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155 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A part of the treatment for Actinobacillosis is:

sodium iodide
A treatment for hardware disease is the administration of:

a magnet
Peritonitis is most likely to be a complication in cases of:

hardware disease
An important treatment for laminitis is:

NSAIDS
The antibiotic that is most effective in treating cases of anaplasmosis is:

tetracycline
The use of prostaglandins is important in the treatment of:

retained placenta
When dystocia is suspected, a condition that may be related and can cause uterine inertia is:

hypocalcemia
A recommended treatment for the Stongyle parasite group is:

ivermectin

The most common clinical sign reported in horses with rabies infection is?

Self mutilation

Which of the following below is true regarding Potomac Horse Fever?

Caused by bacteria Neorickettsia risticci


Clinical signs include fever, diarrhea, and laminitisIs


transmitted by the caddis fly


All of the above are true

Which of the following diseases are caused by a bacterial infection?

Thrush


Tetanus


Strangles


All of the above are correct

In horses with Strangles, pus can form rock like structures within the guttural pouch. What is the correct terminology for these rock like structures of pus?

Chondroids

Which of the following is true regarding Canker in horses?

Canker is caused by a bacteria, Fusobacterium necrophorum

A Coggin's test is required annually for all horses. What disease is this test testing for?

Equine Infectious Anemia

How many fecal cultures are recommended in horses that are suspected of having Salmonellosis?

5

Which of the following organs can be infected in horses with "bastard strangles"?

Spleen


Liver


Kidney


All of the above are correct

Which test is most commonly used to aide in diagnosis of suspected Botulism in horses?

Grain test

Which strain of Salmonella is the most pathogenic in animals?

S. typhimurium

Which of the following diseases is characterized by a "saw horse" stance?

Tetanus

A horse that is lame may point or rest the injured limb

True

Which of the following modalities can be utilized to diagnose lameness in horses?

Thermography

What drug is commonly used in nerve blocks on horses?

Bupivacaine

When evaluating a horse for lameness, which of the following can be utilized to help isolate the lameness to a particular limb?


Hoof testers


Observing the horse in motion


Palpating the limb


*All of the above are correct*

Which of the following is true regarding sand cracks in horses?

Can occur in the toe, quarter, or heel regions of the hoof wall

When observing at a trot, if a horse is lame on the left front limb, the head will appear to raise when the ....?

Left front limb strikes the ground

Which of the following predispose horses to developing navicular disease?

Upright pasterns

Which of the following statements is true regarding side bone in horses?

Occur most commonly on the rear limbs Lameness is irreversible


Involves the dorsal and caudal cartilages of the foot


*None of the above are correct*

Exposing a horse to Black Walnut shavings can cause this type of lameness in horses?

Laminitis

Trotting a horse on a circle can increase the degree of lameness making it more obvious to the viewer.

True

Causes of esophageal choke include which of the following?

Poor dentition


Feeding pelleted feed


Bolting behavior


All of the above are correct

Equine tapeworms are treated with what medication?


Praziquantel

Which of the following are clinical signs that may occur when a horse has sharp enamel points?

Dropping feed


Chewing on one side of the horse's mouth Weight loss


All of the above are correct



Vomiting is a common symptom in horses with gastrointestinal upset.

FALSE

In horses, sharp enamel points on the upper dental arcade (upper jaw or maxilla)develop where?


Bucchal surface (cheek surface)

A strangulating lipoma is best treated bysurgical removal.

True

Your neighbor knows that you are an experienced veterinary technician and calls you late one evening to ask you about a problem he is having with his horse. He states that the horse was fine at feeding time, but now he is coughing and standing with his head and neck outstretched. There is also a greenish discharge with bits of oats coming out of his mouth and both nostrils. What condition is his horse most likely suffering from?

Esophageal Choke

Which of the following are clinical signs of colic in horses?

Pawing at the ground


Kicking at abdomen


Biting at the flank area


*All of the above are correct*

Which of the following is a common complication following esophageal choke?

BOTH:


Stricture formation


Aspiration pneumonia

Gastric(Stomach) ulcers occur most commonly in adult horses along what part of the stomach?

Margo plicatus

Which of the following statements is true regarding "tying up" in horses?

An elevated CK and AST confirm a diagnosis


Muscles are typically very firm on palpation


The horse appears very stiff and is reluctant to walk


*All of the above are true*

What is the name of the Quarter Horse stallion that genetically transmitted the gene for HYPP to his offspring?

Impressive

What is the cause of HYPP in horses?

Elevated potassium levels in the blood

Which of the following statements about PSSM in horses is correct?

Caused by increased amounts of glycogen in the muscle

Head shaking in horses is characterized by what type of head movement?

Vertical movement

Nutritional Myodegeneration is caused by what dietary deficiency?

Vitamin E

What body system is affected in foals with Nutritional Myodegeneration?

Heart

The causative agent in Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis is?

Sarcocystis neurona

What is considered the gold standard for diagnosing PSSM in horses?

Muscle biopsy

What is meant by the term myoglobinuria?

Excretion of myoglobin in the urine

What does the term anhidrosis mean?

Failure to sweat

Which of the following clinical signs is common in horses with respiratory disease?

Fever


Nasal Discharge


Coughing


*All of the above are correct*

Which of the following is recommended in the treatment of Equine Metabolic Syndrome?

Exercise


Soaking the hay


Grazing muzzle


*All of the above is correct *

Hemosiderophages may be present in BAL fluid obtained from horses suspected of having EIPH for up to ___ days?


21

A bronchoalveolar lavage is a diagnostic technique commonly utilized in horses with suspected respiratory disease.

True

Which of the following is correct regarding PPID in horses?


Hirsutism is a common clinical sign

A common detrimental side effect of systemic(oral) steroid use in horses is?

Laminitis

Which of the following statements is true regarding Rhodococcus equi in foals?

R. equi causes a bacterial pneumonia

What is the recommended medication for treatment of PPID?


Pergolide

Equine Metabolic Sydrome is characterized by what clinical signs?

Obesity

What is the most common skin tumor in horses?


Sarcoid

The diagnostic test used to detect the presence of a corneal ulcer in a horse is?


Fluoroscein stain

You are measuring a horse's intraocularpressure with a tonopen. The tonopen reads 18 mm Hg. How would characterize this result?

This horse does not have glaucoma

Cullicoides Hypersensitivity in horses is caused by what insect vector?

Flies

Which of the following medications below would Not be appropriate for treatment of a horse with a corneal ulcer?

Steroid

What are common symptoms that may be seen in horses suffering from ocular disease?

Swelling of the eye and adjacent tissue


Change in color of the eye


Discharge


*All of the above*

Which of the following statements are true regarding "moon blindness" in horses?

Most commonly affects paint horse breeds


Usually is caused by viral infection


Rarely causes blindness


*None of the above are true*

The bacteria frequently implicated in cases of Recurrent Uveitis in horses is?

Leptospirosis

Which of the following neoplastic conditions does NOT commonly involve the ocular structures in horses?

Mast cell tumor

Proud flesh most commonly occurs secondary to wound healing in what anatomical locations in horses?

Below the hocks and carpus

Although this drug is licensed for IV and IMadministration, IM administration should be avoided due to risk of ClostridialMyositis infection

Banamine

What is a G + spore forming anaerobic bacterium that is found in soil, water, contaminated feed that has 8 types bacteria (B,C, and D MC in LA)?


Botulism (Clostridium botulinum)

Botulism causes this syndrome in foals –

Shaker foal syndrome

This bacterial dz causes paralysis by blockade ofacetylcholine at neuromuscularjunction

Botulism

Chronic hypertrophic, moist pododermatitis ofepidermal tissues of foot

Canker

A wet environment may predispose to this infection

Canker

______ causes foul odor, frog has cottagecheese-like appearance and is veryfriable. Lameness occurs when the corium of the hoof is infected

Canker


Canker

Borrelia burgdorferi


G (–) unicellular spirochete w/ flagellarprojections


Does not live long outsideof host


2 yr enzootic lifecycle tick(female) and mammals

Lyme Disease

Symptoms of ____________ include fever, stiffness/lameness, anorexia, eyeproblems (uveitis)

Lyme Disease

• Neorickettsia risticii


• G (-) bacteria (within flukes), affects monocytecells (WBC)


• Trematodes (flukes) shed infected larvae inwater eaten by snails, caddis and mayfliesthat live in water


• Horse accidentally consumes snails or flies

Potomac Horse Fever

__________ causes bacteria to replicate in GI tract. Common symptoms include fever, diarrhea, abortion inpreg mares, laminitis (founder),toxemia from diarrhea

Potomac Horse Fever

_______________ 5 common serotyes:– agona, newport, anatum, Krefeld,typhimurium (most pathogenic!)

Salmonella

___________ Carriers can be subclinical Intermittently shedwith common symptoms of Fever, anorexia, soft watery stool < 5d, but may shed bacteria for months

Salmonella

______________ can cause Neutropenia – low neutrophils (WBC)

Salmonella

• G + coccoid


• Shed through nasal discharge from infectedhorse, vectors, discharge from drainingabscesses


• C/S: fever, mucopurulent nasal discharge,swelling/abscessation of submandibular orretropharyngeal LN

Strangles (Streptococcus equi)

Younger horses risk this infection. Common signs are swelling of lymph nodes along with difficulty breathing

Strangles

With ______________ bacteriaspreads to other lymph nodes in body and can cause fatality

Bastard/Metastatic Strangles

A disease that can affect distant sites such as spleen, kidney, liver,mesentery, lung, and brain

Strangles

Chondroid



• Anaerobic, G+ bacillus bacteria


• Exposure via wounds, incision sites


• Incubation period – 1-60 d


• Muscle rigidity – “saw horse stance”


• Fatal – 50%

Tetanus (Clostridium tetani)

Bacterial infection (Fusobacterium necrophorum) caused by unsanitary conditions, wet environments. Causes black exudate and foul odor

Thrush

This disease is caused by bacteria, fungus or yeast along with separation of the white line. Progresses up the hoof wall causes lameness by breaking/chipping of the hoof wall

White Line Disease

Equine foot anatomy

Reportable disease to (state veterinarian) that is transmitted blood sucking insects. Symptoms include vague – fever, anorexia, lethargic Anemia, thrombocytopenia. Dx Coggins Test

Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)

This disease is Fatal. Transmitted saliva, bite wound animals. Carriers include Opossums, skunks, raccoons. Symptoms include Self mutilation, neurologic signs, and fever.

Rabies

Clostridium botulinum (bacteria)• Horses very susceptible• Found in soil• Muscle rigidity

Tetanus

________ resulting secondary to: Punctures, Hoof abscess, Lacerations, Hot nail

Tetanus

_________ Goal:
• Prevent spread of active disease
• Prevent spread of potential disease
• Work within what you have
• How the disease is transmitted
• Risk factors for the disease
• Who is susceptible to getting the disease?

Biosecurity

Principles of ___________ are to isolate new arrivals and any animal at first signs of illness, or has been exposed to a sick animal for 7-10 days Use separate tools on sick animals. Foot bath outside of stall, aisle or door.

Biosecurity

Enamel Points

Sharp Points

Oral mucosal ulcerations

Full Mouth Speculum

______________Occurs at any location in the esophagus. Causes include Poor dentition, Lack of water intake, Type of feed, pelleted, cubes, Behavior, bolting feed

Esophageal Choke

________ Clinical Signs include Colic, excessive drooling/foaming at mouth. Feed material coming out of nostrils, Coughing , Head/neckextended

Esophageal Choke

______________ Treatment remove any hay/water , sedate to calm horse and relax esophageal muscles. Pass nasogastric tube. Break up food bolus with water. Push food bolus into stomach.

Esophageal Choke treatment

The most common complication related to _____________ is Aspiration pneumonia

Esophageal Choke

Stricture formation

Gastric Ulcers

_____________ (the junction between theg landular and nonglandular part of stomach) is the most common site for ulcer formation.

Margo Plicatus

Clinical Signs of ______ Pawing at the ground, Rolling, Biting at flanks, Frequently laying dow, Anorexia, Profuse sweating, Fleming sign, Camel Stretching

Colic

______________ older horses (> 10 yrs), commonly in Arabs. Causes colic, must be differentiated from enteritis, needs emergency surgery.

Strangulating Lipoma

___________ Rock of minerals/ingesta, causes snowball effect. Commonly found in horses living in California or in sandy soils environment.

Enterolith

_______________ =Failure to sweat. Found in geographic areas w/ hot,humid weather for prolonged period. Speculated that sweat glands are overstimulated and become resistant nerve stimulation of the gland.

Anhidrosis

Drug used in a Sweat gland stimulation test

Terbutaline

___________ Occurs with obesity. Similar to type 2 diabetes in people. Tissue insensitivity to blood glucose. High blood glucose = laminitis

Equine Metabolic Syndrome

______________ occurs at any age. Genetic predisposition– Ponies > horses– Morgans, Fjords,Arabians. “Easy keepers”

Equine Metabolic Syndrome

Common symptoms of ____________ are obesity, Cresty neck, fat pads on tail head, and Laminitis

Equine Metabolic Syndrome

• Endemic on a farm affecting many foals


• Bacterial survives in the soil


• Abscesses in lungs

Rhodoccocus equi

• Lung inflammatory condition - allergic


• Chronic – narrowing of lower airways


• Inflammation – increased mucusproduction


• Allergens – mold, dust in hay

Recurrent Airway Obstruction

Symptoms with ____________ include: coughing, nasal flare, heave line,decreased performance, weight loss

Recurrent Airway Obstruction

Used to treat Recurrent Airway Obstruction

Bronchoalveolarlavage – (BAL)

Reducing dust exposure along with soaking feed, hay cubes helps with

Recurrent Airway Obstruction

Occurs under strenuous exercise causes bleeding from the nostrils or bloodin the trachea or lungs post racing, decperformance. Rupture of bloodvessels in lungs – pressure related

Exercise Induced PulmonaryHemorrhage

Exercise Induced PulmonaryHemorrhage Causes Epistaxis and blood in trachea

Hemosiderophages in lung fluid taken viaBAL

• “Roaring”


• Partial – complete collapse of 1 of thelaryngeal cartilages


• Noise occurs when air travels through


narrowed opening leading into trachea


•MC involves the left cartilage– Paralysis Left


Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve

Laryngeal Hemiplegia

Observe at rest


– Point the lame foot forward (front leg)


– Rest the foot (rear limb)


– Look for trauma


– Look for swelling


– Compare to opposite limb

Equine Lameness Test

For a _____________ you must Observe the horse in motion, Trotting in a straight line, Trotting in a circle and on Hard or soft surfaces

Equine Lameness Test

– Flex joints 30 sec – 1.5 min


– Immediately jog the horse


– Look for lameness

Flexion tests

Grade 1– Grade 5 are scores for this scale.

Lameness grading scale

“bone scan”, IV Injection with a radioactive isotope, Technetium-99 (Tc)

Nuclear Scintigraphy

Horses bear most weight on frontlimbs

True

Common causes of lameness in foot:



– Hoof abscess or solar bruising


– Navicular syndrome


– Laminitis


– Fracture of third phalanx (P3)

_____________ is a chronic, septic condition of one of the collateral cartilages of the distal phalanx characterized by necrosis of the cartilage

Quittor

Degenenerative change in navicular bone

Navicular disease

Toxins, illness, Cushings disease, sugars




Laminitis

Symptoms of ___________ Walking on eggshells, rocked back stance

Laminitis

Moist dermatitis – back of pasterns– Tx – clip, topical medications

Grease Heel – Mud fever, scratches

Inflammatory condition of the uveal structures within the eye. Most common in Appaloosa breed. Associated with Leptospirosis infection. Leading cause of blindness in adult horses.

Recurrent Uveitis (Moon Blindness)

– Increased intra-ocular pressure


– Not a primary disease in horses


– Secondary to uveitis or ocular neoplasia

Glaucoma

Normal intra-ocular pressure in a horse is

< 20 mm Hg

• Prevalent in draft horses, QH, WB


• Type I (inherited), Type II


• Caused by abnormal accumulation of glycogen(sugar) in the muscle


• Clinical signs – sweating, generalized stiffness,reluctance to move; poor performance and loss ofmuscle mass

Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy

Muscle biopsy (gold standard)– Abnormal accumulation glycogen on muscle biopsy. Elevated CK and AST

Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy(PSSM, EPSM)

HYPP (Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis)


• High blood potassium levels


• Occurs QH, QHX, Appaloosa, American Paints


• Impressive blood lines,Heavy muscling, Halter
QH horses

HYPP (Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis)

Inherited - Autosomal dominant trait. Homozygous (more severe dz), heterozygous. muscle weakness, muscle fasiculations,respiratory obstruction

Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis (HYPP)

• White muscle disease, stiff lamb disease– Affects skeletal and cardiac muscle


• Due to deficiency Vit E and selenium in diet


• Selenium deficient soils – NE, E coasts, NW US


• MC occurs in young animals <1 yr age

Nutritional Myodegeneration (NMD)

• Spinal cord compression in neck


• MC in young horses < 4 yrs (genetic ?)


• C/S – front/hind limb ataxia, low neck carriage


• Dx – neck xrays, myelogram


• Tx – anti-inflammatory, supportive, diet;

Wobbler Syndrome

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM)

• Caused by Sarcocystis neurona, Neospora hughesi(protozoans) – opossum urine/feces


• Parasite causes inflammation brain/spinal cord• C/S – variable – assymetrical - muscle atrophy, difficultyeating, ataxia


dewormer (anti-protozoal) - minimum 30 days

• Hyperflexion (involuntary) of one orboth hock joints when walking


• Severe – foot may strike abdomen


• Tx – none successful, progressive dz

Stringhalt

__________ toxin –a cause of laminitis

Black Walnut shavings

_________ is a bony growth within the lower hock joint of horse

Bone spavin

Also known as Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction or PPID, ___________ is a dysfunction of the pituitary gland. It is most common in older horses

Cushing's Disease

Encephalomyelitis in horses caused by infection with the______________

West Nile virus