acute otitis media (AOM)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
124. Gram-negative diplococci bacteria that cause AOM
Moraxellar catarrhalis
125. Gram-negative coccobacilli bacteria that cause AOM
Haemophilus influenzae
126. > 7 days of nasal obstruction, rhinorrhea; purulent nasal drainage + frontal pain/tenderness is treated with
Amoxicillin & Clavulanate
127. DOC for acute mastoiditis in a young child is amoxicillin & clavulanate; why?
Same etiology as AOM
128. Cause of seal-like barking cough + episodic aphonia w/symptoms of URI in a child
parainfluenza virus
129. Gram-stain-nonreactive organism that causes redness; purulent discharge at lid margin/eye corners, in a newborn
Chlamydia trachomitis
130. Most common cause of redness; tenderness; hyperpurulent d/c; eye stuck shut in AM, lid edema. Gram stain (+)
Staphylococcus aureus
131. Cause of pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, fever with rhinitis, and cervical adenitis in a child.
Adenovirus
132. Cause of burning, gritty feeling in eyes; diffuse conjunctival injection & profuse tearing + preauricular LN.
Adenovirus
133. Cause of foreign body sensation, lacrimation, photophobia, conjunctival hyperemia, and ulceration
HSV-2>>1
134. Cause of severe pain and skin lesions in dermatomal pattern involving the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.
VZV
135. Cause of painful, swollen, red eyes, with conjunctival hemorrhaging and excessive tearing in an outbreak
Enterovirus
136. Cause of chorioretinitis in AIDS, but CMV antigen (-)
Toxoplasma gondii
137. Cause of painful keratitis, chronic corneal ulcers in contact
Acanthamoeba spp.
138. In an infant w/ ?immunization, 2 wks of paroxysmal coughs, inspiratory whoop + post-tussive emesis. TOW?
Bordetella pertussis
139. Pertussis toxin inhibits chemotaxis via downregulation of C3a/C5a receptor, resulting in?
Lymphocytic leukocytosis in CBC
140. Three major virulence factors of whooping cough pathogen?
ADP-ribosylating toxin; tracheal cytotoxin; hemolysin
141. Cause of fever + drooling, stridor, dyspnea in a child w/?immunization (pt appears septic)
Haemophilus influenzae b
142. Major virulence factor of Haemophilus influenza associated with pneumonia and meningitis
Capsular polysaccharide (antiphagocytic and anti-C3b)
143. Since, absent spleen places host at increased risk for invasive H. influenzae infection, pre-exposure prophylaxis prior to elective splenectomy is ?
Hib immunization
144. Cause of acute exacerbation (cough, purulent sputum) in pt with chronic bronchitis (COPD); CXR: R/O pneumonia; Lab: sputum reveals Gram-negative coccobacilli.
Haemophilus influenzae (non capsular types)
145. Tx of AECB, caused by an organism that needs NAD + hematin for growth; -lactamase (+), is
Ceftriaxone (severe) >. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (mild)
146. Most common cause of lower-respiratory infections in neonates (babies < 4 wk)?
Streptococcus agalactiae (aka: group B streptococcus)
147. Complicated illness in a newborn of a GBS-colonized mother is
Sepsis or meningitis
148. A mother colonized (recto-vaginally) w/ GBS is at risk for preterm baby or premature membrane rupture. She should receive
Ampicillin
149. An elderly comes up with an abrupt-onset fever, myalgia, headache, malaise, dry cough, sore throat and rhinitis, in winter. Illness could have been prevented w/ ?
annual influenza vaccine
150. Annual influenza vaccine protects at-risk subpopulation w/60% immune protection, and is composed of what 3 viruses?
A:H1N1 + A:H3N2 + B
151. Secondary spread of influenza occurs in a crowded setting (within 6 feet of infected person) via
respiratory droplets
152. Annual vaccine to prevent influenza is needed due to antigenic drift. This occurs due to what genetic mechanism?
Mutation
153. Occasionally serious pandemic of influenza occurs due to antigenic shift. This occurs due to what genetic mechanism?
Reassortment of 8 genomic segments
154. DOC of pts with influenza <48 hours is
Oseltamivir
155. Bacterial superinfection, causing pneumonia, after influenza occurs in elderly (in LTCF) due to what?
S. pneumonia (common) > S. aureus (severe)
156. A seriously ill young adult w/ necrotizing pneumonia, poorly responding to vancomycin, should get
Linezolid
157. Cause of febrile illness + bronchiolitis in an infant; BAL viral culture (+).
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
158. RSV causes seasonal, nosocomial pneumonia outbreaks in the pediatric units via
Contact spread
159. Pathophysiology of asthmatic Sx + Sn in bronchioles in high-risk infants due to RSV involves
type III hypersensitivity
160. Inhaled anti-viral drug used in the sickest infants with bronchiolitis is
Ribavirin
161. Insidious onset of fever, dry cough, malaise and sore throat in young adults. CBC: anemia; CXR: diffuse infiltrates. TOW?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
162. Dx of walking pneumonia in older children and young adults, while waiting for serology, is supported by
cold agglutinin (IgM Ab against RBCs) titer 1:32
163. Mycoplasma spp. is an atypical bacterial pathogen and is hard to grow because of fragility due to lack of
Cell wall
164. Beta-lactam abx is ineffective for Tx of mycoplasma pneumonia because
Wall-less bacteria
165. A male child with mycoplasma pneumonia now has systemic rash, covering 10% of his body. TOW?
erythema multiforme (SJS)
166. Cause of upper respiratory Sx, slow onset of cough (laryngitis) >2wks + CXR: patchy infiltrate, viral serology (+)
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
167. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is
Streptococcus pneumoniae
168. Cause of rapid onset of high fever, cough, & sputum, dyspnea; tachypnea in an elderly; CXR: lobar infiltrate; CBC: pronounced neutrophilic leukocytosis with left shift, is
Streptococcus pneumoniae
169. Gram-positive diplococci from sputum from a patient with lobar pneumonia yield α-hemolytic colonies and are confirmed by
Capsular swelling (Quelling rxn)
170. α-hemolytic colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae is differentiated from viridans streptococci definitively confirmed by
Optochin sensitivity
171. Population w/ increased incidence of pneumococcal pneumonia is
AIDS
172. increased incidence of colonization of what organism is seen in very young and elderly, crowding, following viral URI (increased PAF receptors), fall/winter season?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
173. Streptococcus pneumoniae is transmitted P2P by
Respiratory droplets
174. Nasopharyngeal mucosal colonization is facilitated by
IgA protease
175. Streptococcus pneumoniae reaches lungs after nasopharyngeal colonization via
aspiration
176. Major virulence factor, facilitating invasion and dissemination of Streptococcus pneumoniae is
Polysaccharide capsule
177. Pneumococcal cell wall peptidoglycans, teichoic acid elicit
Inflammation
178. Increased Lung cell injury in pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by virulence factor?
Pneumolysin (alpha-hemolysin)
179. Multiple myeloma, C3 deficiency, asplenia - Hg SS, COPD, diabetes, alcoholism, smokers are risk factors for mortality due to
pneumococcal pneumonia
180. Hematologic marker for poor prognosis of pneumococcal pneumonia is
Leukopenia
181. Emipiric DOC of CAP in pts at risk or w/ comorbidity is
Azithromycin (or levofloxacin) + ceftriaxone
182. Pneumonia due to highly penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (Pen MIC >8) should receive
moxifloxacin or vancomycin
183. Mechanism of penicillin resistance in Streptococcus pneumoniae is
PBP alteration by mutation
184. Pt w/ agammaglobulinemia or asplenia or sick-cell anemia or ↓C3 should be vaccinated with
Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV: 23-valent)
185. Hx: a patient w/ serious CAD now on a ventilator, acquires bronchopneumonia >72 hrs after hospitalization. TOW?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa(VAP)
186. Cause of necrotizing pneumonia >72 hrs after hospitalization of complicated viral illness
Staphylococcus aureus (assume MRSA)
187. Patients that are aspiration prone have hx of
dysphagia, decreased consciousness
188. Hx of a patient w/ seizure illness has fever, cough evolving over 2-4 wks; CXR infiltrate (+).TOW?
Aspiration pneumonia
189. Community-acquired respiratory pathogens that cause aspiration pneumonia
Streptococcus pneumoniae > Anaerobes
190. Hospital-acquired respiratory pathogens that cause aspiration pneumonia
Gram-negative bacilli > S. aureus +/- anaerobes
191. Clinical Dx of sudden dyspnea +/- cyanosis, fever, wheezing, often ARDS-like picture is
acid-related pneumonia
192. Bacterial etiology and Tx of aspiration pneumonia are determined by
Gram stain (polymicrobic) and culture of sputum
193. Empiric DOC of necrotizing pneumonia in a patient with seizure illness
clindamycin + levofloxacin
194. Targeted Abx for anaerobic aspiration pneumonia is
clindamycin
195. Pneumonia in homeless/alcoholics; Gram-positive diplococci in sputum Gram smear. TOW?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
196. Pneumonia in homeless/alcoholics; Gram-negative rods in sputum smear. TOW?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
197. Cause of pulmonary embolism in a pt with IVDU
Staphylococcus aureus
198. Common cause of pneumonia in pts with CF
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
199. Sputum of a patient with hospital-acquired pneumonia yields a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase (+). TOW?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
200. Common cause of external otitis due to hot tub use is
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
201. A patient with diabetes has osteomyelitis after penetrating foot injury. TOW?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
202. The most widely used anti-pseudomonal penicillin
Piperacillin > imipenem
203. The most widely used anti-pseudomonal aminoglycoside
Tobramicin > gentamicin
204. This pt >50 years, smoking hx, CMI↓ has pneumonia; diarrhea, renal failure. Urine antigen (+) for pathogen. Pt responds to azithromycin. TOW?
Legionella penumophila
205. Penicillin is ineffective against Legionnaire’s dz because
Intracellular organism
206. Individuals with defective CMI response has poor prognosis of Legionnaire’s dz because
Intracellular organism
207. Asymptomatic patient with PPD (+)
Latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI)
208. Cough > 2 wks, fever, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis, SOB; CXR: upper lobe infiltrate. TOW?
Active Mycobacterium Tuberculosis infection
209. Oral drug regimen of choice for treatment of active TB (aka: 1st line drugs) is
INH+RIF+PZA+EMB (oral) + Vit B6
210. Pyridoxine is added to 4-drug therapy for TB to prevent
neuropathy (due to INH)
211. Pt w/ TB fails to respond to 4-drug regimen w/ INH+RIF resistance because
Multiply drug-resistant (MDR) TB
212. Pt w/ MDR-TB fails to respond to INH +RIF+FQ+an injectable drug (amikacin, capreomycin, or kanamycin) because
Extremely-drug resistant (XDR) TB
213. Cause of TB-like Dz that does not respond to 1o TB Tx regimen, in a pt. w/ AIDS
Mycobacterium avium –intracellulare (aka: MAC)
214. Cause of chronic pneumonia in a patient with cancer, receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy; lung-CT: halo/crescent sign (+)?
Aspergillus fumigatus
215. Microscopic observation of Aspergillus fumigatus in tissue biopsy sections depends on staining by
Silver stain
216. Hx of chronic pneumonia w/ lung bpsy histopathology (+) for hyphae 2-4µm wide, septate, acute- angle branching. TOW?
Aspergillus fumigatus
217. Cause of TB-like LRI in a pt with outdoor activity (Giemsa stain of bronchoscopy specimen: (+) for 2-5 μm yeasts) is
Histoplasma capsulatum
218. Pt with AIDS has blood culture (+) for histoplasmosis. DOC has effects on
Ergosterol in fungal cell membrane
219. TB-like Dz w/ ulcerative skin lesions. lung bpsy histopathology (+) for large yeast w/ broad-based bud. DOC?
Intraconazole
220. Hx of acute onset of cough, fever, infiltrate in a black male with CMI↓; histopathology of lung (+) for a large sac of endospores. DOC?
Fluconazole (indefinite)
221. Pt w/ aspiration pneumonia with cervico-facial lesion should respond to
Penicillin G
222. Granular specimen from draining fistulae from a pt with LRI on anaerobic culture should yield
Actinomyces israelii
223. Pt with AIDS or organ transplant has indolent pneumonia, w/ or w/o CNS abscess or granuloma. TOW?
Nocardiosis
224. Organism w/ characterization of Gram-positive branching, beaded, filamentous rod, weakly acid fast is
Nocardia asteroids
225. Hx of non-productive cough, fever and dyspnea evolving over 2-4 wks. CXR (+): bilateral interstitial infiltrates, hypoxemia; ↑LDH, CD4 count <200/mm3 in a MSM. TOW?
Pneumocystis pneumonia
226. DOC of pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
TMP-SMX
227. Pt has urinary urgency, frequency, dysuria; lab: pyuria (+) or nitrite (+). TOW?
Cystitis due to E. coli
228. Significant UTI is confirmed by semiquantitative MSU culture based on the threshold of
> 105 cfu/mL
229. Mode of acquisition of uropathogen is
Endogenous
230. Microbial (structure) factor favoring bacterial persistence /colonization and UTI is
bacterial binding via fimbriae
231. Factor favoring bacterial persistence/colonization and UTI despite high osmolarity and urea concentrations and low pH is
high bacterial growth rates
232. Host factor favoring bacterial persistence/colonization and UTI is
Urinary stasis
233. Bacterial persistence/colonization and UTI despite frequent voiding and high urinary flow is favored by
lack of Tamm-Horsfall proteins
234. Pyogenic inflammation in complicated UTI due to Gram- negative bacteria is due to
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
235. Empiric DOC to treat community-acquired UTI in adults is
ciprofloxacin
236. The abx class that inhibits DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IV and blocks with bacterial DNA replication is
Fluoroquinolones
237. DOC to treat UTI in pregnant women is
Nitrofurantoin
238. Gram-positive bacteria that cause uncomplicated UTI in sexually active, young women are
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
239. Differentiation of Staphylococcus saprophyticus from S. epidermidis (both coagulase negative) is based on
novobiocin resistance
240. In elderly or pt with risks of urinary stasis, fever, chills, flank pain, and CVA tenderness; Lab: pyuria, casts, nitrite+. TOW?
Pyelonephritis due to E. coli
241a. Clue: GNR; fermenter; encapsulated; intrinsic ampicillin resistance)
Klebsiella pneumoniae
241b.Clue: GNR; slow fermenter; red pigment; intrinsic drug resistance)
Serretia marcescens
241c.Clue: GNR; swarming growth [very motile]; slow fermenter; intrinsic drug resistance)
Proteus mirabilis
241d.Clue: GNR; non fermenter; oxidase+, blue pigment; intrinsic drug resistance)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
241e.Clue: GPC in chains; catalase-neg; grows in high salt; penicillin resistance)
Enterococcus faecalis
242. If a patient with complicated UTI is severely ill or not improving with therapy, do what rapid test next?
renal ultrasound (to rule out urinary tract obstruction)
243. For a patient with complicated UTI, once culture and sensitivity available, switch to what?
Narrow-spectrum abx
244. 2 or more of the following: fever (T>38°C) or hypothermia (T< 36°C), tachycardia (HR>90), tachypnea (RR>20), leukocytosis (WBC>12,000 or differential w/ >10% bands). TOW?
SIRS
245. SIRS + infection (e.g., positive blood culture) is
Sepsis
246. Sepsis + organ failure, decreased perfusion (lactic acidosis, oliguria, altered mental status) or low BP. TOW?
Severe Sepsis
247. Severe sepsis + hypotension despite fluids + lactic acidosis, oliguria, altered mental status.
Septic Shock
248. Septic shock due to Gram-negative bacteria (e.g., E. coli, Klebsiella spp., or Pseudomonas aeruginosa) is
Endotoxic Shock
249. Endotoxin that mounts pro-inflammatory cytokines, responsible for endotoxic shock, is
Lipid A of LPS
250. Genital chancre begins as a papule, ulcerates to form a single, painless, clean-based ulcer. TOW?
1o syphilis
251. Cause of genital chancre, begining as a papule, ulcerating to form a single, painless, clean-based ulcer.
Treponema pallidum
252. A pen-allergy, non-pregnant, female pt w/ fever, copper penny macular lesions on the palms or soles; RPR(+) should be treated with
Doxycycline
253. Management choice of tabes dorsalis (10-20yrs), iritis, uveitis, or Argyll-Robertson pupils of pen-allergy in a pregnant woman w/ pen allergy; RPR(+) is
Desensitization
254. Hx of painful clustered vesicles with an erythematous base; urinary retention in a promiscuous woman. TOW?
HSV-2 >> 1
255. Giemsa stain of fluid from a herpetic lesion should reveal
Multinucleated giant cells
256. Patient with genital herpes does not respond to acyclovir because pt is infected with
thymidine kinase deficient HSV
257. A pregnant woman with 1o symptomatic HSV-2 infection is at risk of her baby developing
neonatal (congenital) herpes
258. Cause of painful genital ulcers; purulent, grey base; painful inguinal adenitis, in a man with multiple sexual partners is
Haemophilus ducreyi
259. Fastidious organism in the infiltrate of the penile ulcer, co- localized with neutrophils and fibrin, in a pt w/ chancroid is
Haemophilus ducreyi
260. All sex partners of pt with chancroid, regardless of symptoms, should be examined and treated with
Azythromycin > ceftriaxone
261. New episode of purulent or mucopurulent endocervical exudate visible in the endocervical canal or on endocervical swab. Friability and bleeding may be noted after gentle passage of swab though cervical os. Test for:
Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
262. New episode of purulent or mucopurulent endocervical exudate visible in the endocervical canal or on endocervical swab. Friability and bleeding may be noted after gentle passage of swab though cervical os. Test is
Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)
263. Most common cause of mucopurulent endocervical exudate (Gram stain non revealing) in a sexually promiscuous woman
Chlamydia trachomatis D-K
264. Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular parasite which lacks
Muramic acid (cell wall)
265. Dx of mucopurulent urethral discharge, dysuria, penile pruritis is based on
NAAT of urethral specimen or urine (+)
266. DOC of most frequent cause of nongonococcal urethritis
Azythromycin > doxycycline
267. Cause of rare genital ulcers, inguinal lymphadenopathy [cytology(-) for multi-nucleated giant cells; RPR (-)] in men is
Chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3
268. Hx of systemic Sx/Sn w/ cervical motion tenderness in a woman with turbo-ovarian abscess. TOW?
PID
269. Cause of mucopurulent urethritis, dysuria, penile pruritis [Smear (+):Gram-negative diplococci co-populated w/ PMNs] is
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
270. Deficiency in serum factors in a female pt w/ frequent gonorrhea and DGIs is
C6-C9
271. Immune evasion of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in frequent mucosal infection is due to
Antigenic variation of pili.
272. Auxotrophic strains of N. gonorrhoeae with serum (complements) resistance are likely to cause
Septic arthritis (aka: DGI)
273. Most frequent complication of gonococcal (GC) infection in men
Epididymitis
274. Cause of bull headed clap, urethral stricture, prostatitis is
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
275. Urethritis is treated with ceftriaxone + azythromycin because
Concurrent GC + Chlamydia
276. Intra-amniotic infection syndrome, following rupture of membranes, without histological (neutrophilic inflammation of chorion, necrosis, micro-abscess formation, amnion basement membrane thickening) or microbiological confirmation, etiology is usually
polymicrobial (2 or more)
277. Intra-amniotic infection syndrome, following rupture of membranes, without histological (neutrophilic inflammation of chorion, necrosis, micro-abscess formation, amnion basement membrane thickening) or microbiological confirmation, Frequently recovered isolates from pre-term infant placentas (chorioamnionitis):
Ureaplasma urealyticum, Gardnerella vaginalis.
278. Along with gentamicin, a standard component of treatment for chorioamnionitis is
Ampicillin
279. Acute onset of intermenstrual bleeding in a non-pregnant woman, recent onset dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain or distension: crampy, fever, pain with bowel movements or constipation. Confirm by tests of
Gram stain and culture of fluid from surgery (acute endometritis)
280. Diagnosis of chronic endometritis is made by endometrial biopsy with histologic diagnosis based upon
plasma cells, lymphocytes in endometrial infiltrate
281. An older woman with PID and tubo-ovarian abscess receives ceftriaxone, azythromycin, and metronidazole because
Polymicrobic (endogenous) infection
282. Cause of anogenital warts w/ histology (+): koilocytes is
HPV 6 and 11
283. Cause of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on pap smear w/ no clinical signs of infection is
HPV 16 and 18
284. Cause of koilocytotic cells and possible progression to squamous cell carcinoma
HPV 16 and 18
285. Next step to identify viral cause of ASCUS on pap smear w/ and further management in a woman of age > 29 years is
Colposcopy > HPV DNA in bpsy
286. Wet prep of vaginal discharge from a pt w/ vaginal pruritis; ectocervical erythema (strawberry cervix) should reveal
motile tissue flagellate
287. Clinical syndrome form replacement of normal peroxide- producing Lactobacillus spp. in the vagina with high concentrations of anaerobic bacterial (e.g., Mobiluncus sp and Prevotellasp), G. vaginalis, and Mycoplasma hominis is
Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
288. Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes in BV are seen with few or absent of
Lactobacilli
289. Gram stain of vaginal discharge w/ fishy odor from a pt w/ vaginal pruritis but no erythema and normal cervix (in BV) should reveal
SECs stippled with Gram- variable organisms.
290. DOC of bacterial vaginosis is
metronidazole
291. Wet prep of curdy discharge (no odor), adhering to vaginal walls, from a pregnant woman w/ recent UTI, who now has severe vaginal pruritis; vulvovaginal area - erythematous should reveal
budding yeasts with pseudohyphae
292. Normal commensal of skin, GI & GU tracts; endogenous overgrowth of budding yeast, capable of >10 diseases. TOW?
Candida albicans
293. Mechanism of action of a po DOC of vulvovaginal candidiasis is
blocks C14 alpha-lanosterol demethylase
294. Hx of flu-like illness, lymphadenopathy, maculopapular rash in a bisexual man. Lab: lymphopenia and transaminase elevations; monospot/all serology (-). TOW?
Acute retroviral syndrome
295. Time from infection (acquisition) to acute seroconversion detected by HIV serology (ELISA/ WBlot) is
6-12 weeks.
296. Hx of mononucleosis-like illness and lymphadenopathy in a man who has sex man. Serology (-). What is HIV viral load?
>10,000 copies/ml
297. Host-cell receptor for HIV-1 infection
CD4
298. Homozygous for deletions in what gene renders resistance to infection and some protection against progression.
CCR5
299. Host cells that trap HIV and mediate the efficient transinfection of CD4+ T cells are
Dendritic cells
300. A man, who practices sex with another man, has antibodies to HIV (ELISA and WB) but asymptomatic. TOW?
Clinical latency
301. What happens to HIV-1 virus when acute retroviral syndrome progresses to clinical latency?
Virus continues to replicate low level.
302. A man who practices sex with another man, is now HIV-1 serology (+) and has dual symptomatic infections/cancer (any two from below). Expected CD4+ count is? i. Candidiasis, esophageal, bronchi, trachea, or lungs ii. Cervical cancer, invasive iii. Coccidioidomycosis, extrapulmonary iv. Cryptococcosis, extrapulmonary v. Cryptosporidiosis, chronic intestinal vi. Cytomegalovirus retinitis (with vision loss) vii. Encephalopathy, HIV-related viii. Herpes simplex - Chronic ulcers ix. Histoplasmosis, disseminated or extrapulmonary x. Isosporiasis, chronic intestinal (duration >1 mo) xi. Kaposi sarcoma xii. Lymphoma, Burkitt xiii. Lymphoma, primary, of the brain xiv. Mycobacterium avium complex or Mycobacterium kansasii infection, extrapulmonary xv. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection, any site (pulmonary or extrapulmonary) xvi. Pneumocystis pneumonia xvii. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy xviii. Wasting syndrome due to HIV infection
CD4+ < 200/microL
303. A man with HIV infection has chronic diarrhea, oral thrush + toxoplasma encephalitis. Most likely CD4+ count is
< 50 cells/microL.
304. Most common cause of HIV- associated peripheral skin or mucosal ulcers
HSV-1 (>> Histo > CMV > VZV > Syphilis)
305. Most common cause of HIV- associated nodules (neoplasia)?
HHV-8 (aka KSHV)
306. Hx of fatigue, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever, chills, night sweats, dry persistent cough w/ SOB and weight loss in a man with AIDS. Lab: PPD (-); blood culture (+) for AFB. TOW?
Mycobacterium avium- intracellulare (MAI) complex (aka: MAC)
307. Common cause of retinitis, viral pneumonitis or esophagitis in AIDS
CMV
308. Cases of CMV disease occur with immunosuppression level
CD4< 50
309. cytopathology of CMV infected tissue is characterized by large cells with
nuclear (Cowdry owl’s eye) and cytoplasmic inclusions
310. Hx of progressive CNS dz in a pt w/ AIDS: hemiparesis, visual, ataxia, aphasia, cranial nerves, sensory. Head MRI: ring- enhancing lesions. Toxo antibody (-). TOW?
JC virus
311. Definitive indication for initial HAART is CD4+ count?
350/mm3.
312. Objective of ARV Tx is to reduce viremia to what level of genomic RNA/mL
< 50 copies RNA/mL.
313. Initial regimen of anti-retroviral therapy is
Emtricitabine + Tenofovir + Efavirenz
314. Abacavir, emtricitabine, lamivudine, zidovudine, tenofovir belong to what class of antiretrovirals?
NRTIs
315. Efavirenz, nevirapine belong to what class of antiretrovirals?
NNRTIs
316. Atazanavir, Lopinavir, Saquinavir belong to what class of antiretrovirals?
Protease inhibitors
317. This drug binds to gp41 and prevents conformational change required for viral fusion and entry into cells.
enfuvirtide
318. This drug inhibits integrase, responsible for insertion of HIV proviral DNA into the host genome.
raltegravir
319. A man has AIDS and CD4 <200cells/μL or thrush. Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is
TMP-SMX (for PCP)
320. A man has AIDS and CD4 <100 + pos toxo IgG. Chemoprophylaxis needed besides HAART is
TMP-SMX (for Toxoplasma encephalitis)
321. A man has AIDS and CD4 <100 + PPD >5mm induration. Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is
INH + pyridoxine
322. A man has AIDS and CD4 <50. Antibacterial prophylaxis needed besides HAART is
azithromycin (for MAC)
323. Hx of fever, a pustule at a cat scratch site, adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly in a pt w/ AIDS. Warthin-Starry stain tissue (+). TOW (clue: bacillary angiomatosis)?
Bartonella henselae
324. Leading causes of congenital infections are
ToRCH3eS-List To = Toxoplasma gondii R = Rubella C = CMV H = HSV-2 H = HIV H = HBV S = Syphilis List = Listeria monocytogenes
325. Cause of severe CNS sequelae, chorioretinitis, systemic disease in a neonate (mom at pregnancy had mono-like illness after eating undercooked beef or pork or exposure to oöcysts in cat feces) is
Toxoplasma gondii
326. Drug for pregnant woman in first trimester to prevent transmission of Toxoplasma gondii if mother seroconverts is
Spiramycin
327. Hx of deafness, cataracts, heart defects, or microcephaly in a child (of a seronegative, caregiver mom, exposed to Blueberry muffin baby in 1st trimester). TOW?
congenital rubella syndrome (CRS)
328. Dx of CRS usually with positive anti-rubella antibody type?
IgM
329. Microcephaly, seizures, sensorineural hearing loss, feeding difficulties, petechial rash, hepatosplenomegaly, or jaundice in a neonate. PCR of any body fluid should yield
CMV
330. After primary infection, CMV, characterized as enveloped dsDNA betaherpesvirus; establishes
lifelong latency
331. Hepatosplenomegaly, neurologic abnormalities, frequent infections in a neonate w/ low CD4+ counts. Woman before birthing should have received
Nevirapine
332. Cause of vesicular skin lesions + conjunctivitis in a child (asymptomatic at birth)
HSV-2
333. Hx of cutaneous lesions, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, saddle nose, and saber shins. Hutchinson teeth, + CN VIII deafness in a neonate (mom is a prostitute). TOW?
3o syphilis
334. Neonatal septicemia or meningitis (mom had flu-like Sx and ate imported cheese during pregnancy). TOW?
Listeria monocytogenes
335. What are the SIX red rashes of childhood (acute, febrile exanthema illnesses)?
Measles, Rubella, Scarlet fever, Chicken pox, parvovirus B19, HHV-6
335a. (Clue1: maculopapular rash; off-white lesions on buccal mucosa, MMRV vaccine prevents)
Measles
335b. (Clue2: maculopapular rash starting on face moving to foot; MMRV prevents)
Rubella
335c. (Clue3: scarlatina rash post pharyngitis)
Scarlet fever (GAS)
335d. (Clue4: vesicular rash, moderate pain)
Chicken pox (VZV)
335e. (Clue5: maculopapular slapped face appearance in a young child)
Parvovirus B19
335f. (Clue6: maculopapular rash and systemic Dz in immunocompromised pt)

HHV-6

336. Worldwide rubella infection, with only human reservoirs known this infectious agent is a
RNA togavirus
337. >95% seropositive after MMRV if >12mos age and lifelong protection against rubella is conferred with?
Single dose
338. Cause of single or multiple scaly and/or crusted patches and/or plaques, affecting the scalp or beard area +/- inflammation.
Dermatophytes
339. KOH prep of scales from the scalp and plucked hairs from cutaneous mycoses may reveal?
hyphae and spores
340. Most common cause of cutaneous mycoses
Trichophyton spp.
341. Common cause of cutaneous mycosis with animal contact
Microsporum spp.
342. Oral DOC of cutaneous mycoses
itraconazole
343. Topical DOC of cutaneous mycoses
terbinafine
344. Dz w/ subcutaenous lesions w/ slow spread by lymphatic system producing nodules in a gardener, or from rose-thorn injury.
Sporotrichosis
345. Cause of subcutaenous lesions w/ slow spread by lymphatic system producing nodules in a gardener, or from rose-thorn injury.
Sporothrix schenckii
346. Dimorphic fungus that grows at 37°C as cigar-shaped yeast, and produces septate hyphae and conidia (in daisy arrangement) at 25°C is
Sporothrix schenckii
347. DOC of sporotrchosis
itraconazole.
348. Cause of deeper and wider lesions with interconnecting subcutaneous abscesses arising from infection of several neighboring hair follicles, in young children.
Staphylococcus aureus (Curbuncle)
349. Cause of superficial pustules progressing to erosions covered by honey-colored crusts, surrounded by erythematous halo, in young children.
Staphylococcus aureus >> Streptococcus pyogenes (non- bullous impetigo)
350. Dz characterized by bullae and denuded areas after the blisters rupture, covered by thin, varnish-like light brown crusts; regional lymphadenopathy, in children. DOC if lab: gram stain and culture of pus or base of the lesions yields GPC in chains. DOC if lab: gram stain and culture of pus or base of the lesions yields GPC in clusters.
Bullous impetigo/ Chains=Penicillin G/ Clusters=Nafcillin
351. mecA (SCC) genes which encode PBP2a, w/ low affinity for β-lactams; confers resistance in Staphylococcus aureus against what?
Nafcillin
352. Cause of spreading (butterfly-wing) erythema on the face that responds to empirical penicillin.
Streptococcus pyogenes (Erysipelas)
353. Cause of severe pain on his knee w/ site of injury is tender and erythematous. Blood culture may yield?
Streptococcus pyogenes. (Cellulitis)
354. What is the microbial factor that promotes degradation of C3b by binding to factor H, the serum β globulin factor
M protein
355a. Causes of cellulitis Clue1: cat/dog bite. What?
Pasteurella multocida / Capnocytophaga canimorous
355b. Causes of cellulitis Clue2: Salt water exposure. What?
Vibrio vulnificus
355c. Causes of cellulitis Clue3: Fresh water exposure. What?
Aeromonas hydrophila
355d. Causes of cellulitis Clue4: Neutropenia. What?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
355e. Causes of cellulitis Clue5: Human bite. What?
Eikenella corrodens
356. Most likely cause of fever/chills/ night sweats, localizing pain/tenderness or swelling/erythema (lab: ↑ESR, ↑CRP; ↑WBC w/ left shift. Radiology: periosteal elevation.) is
Staphylococcus aureus (Osteomyelitis)
357. Major antiphagocytic virulence factor of drug-resistant organism that causes osteomyelitis is
protein A
358. Major neutrophil-damaging virulence factor of drug- resistant organism that causes osteomyelitis is
Penton-Valentine leukocydin
359. Cause of vertebral, sternoclavicular or pelvic bone infections (in pt w/ IVDU) or osteochondritis of foot (following penetrating injuries through tennis shoes)?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
360. Cause of osteomyelitis in pt w/ underlying sickle cell Dz; blood culture +)?
Salmonella typhimurium
361. Cause of chronic, vertebral osteomyelitis (blood culture negative)?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
362. Cause of osteomyelitis in pt. w/ hx of cat bites; GNSR; fastidious growth of wound culture?
Pasteurella multocida
363a. Cause of fever, chills, malaise, joint pain, swelling. PE: tenderness, erythema, heat, swelling, decreased ROM. CBC: leukocytosis w/ neutrophils predominating; joint aspirate: no crystals. Clue1: sexually active; BLCx (-); responds to ceftriaxone Think of other pathogens (BLCx negative):
Sceptic Neisseria gonorrhoeae
363b. Cause of fever, chills, malaise, joint pain, swelling. PE: tenderness, erythema, heat, swelling, decreased ROM. CBC: leukocytosis w/ neutrophils predominating; joint aspirate: no crystals. Clue2: Rheumatoid arthritis?
Sceptic S. aureus
363c. Cause of fever, chills, malaise, joint pain, swelling. PE: tenderness, erythema, heat, swelling, decreased ROM. CBC: leukocytosis w/ neutrophils predominating; joint aspirate: no crystals. Clue3: IVDU?
Sceptic S. aureus, P. aeruginosa
363d. Cause of fever, chills, malaise, joint pain, swelling. PE: tenderness, erythema, heat, swelling, decreased ROM. CBC: leukocytosis w/ neutrophils predominating; joint aspirate: no crystals.Clue4: Unpasteurized dairy products
Sceptic Brucella spp.
363e. Cause of fever, chills, malaise, joint pain, swelling. PE: tenderness, erythema, heat, swelling, decreased ROM. CBC: leukocytosis w/ neutrophils predominating; joint aspirate: no crystals.Clue5: Diabetes
Sceptic S. agalactiae (GBS)
364a. Dz is characterized by arthritis in up to 6 joints (especially knees, feet), low back pain/stiffness, irritable eyes w/ or w/o redness, conjunctivitis, iritis, malaise. Clue1: sexually acquired
reactive arthritis C. trachomatis, N. gonorrhoeae
364a. Dz is characterized by arthritis in up to 6 joints (especially knees, feet), low back pain/stiffness, irritable eyes w/ or w/o redness, conjunctivitis, iritis, malaise. Clue2: non-sexually acquired
Reactive arthritis Campylobacter, Salmonella
365. Cause of bacteremia in neutopenic pts with central line or pts with prosthetic devices and catheters; blood culture (+)
Staphylococcus epidermidis
366. Cause of intraabdominal abscess w/ putrid pus; anaerobic bacteremia in pt with trauma or solid GI tumor?
Bacteroides fragilis.
367. A woman with obstetric infection has fever > 102oF, SBP <90; diffuse sunburn-like rash or desquamation of palms and soles; multisystem Sx/Sns; vomiting, and diarrhea; BLCx (-). TOW?
Staphylococcal Toxic shock Syndrome
368. What is the toxin associated with staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?
TSST-1 (a superantigen)
369. Cause of severe, watery diarrhea in a woman with toxic shock syndrome?
Enterotoxin (coregulated with TSST-1)
370. Cause of toxic shock syndrome, which responds to vancomycin and clindamycin?
MRSA
371. Hx of fever > 38.9oC, SBP < 90 ; diffuse sunburn-like rash or desquamation of palms and soles, in a man w/ necrotizing fasciitis or myositis; multisystem involvement; BLCx (+). TOW?
Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
372. What is the toxin associated with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome?
SpeA (superantigen)
373. DOC for streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
PenG + clindamycin
374. Hx of fever, chills, and hypotension. Blood culture yields a GNR, oxidase (-), lactose fermenting organism on MacConkey agar. Immunological mediators of sepsis.
IL-1 and TNF
375. DOC for a neutropenic pt w/ line-associated infection w/ immune suppression (hematologic malignancy, organ or hematopoietic stem cell transplantation, chemotherapy); w/ positive blood cultures and Beta-D-glucan antigenemia?
Caspofungin
376. DOC for a line-associated infection in a pt w/ GI tumor; lab: positive blood cultures and Beta-D-glucan antigenemia?
Fluconazole
377. Without prophylaxis with valganciclovir, D+/R- solid organ txp pts will develop
CMV disease
378. Cause of mononucleosis-like dz with fever, myalgia/ arthralgia w/ lab: leukopenia, LFT abnls, in a pt w/ solid organ transplant?
CMV
379. Lung biopsy reveals large cells with nuclear inclusions (Cowdry owl's eyes inclusion bodies) in a pt with AIDS and interstitial pneumonia. TOW?
CMV
380. DOC for CMV antigenemia in a febrile pt with solid organ transplant?
valganciclovir
381. Cause of hematuria, hemorrhagic cystitis, or ureteric stenosis, or interstitial nephritis in a severly immunocompromised pt?
BK Virus
382. What is the most common cause of bacteremia associated w/ foreign device (prostheses, intravenous cathether, or central lines) in co-morbid, hospitalized pts?
Staphylococcus epidermidis
383. What is the cause of infections associated w/ ventilator support of respiration in co-morbid pts in the ICU?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
384. DOC for a pt w/ travel hx (back from the tropics), who has flu-like symptoms; splenomegaly; lab: CBC: anemia, thrombocytopenia, hypoglycemia. Blood smear: enlarged RBCs and Schuffner dots.
mefloquine + primaquine
385. Which drug is contraindicated in specific Tx of liver form of malaria in pts w/ G6PD deficiency?
Primaquine
386. DOC for a pt w/ travel hx (back from the tropics), who has flu-like symptoms (fever > 103o F), seizure, hyperparasitemia (>2.5% of RBC), pulmonary edema, or renal failure, or severe anemia?
Quinidine and doxycycline.
387. Cause of malaria-like illness in an immunosuppressed pt w/o travel hx; lab: blood smear has cross-over rings in the RBCs?
Babesia spp.
388. A pt from S. America has a week-long fever, anorexia, lymphadenopathy, mild hepatosplenomegaly, and myocarditis; a nodular lesion on the arm; blood smear should reveal
Trypanosoma cruzi
389. Cause of a chronic-stage systemic dz w/ cardiomyopathy, megaesophagus, megacolon, and weight loss in a pt from S. America, who does not respond to nifurtimox.
Trypanosoma cruzi
390. Cause of protracted fever and Crohn’s, celiac dz, ocular problems, and lymphadenopathy; duodenal biopsy demonstrating foamy macrophages in lamina propria?
Tropheryma whipplei
391. Painless papule (on arms, face, or chest), then vesicles/bullae, then black eschar + edema evolving over 3-5d is
Cutaneous anthrax
392. Unique features of cutaneous anthrax include edema, lack of pain and bullous fluid that lacks
PMNs
393. Cutaneous anthrax can be treated in 7-10 days with
Ciprofloxacin
394. Fever, chills, sweats, GI sx, cough, malaise, chest pain (3-4d); CXR: wide mediastinum and bloody pleural effusion is
Inhalation anthrax
395. CT scan in inhalation anthrax may show hyperdense mediastinal nodes and
pulmonary edema
396. Cultures of blood and respiratory specimens from in inhalation anthrax should yield
Bacillus anthracis
397. DOC of Inhalation anthrax is
Ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin> doxycycline
398. Need to treat inhalation anthrax 60 days because
Spores persist in lungs
399. 60 d total course recommended for any presentation anthrax to avoid
relapse or breakthrough of incubation of spores
400. Post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent inhalation anthrax also requires
Cipro for 60 days
401. Exposure (time & place to environment) + papule progressing to black eschar on exposed area in 3-4d +/- local edema, often intensely pruritic is
Cutaneous anthrax
402. Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and doxycycline are equivalent to treat cutaneous anthrax. All other abx are
less effective
403. In the event of an index case of anthrax (although infection is not P2P communicable), notify public health authorities and local
infection control
404. Infection control of all types of anthrax (based on non- communicability of the pathogen) warrants only
Standard precautions
405. Species of Clostridium that causes afebrile, systemic toxic diseases in infants (honey), and in adults foodborne (meat, canned vegetables), wound (injected), iatrogenic (cosmetic) is
C. botulinum
406. Differential diagnosis of botulism-like symptom/signs should include Myasthenia gravis, Stroke, Chemical Intoxications, Lambert-Eaton Dz, and
Guillian-Barré
407. Clostridia produces human pathogenic
neurotoxins types A, B, E, F and G
408. Many pts w/ flaccid paralysis in the same geography without common food source may be
Bioterrorism-associated botulism
409. CSF examination in botulism is
Normal profile (no pleocytosis)
410. Post lab confirmation of food botulism, while waiting for antitoxin may give
activated charcoal
411. Infection control of all types of botulism (based on non- communicability of the pathogen or toxins) warrants only
Standard precautions
412. Aerobic slender gram-negative rod, which causes glanders in horses, associated with bioterrorism is
Burkholderia mallei
413. Acute glanders caused by Burkholderia mallei may produce a localized infection with ulceration following inoculation in the skin; lymphadenopathy; lung infections may present as pneumonia. Acute bloodstream infections can be
rapidly fatal.
414. If Burkholderia mallei isolated suspect bioterrorism; Quarantine pt & give antibiotics:
TMP-SMX or Imipenem
415. Multiple cases of glanders: must consider
bioterrorism.
416. Patients with glanders should be isolated, respiratory precautions. B. mallei spread by
aerosol.
417. In the DDx of bioterrorism-related pneumonia + pleuritis + hilar adenopathy, include anthrax, plague and
tularemia
418. Small, pleomorphic, aerobic Gram-neg rod that causes 1) bite/abrasion (acquired from tick exposure or contact with rabbits) → nodule/ulcer → node → sepsis, or 2) inhalation (bioterrorism) → acute fever, dry cough. CXR: infiltrates + hilar adenopathy, is
Francisella turlarensis
419. DOC of tularemia is
streptomycin
420. For tularemia, if bioterrorism suspected, notify
local public health
421. Pathogen Francisella turlarensis does not have a person-to- person mode of transmission. Infection control does not require:
Isolation
422. Acute fever, myalgias, remorrhagic rash, conjunctivitis, pharyngitis, headache, diarrhea, and thrombocytopenia in bioterrorism indicates
Viral hemorrhagic fever (e.g., Ebola, Marburg)
423. For Lassa, Marburg, and Ebola, person-to-person transmission based infection control (respiratory) precautions and other measures must include:
Patient isolation
424. Endemic plague in the South West USA is acquired by bite of rodent flea carrying
Yersinia pestis
425. Aerobic, Gram-neg bipolar rod, which causes painful lymphadenitis (bubonic), fever, chills, headache (after exposure to rodents, rabbits or fleas) is
Yersinia pestis
426. Three forms of plague: bubonic (lymph nodes), pneumonic and the third:
septicemic
427. DOC of plague is
Doxycycline
428. Pneumonic plague can be transmitted
from person-person
429. Sudden fever ≥ 102°F , homogeneous vesiculo-pustular rash (unlike common viral exanthems) in multiple pts (in time and place) is
Small pox, caused by variolla major virus
430. Sudden fever ≥ 102°F , homogeneous vesiculo-pustular rash in multiple pts (in time and place) is, main diagnostic differential is
Varicella or zoster
431. For small pox associated bioterrorism, person-to-person transmission based infection control warrants isolation measures and
respiratory precautions
432. No person-to-person transmission are observed (other than standard precautions) for the bioterrorism agents:
Anthrax, botulism (noncommunicable)
433a. Fever, headache, neck stiffness, and altered mental status; Kernig's/Brudzinski's sign, rash; CSF: WBC > 2000 or PMNs > 1200; glucose < 34, protein > 220 CSF gram stain of the most likely pathogen of ABM in a 6 mos-6yr old (or adults > 50 years) should reveal
Gram-positive diplococci
433b. Fever, headache, neck stiffness, and altered mental status; Kernig's/Brudzinski's sign, rash; CSF: WBC > 2000 or PMNs > 1200; glucose < 34, protein > 220 CSF gram stain of the most likely pathogen of ABM in an older child or young adult should reveal
Gram-negative diplococci
434. Most common cause of sepsis/meningitis in newborns/neonates?
Streptococcus agalactiae
435. Cause of fever, headache, photophobia, nausea/vomiting, rash, diarrhea, meningeal signs, in older children in the summer months; CSF with 10-<1,000 WBC typical, mostly monos, moderately elevated protein?
Aseptic meningitis (enteroviruses)
436. Cause of aseptic meningitis in men with exposure to rodents?
Leptospira interrogans
437. Cause of aseptic meningitis with hx of tick bite and erythema migrans?
Borrelia burgdorferi
438. Cause of aseptic meningitis with hx of sex with multiple partners; CSF PCR(+):
HSV-2 > 1
439. Cause of fever, headache, photophobia, meningismus, in pts w/ solid organ transplant, malignancy, corticosteroid use. CSF glucose < 2/3 serum glucose, elevated protein, WBC > 5 with PMNs
Listeria monocyotgenes
440. How does Listeria monocytogenes differ from other - hemolytic bacteria
Gram-positive rods; tumbling motility
441. Cause of chronic meningoencephalitis in a pt, who uses infliximab or native from endemic region; PE: papilledema. CXR (+). Lab: elevated monocytes on differential, low CSF glucose?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
442. Test to confirm subacute mengoencephalitis in a, immunocompromised pt (CD4 <100); vesicular skin lesions [CSF profile: protein 30-150mg/dl, monos 10-100]?
CSF India ink
443. Cause of meningoencephalitis after a hx of respiratory illness after travel to SW USA?
Coccidioides immitis
444. Test to confirm CNS pathology with fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures; temporal lobe involvement on MRI. Lab: no papilledema, CT (no brain lesion)?
CSF PCR (+)
445. Cause of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures, abnormal mental status with ataxia, hemi-paresis, in a pt w/ AIDS?
JC virus > HHV-6
446. Cause of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures or abnormal mental status with ataxia in an adult during outdoor activity?
West-Nile virus > SLE
447. Hx of fever, cognitive deficits, focal neurologic signs, seizures, in a pt w/ AIDS (CD4 < 50). MRI: multifocal (ringenhancing) lesions in basal ganglia. Rule out?
Toxoplasma encephalitis (TE)
448. HIV-infected Pt with TE should receive (for life)
pyrimethamine + leucovorin + sulfadiazine
449. Folinic acid (leucovorin) prevents bone marrow suppressive effect of
Pyrimethamine
450. Cause of confusion, stiff neck, irritability over wks to months, in immunocompromised pts; CT/MRI = multifocal lesions in midbrain, brain stem, & cerebellum; wet mount CSF = motile macrophage-like organisms
Acanthamoeba spp. (GAE)
451. Cause of severe headache and other meningeal signs, fever, vomiting, and focal neurologic deficits, frequently progressing to coma, in a healthy boy (summer diving activity)?
Naegleria fowleri (PAM)
452. Cause of seizures, chronic headache, symptomatic hydrocephalus, in immigrants; pt. successfully responds to praziquantel + anti-convulsant drug?
Taenia solium (neurocysticercosis)
453. Pt from Africa had fever, lymphadenopathy, chancre, and pruritus weeks ago; now has headaches, somnolence, neuro Sns; slowly responds to pentamidine isothionate or suramin. TOW?
Sleeping sickness caused by Trypanosoma brucei
454. Hx of rigidity, muscle spasm, and autonomic dysfunction. Trismus due to masseter spasm in an infant w/ umbilical stump infection. Neurotoxin interferes w/
GABA and glycine
455. Hx of afebrile illness w/ diplopia, dysarthria, dysphoria, dysphagia, in a pt w/ IDU skin poppers with black tar heroin. Neurotoxin blocks the release of
Acetylcholine
456. Immediate treatment of a male infant w/ constipation, a weak cry, and drooling, hypotonea and cranial neuropathy, after ingestion of home-processed honey.
Equine immune globulin (infant botulism)
457. Ingestion of a raw potato delivers a new vaccine protein to elicit an immune response. The immune structure to interact with the vaccine protein?
Lamina propria mucosae
458. Inflammation and the resulting increase in vascular permeability permit leakage into damaged or infected sites are effected by
Phagocytic cells and acute phase proteins
459. The serum of a pt, who has IgG and IgM deficiency, appears to fix complement in an assay for tetanus antibodies. What is the explanation?
Activation of the alternate pathway
460. A 3-year-old boy with genetic C3 deficiency has recurrent ear and lung infections due to pyogenic bacteria. Deficiency of what?
B lymphocytes
461. A very young child, w/ recurrent infections due to Staphylococcus aureus, now has numerous granulomas. TOW?
Chronic granulomatous dz
462. Treatment with which protease enzyme causes decrease in avidity of IgG w/o changing the specificity of the antibody?
Papain
463. Cells activated by both γ-IFN and CD40 are
Macrophages
464. High-dose chemo has caused severe bone marrow suppression in a pt with hematologic malignancy. Reversal is plausible with what?
GCSF
465. Function of the T-lymphocyte receptor (CD3) complex of transmembrane proteins?
Signal transduction
466. The MHC class I pathway presents an antigen directly to what?
CD8+ T lymphocytes
467. HSV infection can block the transfer of antigenic peptides from the cytoplasm to the ER of the infected cells. As a result of this, action of what cell type is compromised?
CD8+ T cells
468. Infection of the thyroid gland can induce the expression of MHC II molecules. Which cell types would initiate an autoimmune response, leading to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?
CD4+ T cells.
469. PPD skin test (+) in a pt , who was vaccinated against turberculosis in his native country, reflects response of what cell type?
CD4+ T lymphocytes (Th1 response  γ-IFN)
470. A man with hx of MI is given a morphine injection for a new episode of chest pain; 10 mins later, he has itching and urticaria. Mechanism of this reaction?
mediators from sensitized mast cells
471. Loss of skin pigments, sense of touch, inability to feel objects and pain in a pt from Africa, whose skin scraping contains AFBs, is caused by
Th1-mediated DTH reactions
472. A man with polycystic kidney dz, who receives a renal transplant and cyclosporine, develops a high temp and swelling and tenderness in the grafted kidney. TOW?
Immunity to the donor MHC antigens.
473. A man who now has progressive stupor and laryngeal spasms for 3 days after pt was being attacked by a wild bat in a cave a month ago should have received
Inactivated rabies virus vaccine
474. Alternative and lectin pathways of complements activated
bacterial surfaces
475. Classic complement pathway is activated by antibody- antigen complexes involving antibody class type
IgM >> IgG
476. Chemotactic and anaphylotoxic complements are
C3a, C5a
477. successful opsonization of all non-encapsulated bacteria are by complement
C3b
478. Defect or deficiency of which complements predisposes individuals to infections caused by Neisseria spp., the causative agents of gonorrhea and meningitis
C6-C9
479. Antimicrobial (immune) response important for intracellular bacterial infections involves cell type
Th1 CD4 T cells
480. Immune response important for viral infections involves cell type
CD8 cytolytic T cells
481. Major antibody in secretions and plays a significant role in first-line defense at the mucosal level is
IgA
482. Main antibody in the initial primary immune response and allows good complement activation is
IgM
483. Fc region of this immunoglobulin binds to eosinophils, basophils and mast cells and is significant mediator of allergic (hypersensitivity) reactions
IgE
484. What on macrophages enables them to sense that the material is microbial in origin, and must therefore be eliminated quickly?
Toll-like receptor
485. These oxygen-dependent enzymes: NADPH oxidase, superoxide dismutase, and myeloperoxidase are involved in killing of what?
Gram-positive bacteria
486. These oxygen-independent enzymes/proteins: lysosome, lactoferrin, defensins and other cationic proteins are involved in killing of what?
Gram-negative bacteria
487. Infections persist, because m activation is defective, leading to chronic stimulation of CD4+ T cells in what dz?
Chronic granulomatous Dz
488. Defective respiratory burst, predisposing chronic bacterial infection is associated with deficiency of what?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
489. All nucleated cells express MHC I antigens
HLA-A, B, C
490. Antigen-presenting cells express MHC II antigens
HLA-DP, DQ, DR
491. Lymphocyte proliferation (T, B) and NK → cytotoxicity are undertaken by what cytokine?
IL-2
492. B-cell activation, IgE and IgG4 switch, ↓ TH1 cells/ M (phi), ↓ IFN-gamma, TH0 → TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?
IL-4
493. M activation; elevated expression of MHC and FcRs molecules on B cells, IgG2 class switching, increased IL-4 and TH2 are all undertaken by what cytokine?
IFN gamma
494. The Th1 response, driven primarily by IFN-gamma leads to the activation of
macrophages
495. The Th2 response, driven primarily by IL-4 and IL-5, leads to the production of IgE and IgG4 and to the activation of
Mast cells and eosinophils
496. Variable T and B cells in DiGeroge’s syndrome is associated with
Thymic aplasia
497. No B cells and immunoglobulins in X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton’s) is associated with
Loss of Btk tyrosine kinase
498. Lack of anti-polysaccharide antibody and impaired T-cell activation causing Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is associated with
X-linked-defective WASP gene
499. Inability to control B cell growth in X-linked lympho- proliferative syndrome is associated with
SH2D1A mutant
500. Glomerulonephritis, pulmonary hemorrhage in Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by what autoantigen?
basement membrane collagen type IV
501. Hyperthyroidism in Grave’s Dz is caused by what autoantigen?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
502. Progressive muscle weakness in Myasthenia gravis is caused by what autoantigen?
Acetyl choline receptor
503. Brain degeneration, paralysis in Multiple sclerosis (MS) is caused by what autoantigen?
Myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein
504. Localized allergies (e.g., drug allergy, asthma, hay fever) and anaphylaxis (food, drug) w/ systemic inflammation throughout circulation are associated with reaction?
Type I hypersensitivity
505. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: Ab’s produced vs RBC membrane Ag’s, mismatched blood (transfusion rxn), and allergies to antibiotics (e.g., penicillins, sulfa drugs) are associated with reaction?
Type II hypersensitivity
506. Grave’s Disease, Myasthenia Gravis, Goodpasture’s syndrome are all associated with reaction?
Type II hypersensitivity
507. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness to horse diphtheria anti-toxin, systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), and rheumatoid arthritis are all associated with reaction?
Type III hypersensitivity
508. Poison ivy, erythematous induration in tuberculin skin test, and transplantation/graft rejection are all associated with reaction?
Type IV hypersensitivity
509. Periodic acid Schiff (PAS) stain targeted at glycogen and mucopolysaccharides is used to diagnose
Whipple’s disease
510. For microscopic visualization, mycobacteria with highlipid-content cell wall requires
Acid-fast stain
511. Acid-fast bacteria (aka: mycobacteria) are visualized by microscopy using
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
512. Non-stainable bacteria that are considered atypical and intracellular may be detected by microscopy using
Giemsa stain
513. Rickettsia and chlamydia do not stain with Gram stain because they are
Strictly intracellular
514. Special culture medium required to grow Haemophilus influenzae is
Chocolate agar w/ X (hematin) and V (NAD) factors
515. Special culture medium required to grow Bordetella pertussis is
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
516. Special culture medium required to grow Corynebacterium diphtheriae is
Tellurite or Loeffler’s agar
517. Special culture medium required to grow Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
Thayer-Martin (agar) media
518. Special culture medium required to grow Mycoplasma pneumoniae is
Eaton’s agar
519. Special culture medium required to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
520. Special culture medium required to grow Legionella pneumophila is
Buffered charcoal-yeast- extract (BCYE) agar with iron and cysteine
521. Growth/differential medium required to grow and differentiate Escherichia coli from non-sterile body fluid/tissue is
MacConkey agar
522. Growth/differential medium required to grow and differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from non-sterile body fluid/tissue (e.g., skin, abscesses) is
Mannitol-salt agar
523. Nutrient rich medium required to support growth of fastidious organisms (e.g., Streptococus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis) from the sterile body fluid/tissue is
Chocolate agar
524. Special culture medium required to grow moulds or yeasts from a presumed fungal infection is
Sabouraud’s dextrose agar
525. Thee anaerobes, such as ABC (Actinomyces, Bacteroides, and Clostridium) organisms do not grow in presence of oxygen because they lack
Catalase and superoxide dismutase
526. The encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Streptococcus agalactae) are all virulent by virtue of the property of resistance to
Phagocytosis
527. Edema factor and lethal factor carried by protective antigen are associated with
Bacillus anthracis
528. A-B subunit toxin (plasmid encoded): ADP ribosylating activity is associated with
Bordetella pertussis
529. Neurotoxin toxin (prophage carrier) that caused flaccid paralysis is associated with
Clostridium botulinum
530. Enterotoxin A and cytotoxin B are syngerstically active in
Clostridium difficile
531. Phospholipase C and enterotoxin are non-synergistically (in different diseases) associated with various subspecies of
Clostridium perfringens
532. Peripheral neuro toxin causing spastic paralysis (carried in plasmid) is associated with
Clostridium tetani
533. A-B subunit toxin (carried in bacteriophage) causing inhibition of protein synthesis in target cells is associated with
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
534. Heat-labile toxin (LT, carried/coded in plasmid), heat-stable toxin (ST, also carried/coded in plasmid), and Shiga-like toxin (carried/coded in bacteriophage) are non-synergistically associated with various toxic strains of
Escherichia coli
535. Exotoxin A is associated with a pyocyanin-producing Gram-negative bacterial species:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
536. Shiga toxin, an enterotoxin is associated with
Shigella dysenteriae
537. TSST-1, exfoliating toxin (carried in plasmid), alpha toxin
Staphylococcus aureus
538. Pyrogenic exotoxin SpeA, SpeC (carried in bacteriophage) and hemolysins O & S (general cytotoxins) are associated with
Streptococcus pyogenes (know also: M proteins surface virulence factor)
539. Gram-positive Cocci in pairs and chains are:
o Streptococcus (Lancetshaped:Streptococcus pneumoniae) o Enterococcus o Peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)
540. Gram-positive Cocci in Clusters are:
o Bacillus (large; aerobe) o Clostridium (Box carshaped:Clostridium perfringens) o Corynebacterium (palisading; aerobe) o Propionibacterium (pleomorphic; anaerobe) o Listeria (small) o Nocardia (branching, filamentous, aerobe) o Actinomyces (branching, filamentous, anaerobe)
541. Gram-negative Cocci are
o Neisseria (diplococci: kidney bean-shaped) o Moraxella catarrhalis (diplococci) o Veillonella (anaerobe)
542. Gram-negative Rods are
o Enterobacteriaceae (E.coli, Klebsiella, Salmonella; Safety pinshaped: Yersinia pestis) o Pseudomonas o Bacteroides (anaerobe) o Fusobacterium (anaerobe) o Haemophilus (pleomorphic) o Brucella (coccobacillus) o Vibrio (curved) o Campylobacter (Seagull appearance) o Helicobacter (curved)
543. Facultative intracellular bacteria are non-susceptible to β-lactam antibiotics and are commonly known species of :
Brucella, Francisella, Legionella, Mycobacterium, Yersinia
544. Non-envelope, icosahedral, smallest virus with linear single-stranded (ss-) DNA is
parvovirus B19
545. Non-envelope, icosahedral virus with circular double stranded (ds-) DNA (super-coiled) is
papilloma viruses; JC, BK viruses
546. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with incomplete, circular dsDNA is
hepatitis B virus
547. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, ds-DNA is
herpes viruses (e.g., HSV 1,2; VZV; CMV; EBV; HHV-6; HHV-8 (KSHV))
548. Enveloped (Donut-shaped), largest virus with helical, linear, ds-DNA is
smallpox
549. Non-enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positivepolarity, ss-RNA is
polioviruses; rhinoviruses; echoviruses; coxsackieviruses; enteroviruses; HAV
550. Non-enveloped, icosahedral ('Star of David') virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is
noroviruses
551. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is
HCV; dengue virus; yellow fever virus; West Nile virus; Japanese encephalitis virus
552. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is
rubella virus; Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) and WEE viruses
553. Non-enveloped (Rota or wheel-shaped) icosahedral virus with linear ds-RNA (10 segments) is
rotaviruses
554. Enveloped, helical virus with linear, negative polarity, ssRNA (8 segments) is
influenza viruses types A, B, and C
555. Enveloped, icosahedral virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA (diploid) is
HIV-1 and 2; HTLV-1 and 2
556. Enveloped, helical virus with linear, negative-polarity ssRNA (3 segments) is
Hantaan (Sin Nombre) virus
557. Enveloped (crown-shaped virus), helical virus with linear, positive-polarity, ss-RNA is
SARS Corona virus type 4
558. Enveloped (bullet-shaped virus), helical virus with linear, negative-polarity, ss-RNA is
rabies virus
559. Enveloped, complex virus with linear, negative-polarity, ssRNA is
Marburg and Ebola viruses
560. Enveloped (largest RNA viruses), helical virus with linear, negative-polarity, ss-RNA is
Paraifluenza viruses, Mumps, Measles, RSV
561. Outbreaks of Acinetobacter infections typically occur in intensive care units and healthcare settings housing:
Very ill patients
562. People with certain health conditions, like weakened immune systems or chronic lung diseases (particularly cystic fibrosis), may be more susceptible to infections with
Burkholderia cepacia.
563. Burkholderia cepacia bacteria are often resistant to
common antibiotics
564. Diarrhea and fever are the most common symptoms of
Clostridium difficile infection
565. The most important risk for getting Clostridium difficile infection in health-care settings is overuse of
antibiotics
566. A family of Gram-negative bacteria that are difficult to treat health care-associated infections because they have high levels of resistance to antibiotics.
Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE)
567. Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae are
Klebsiella species and Escherichia coli
568. Gram-negative bacteria cause pneumonia, bloodstream infections, wound or surgical site infections, and meningitis in
healthcare settings
569. In medical facilities, MRSA causes life-threatening bloodstream infections, pneumonia and
surgical site infections
570. Community-acquired CA-MRSA isolates contain the virulence factor Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL) and carry
staphylococcal cassette chromosome (SCC) mec genes
571. Patients colonized (nare) with MRSA, in health-care settings are advised to use chlorohexidine, gluconate scrub, povidone iodine, and
mupirocin ointment for 5 days
572. Products that are used to remove soil, dirt, dust, organic matter, and germs (like bacteria, viruses, and fungi) are
Cleaners or detergents
573. Cleaners or detergents work by washing the surface to lift dirt and organisms off
surfaces (so they can be rinsed away with water)
574. Products used to reduce organisms from surfaces but not totally get rid of them (considered safe) are
Sanitizers
577. Chemical products that destroy or inactivate germs and prevent them from growing (also used after cleaning for surfaces that have visible blood or drainage from infected skin) are
Disinfectants
578. Disinfectants are regulated by the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
579.Pruritus is the most common symptom of head lice infestation and is caused by an allergic reaction to bites by
Pediculus humanus capitis
580.Lice infestations (pediculosis and pthiriasis) are spread most commonly by
close person-to-person contact
581.The life cycle of the head louse has three stages:
egg,nymph, and adult
582. Nits, heads lice eggs, are laid by the adult female and are cemented
at the base of the hair shaft nearest the scalp
583.The egg hatches to release a nymph. The nit shell then becomes a more visible dull yellow and remains attached to the
hair shaft
584. Nymphs mature after three molts and become adults about
7 days after hatching
585. The adult louse is tan to grayish-white, about the size of a sesame seed, and has legs numbering:
6 (each with claws)
586.Treatment for head lice is recommended for persons diagnosed with
an active infestation
587.Apply lice medicine, also called pediculicide, using prescription medication(s):
Benzyl alcohol, 5% or ivermectin, 0.5% or malation, 0.5% or spinosad 0.9%
588.Body lice infestations (pediculosis) are spread most commonly by close person-to-person contact but are generally limited to persons who live under conditions of
crowding and poor hygiene
589.The only treatment needed for body lice infestations is
Improved hygiene and regular changes of clean clothes
589.The only treatment needed for body lice infestations is
Improved hygiene and regular changes of clean clothes