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438 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Stallion/Stud

intact male after third birthday

Gelding

castrated male of any age

Mare

female after third bday

Broodmare

mare that is used for breeding

Maiden mare

1st time mommy

Foal

young horse, from birth to weaning (~4-7 months)

Colt

young intact male

Filly

young female horse

Donkey

long ears, small like a pony with different body shape, grey in color

Mule

donkey and horse cross, sterile. bigger than donkey but with long ears

Near side

horses left side, the side you mount, lead, harness buckle

Far side

horses right side

Withers

between shoulder blades, hump between neck and back (spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae)

Fetlock

ankles (on all four limbs)

Hock

back limbs, joint above fetlock

Knee-

front limbs, wrist (Carpus)

coronet or coronary band

band at the top of hoof

What is a horses first reaction to danger?

run away

which of their senses do horses rely heavily on?

Rely heavily on vision and hearing

Body language: Pawing ground with feet.

bored, in pain

Body language: striking

striking is what they do with their front feet. Typically an aggressive behavior. Mares are especially known to strike out at male horses when they're not in heat.

Double barrel kick vs cow kick:

Kicking (double barrel kick, cow kick) - something they do with their hind legsDouble barrel kick is when they kick both rear legs out to the backA cow kick is when they kick one leg out to the side.

Body language: hind leg cocked

relaxed - when they lock their joints to keep themselves upright, sometimes they'll bend one of the lets.

Body language: Shifting or rocking

pain; shifting weight off of one limb

What is the Flehmen response?

horses trapping odor molecules in their nostrils. Stallions often do this when checking out if a female is in heat.

Characteristics of a frightened horse:

tense ears


Stiff or flicking tail


Hold breath


White eyes


Nostrils flair


trembling

Characteristics of a relaxed horse:

Lowered head (the lower it goes, the more relaxed)


Relaxed ears


Lick lips


Chew


Drop tail

What are safe zones of horses?

very close or very far

What is a plastic muzzle for a horse used for?

To keep NPO overnight or to prevent a colicky horse from eating

What is a wire muzzle used for in horses?

Can drink but not eat (they can get some food, but not as much)

What is a neck cradle used for in equine?

Prevents mutilation. Can't move head laterally but can still eat. This is like an E Collar for horses.

What class of drugs is Detomidine (Dormosedan®) and what is its main effects/uses/advantages and what is the main disadvantages?

Alpha2-Agonist (sedative with a short analgesic effect, depresses the cardiovascular system so you may hear a second degree heart block)

What class of drugs is Xylazine (Rompun®) and what is its main effects/uses/advantages and what is the main disadvantages?

Alpha2-Agonist (sedative with a short analgesic effect, depresses the cardiovascular system so you may hear a second degree heart block)

What class of drugs is Romifidine (Sedivet®) and what is its main effects/uses/advantages and what is the main disadvantages?

Alpha2-Agonist (sedative with a short analgesic effect)

What class of drugs is Acepromazine (“Ace”) and what is its main effects/uses/advantages and what is the main disadvantages?

Phenothiazine tranquilizer, no analgesic effects. Ace can cause a permanent penile prolapse in horses, so NOT A GOOD DRUG in breeding stallions.

What class of drugs is Butorphanol (Torbugesic®, “Torb”)and what is its main effects/uses/advantages and what is the main disadvantages?

Agonist-Antagonist opiate, good for mild pain. Sometimes mixed w/ a sedative or tranquilizer for a standing procedure (neuroleptanalgesic).

What class of drugs is Morphine and what is its main effects/uses/advantages and what is the main disadvantages?

(pure mu opiate good for high pain)

To successfully catch a foal, what should you do first?

catching and controlling THE MARE!! The foal will naturally follow the mare, so if you have the mare with you, the baby will follow.

What is the proper restraint of a foal?

Place one arm in front of chest and the other around the hindquarters or tail

How do you determine age in a horse?

Evaluate their teeth. Just an estimate, not definitive.


Or their papers - if they're a registered breed, their papers will have their date of birth.

Normal RR of horse

10-20 bpm

T/F: horses cannot breath through mouth

true- obligate nasal breathers

Normal pulse of horse

30-40bpm

What is most common arrhythmia of horses?

Second degree heart block

Normal temp for horses

99.0-101.5

How long should you listen to each quadrant of the abdomen?

1 minute

Borborygmi

intestinal motility sounds

When recording gut motility in a horse what does "0" indicate?

No motility heard

When recording gut motility in a horse what does "+1" indicate?

Hypomotility

When recording gut motility in a horse what does "+2" indicate?

Normal motility

When recording gut motility in a horse what does "+3" indicate?

Hypermotility

ballottement

palpation of rumen contractions. pressing both fists firmly into the left paralumbar fossa, hold for 1 minute.

What are some locations to check MM?

gums, conjunctiva of eye, prepuce, lining of nose, inner surface of vulva

T/F: you check MM in the ear of a horse

F: the ear pinna does not secrete mucus and therefore is not a mucous membrane

What is a brick red color MM indicate?

Bacterial septicemia, septic shock, or both

What does a toxic line in horse indicate?

Purple gum line along margins of teethEndotoxic shock/endotoxemia

What are Petechial hemorrhages?

Reddish spotting from clotting disorder

What is normal results for skin turgor test?

1 second or less

What is results for skin turgor test for a horse >%5 dehydrated?

>1 second

What is results for skin turgor test for a horse who is severely dehydrated?

>8 seconds

What are the 2 preferred ways to check hydration status in horse?

skin tugor and CRT

horses are measured in what unit of measurement?

hands

1 hand= _____ inches

4"


Where do you measure for a horses height?

Measure from highest point of whithers to the ground

Where do you place the weight tape for horses?

For weight place around thorax, just caudal to whithers

How long is a health certificate good for and why do you need it for horses?

Health cert required for interstate transport Includes owner, origin, destination, transporterValid for 30 days.

What does Coggins test test for?

equine infectious anemia, EIA.

T/F: As much as 90% of health-related disease in large animals can be related to improper nutrition.

T

What kind of stomach do non ruminant herbivores have?

MONOGASTRIC stomachs

Where does fermentation happen in horse?

cecum/ hind gut fermentors- Microbial digestion like in the ruminant stomach (“fermentation vat” – VFAs (VOLATILE FATTY ACIDS) produced by microbes for energy)

What is the mainstay of horses diet and cannot be broken down by digestive enzymes?

fiber

What organ produces bile in horse?

liver

What is the single most important nutrient for horses?

water

What is horses main source of energy?

Fiber (carbohydrate)

How much water do horses drink per day?

5-7 gallons

What do microbes produce?

VFA’S (VOLATILE FATTY ACIDS) which are then used for energy

What happens if a horse has too much starch in diet?

Any starch not digested/absorbed in small intestine passes to large intestine for fermentative digestion


Hindgut digestion of starch produces lactic acid which changes gut pH


Can lead to colitis due to irritation or laminitis due to release of endotoxins

Laminitis

LAMINA IS LAYER BEWTEEN COFFIN BONE AND HOOF. LAMINITIS IS THE INFLAMMATION OF THIS AREA.IN SEVERE CASES COFFIN BONE CAN DETATCH AND ROTATE


THIS CAN HAPPEN WHEN HORSE GETS INTO FEED ROOM AND EATS TOO MUCH GRAIN (MEDICAL EMERGENCY)

When does grass have more sugar?

GRASS WILL HAVE HIGHER SUGAR IN THE MORNING AND when it is LUSH GREEN GRASS

What can high sugar lead to?

laminitis

Why can't horses digest high fat diets?

no gallbladder

What is the most expensive component to horses diet?

protein

What does protein provide in horses diet?

amino acids

What are some protein deficiency signs?

weight loss, poor performance, rough hair coat

Why do horses need minerals in diet?

Needed for:Maintenance of body structure, fluid balance, nerve conduction, muscle contractionCritical for young, growing horses

What is the ratio needed for Ca:P for proper absorption?

Ca:P should be 2:1 for proper absorption

What is the best feed type for horses?

pasture- provides 100% nutrients

T/F: When restraining a foal it is important to remove the mare from the immediate area.

F

T/F: horses have a relatively large monogastric stomach

F

When are concentrates usually fed to horses?

Usually fed when forage alone does not meet nutritional requirements – must ensure diet is properly balanced

What is beet pulp good for?

Good for WEIGHT gain (more calories)


High in digestible FIBER low in starch

Why is beet pulp soaked?

to prevent choke

What are Glucasomine and chondroitin used for?

joint supplements

What should be the foundation of diet?

FOURAGE/ROUGHAGE should be the foundation of diet – no less than 50%, but ideally at least 70% of diet and even up to 100%

T/F: salt should always be added to diet

T

How many hours a day should horse graze?

Graze approx. 12-20 hrs per day

How much pasture or hay should a horse consume in relation to their body weight a day?

Should consume at least 1.5% of their body weight in pasture or hay each day


1000 lb horse = 15-30 lbs hay/day

During lactation how should a horses energy and protein intake change?

Double energy and protein from maintenance. During lactation low energy and protein will limit milk production

What kind of teeth do horses have?

hypsodont teeth

What are caps in horses?

Caps: Deciduous teeth that have not been lost and sit on top of the permanent teeth.

What are cups in horses?

Cups (infundibulum): Indentation on occlusive table of young, permanent tooth. Deeper in young horses and wear away over time.

What is a dental star?

Dental star (pulp mark): Exposed central pulp cavity that occurs after wear over time. Appears as cup disappears (8-10 years of age). First appears as wide, thin yellow line in front of central enamel then becomes dark, round circle in center of tooth with age.

At what age will a horse have all of its teeth?

Age 5, all permanent teeth are erupted.

What tooth is a wolf tooth and when will it appear?

upper 1st premolar. May appear at 5-6 months of age.

What is Galvaynes groove?

Galvayne’s groove: Groove at the gum margin on upper corner incisor

Deciduous dental formula for horse

2 (I 3/3 C 0/0 PM 3/3) = 24

Adult dental formula for horse

2(I 3/3 C 0-1/0-1 PM 3-4/3-4 M 3/3) = 36-44

At what age do canines erupt in male horses?

5-6 yo.


CANINES in females are usually absent or very small and seldom erupt (20%).

When estimated teeth by age what tooth do you look at?

incisors

T/F: Angle of incisors becomes more parallel as they get older

T

What is quidding and what is it caused by?

BALLS OF PARTIALLY CHEWED UP FEED ON THE GROUND.


inefficient chewing

What are 5 signs of dental disease in horse?

Quidding, weight loss, foul odor from mouth, head tilt/shaking, bleeding mouth, swelling under eyes, poor performance under saddle

T/F: When a horse exhibits behavioral problems, it is always important to rule out dental problems first.

T

Where do dental hooks form in horses?

BUCCAL SURFACE OF UPPER JAW OR MAXILLA


LINGUAL SURFACE OF THE MANDIBLE


HOOKS CAN FORM ON FIRST TOOTH ON 2ND PM OR A CAUDAL HOOK ON THE LAST TOOTH.

What is a dose syringe used for in horses?

for flushing mouth and stainless steel bucket with water and disinfectant

What is a parrot mouth?

Upper jaw longer than lower jaw causes hooks to develop and incisors to grow abnormally

Define lameness

ABNORMAL stance or gait

What is most common cause of lameness

pain

T/F: Clinical signs of thrush include smelly, black discharge from the frog sulci, as well as mild to severe lameness.

F

T/F: 90% of lamenesses are at or below the CARPUS "KNEE" OR THE TARSUS "HOCK". (DISTAL LIMBS)

T

General guideline for head bobbing when evaluating for lameness is:

“down on ON THE SOUND"

What is the joint flexion test?

Limbs held in flexed position for 45-60 seconds and released


HIND LEG CAN BE HELD FOR UP TO 90 SECONDS SINCE THERE IS MUCH MORE MUSCLE IN HIND


Horse immediately trotted to look for irregularities

When taking radiographs for lameness what views are taken?

4 MAIN VIEWS:


LATERAL TO MEDIAL- OBLIQUE


MEDIAL TO LATERAL- OBLIQUE


LATERAL


ANTERIOR TO POSTERIOR

What test uses Radioisotopes injected IV and scanned with gamma cameras?

Nuclear scintigraphy

What is the scale for lameness?

0-5. 0= no lameness, 5= minimal to no weight bearing

Arthritis common in older horses and athletic horses is known as

DEGENERATIVE JOINT DISEASE (DJD)

Bone spavin =

arthritis in HOCK

Osselets=

= arthritis in FETLOCK

Ring bone=

arthritis in PASTERN

How do you manage arthritis in horses?

Early intervention


Changing training program to decrease joint trauma if possible- IDEAL


NSAID

What two NSAIDS are used in horses with arthritis?

Phenylbutazone (bute)can only go IV, if given perivascularly it can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing


Firocoxib (Equioxx®)- safer NSAID than bute and Banamine

What is navicular syndrome?

Inflammation or degeneration of NAVICULAR BONE bone (distal sesamoid)


Chronic, often progressive disease

Whats One of most common causes of forelimb lameness?

navicular syndrome

What is primary function of navicular bone?

The primary function of navicular bone is to provide constant angle of insertion for DDFT (DEEP DIGITAL FLEXOR TENDON)

3 theories of pathogenesis for navicular syndrome?

Specific cause unknown.


3 theories:


Chronic inflammation- Most accepted theory


Vascular alterations


Repetitive biomechanical forces

During PE, when using hoof testers where should you place the hoof testers to test for navicular syndrome?

HOOF testers over middle one-third of frog often show pain response

What is main focus of treatment of navicular syndrome?

No standard treatment. aimed at PAIN relief rather than prevention of further damage

How does ISOXSUPRINE help navicular syndrome?

Peripheral VASODILATING agent


May alter blood flow to or from the navicular bone


No conclusive evidence of efficacy in treating navicular disease

What is laminitis?

Inflammation of sensitive laminae of hoof WALL

What does the term "founder" mean?

Coffin bone rotates downwards away from hoof wall

What are some clinical signs of laminitis?

Most commonly seen in FRONT legs


Heat around coronary band- WHERE HOOF MEETS SKIN


Bounding pulses in palmar DIGITAL arteries


Inflammation in hoof restricts blood flow


Reluctance to move


Pain over toe with hoof testers

What does a "camped out" stance indicate?

laminitis

Is acute laminitis an emergency?

yes. COFFIN bone rotation can occur rapidly.

What is Most COMMON cause of acute, severe lameness?

hoof abscess

What are two predisposing factors to hoof abscess?

Predisposing factors: Foreign body penetration into hoof capsule, Chronic laminitis

How do you treat hoof abscess?

Localize pain and clean out abscessEpsom salt soaksBoot or bandage over foot

What is thrush and in what conditions is it usually seen?

Bacterial infection of sulci of FROG OF FOOT


Fusarium necrophorum


Usually found in horses kept in WET conditions

What are clinical signs of thrush?

SMELLY, black discharge from frog sulci


Usually NOT lame

What is treatment for thrush?

CLEAN feet, remove necrotic tissue


Move to dry environment


Topical astringents (Koppertox, iodine, etc)

What is the Most commonly diagnosed INFECTIOUS cause of DIARRHEA in horses?

Salmonella

What is the treatment for salmonella?

Treatment is supportive


IV FLUID therapy and ELECTROLYTE replacementUp to 40-80L/day of fluids


NSAIDS -flunixin meglumine (Banamine)

How long should a horse be isolated with Salmonella?

Horse must be isolated until 5 consecutive negative FECAL samples FOR 5 DAYS

T/F: Horses seen at veterinary hospitals are more likely to shed Salmonella than are horses seen in their own barns.

T- due to stress

What is One of most common EMERGENCIES IN HORSES and potentially life threatening?

Colic

How is colic categorized?

Categorized by type of treatment required:


Medical: Impactions, parasites, inflammation


Surgical: Obstructions, torsions, severe impactions

What are 4 general causes of colic?

1. distention of gut


2. simple impaction or blockage


3. obstruction or blockage with partial or complete shut ups of blood supply


4. enteritis/colitis

What are some clinical signs of colic?

Clinical signs:Restlessness: standing and laying down repeatedly


Laying down for PROLONGED periods of time


Rapid breathing and pulse


Rolling


Kicking, biting, and/or looking at ABDOMEN


Pawing

What is the reason for nasogastric intubation?

Presence of GASTRIC REFLUX (excess fluid in stomach– sign of intestinal obstruction or enteritis)


volume: Normal = < 4L, GASTRIC REFLUX = >4L

What is goal of colic treatment?

Goal – provide relief and address underlying problem

For administration of IV fluids, where do you place the IVC?

upper 1/3 jugular vein

What analgesics are used for colic treatment?

Flunixin meglumine (Banamine- NSAID) , xylazine (Rompun- alpha 2 agonist), detomidine (Dormosadan- alpha 2), butorphanol (Torbulgesic- mixed agonist-antagonist opiod)

Where do gastric ulcers usually form?

Non-glandular portion near esophagus


-Constantly produce hydrochloric acid

What are clinical signs of gastric ulcers?

Chronic, low-grade colic


Poor performance


Loss of condition


Poor hair coat

How do you dx gastric ulcers?

Gastroscopy

What is treatment for gastric ulcers?

PREVENTION is KEY!


Remove predisposing factors


H2 blockers (HISTAMINE BLOCKERS) (cimetidine and ranitidine)


Buffers/Antacids


ProtectantsBlock acid from coming into contact with the stomach lining (sucralfate)


Acid pump inhibitor

What is choke?

Obstruction of esophagus- Usually by grain or hay

What are some causes of choke?

Chronic dental disease


Indequate water intake


Large feed particles


Greedy eating habits


Dry food

What is a significant complication of choke?

aspiration pneumonia

What size IV catheter do you use in horses?

14 gauge 5 inch

What is transtracheal aspiration is useful for diagnosis of what?

lower respiratory tract dz

What diagnostic tests are used for upper airway dz?

endoscopy, radiography, CT, MRI

Is equine influenza viral or bacterial?

viral

How is equine influenza transmitted?

Aerosolization during coughing


highly contagious

What is One of most common causes of rapidly spreading outbreaks of respiratory disease in equine?

Equine influenza

What are clinical signs of equine influenza?

Fever, anorexia, weight loss, mucopurulent nasal discharge, increased respiratory rate, lymphadenopathy, cough

How do you prevent equine influenza?

vaccine, recommended every 6 months

What is Rhinopneumonitis also known as?

Equine herpes virus

What does Rhinopneumonitis cause in horses?

respiratory disease and abortion

How is rhinopneumonitis transmitted?

Aerosolization from infected coughing horses


Direct contact with respiratory secretions or indirect (fomite)


Contact with aborted fetuses, fetal fluids, placenta associated with abortion (EHV-1)

What is the vaccination schedule for Rhinopneumonitis for horses?

2x/ year- spring and fall (rhino and flu)

What bacteria is strangles caused by?

Streptococcus equi

How is strangles transmitted?

Nasal secretions


Fomites

What condition causes Swelling and abscesses of submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes in equine?

strangles

How long is a horse with strangles contagious for?

Remain contagious 6 weeks after recovery

Is there a vaccine for strangles?

yes but Not 100% effective


Modified-live IN


Side effects

What is COPD in horses also referred to?

Also known as Recurrent Airway


Obstruction (RAO) or HEAVES

What is a heave line?

Heave LINE- muscular line across abdomen from abdominal breathing

What are clinical signs of Heaves?

Exercise intolerance


Difficulty breathing


Abdominal breathing


Heave LINE


nasal discharge


cough

what is the Most serious zoonotic disease of all mammals

rabies

What virus is rabies caused by?

rhabdovirus

What are the 4 kinds of equine encephalomyelitis?

Eastern (EEE)


Western (WEE)


Venezuelan (VEE)


West Nile (WNV)

What are clinical signs of ENCEPHALOMYELITIS

Fever, ataxia, anorexia, paralysis, circling, head pressing, hyperexcitability

What virus is ENCEPHALOMYELITIS caused by?

Equine alphaviruses

How do you prevent Equine ENCEPHALOMYELITIS?

core vaccines

What is the most common cause of infection of contaminated wounds in horses?

tetanus

How soon do clinical signs for tetanus present?

7-10 days after injury

What is a common clinical sign of tetanus besides "lock jaw" in horses?

Generalized stiffness to start – leads to“sawhorse appearance”

What is the definitive host for EQUINE PROTOZOAL MYELOENCEPHALITIS (EPM)?

opossum- although armadillos, raccoons, cats and skunks are intermediate hosts

What is the transmission of EQUINE PROTOZOAL MYELOENCEPHALITIS (EPM)?

fecal-oral

What is cervical vertebral malformation (CVM) also known as?

Wobblers syndrome

What is wobblers dz characterized by?

Characterized by compression of cervical spinal cord.


Abnormal growth/articulation of vertebral bodies

What are clinical signs of Wobblers dz?

Mild to severe ataxia of limbs (affects coordination)

How often should you reposition a recumbent horse?

every 2 hours

define decubital ulcers

pressure sores

Eyes of horses predisposed to trauma due to________ location

lateral

__________ is also known as “moon blindness”

EQUINE RECURRENT UVEITIS (ERU)

What is most common cause of blindness in the horse?

EQUINE RECURRENT UVEITIS (ERU) (AKA moon blindness)

Blepharospasm

involuntary closing of the eye due to pain

Clinical signs of EQUINE RECURRENT UVEITIS

Blepharospasm, lacrimation, vascularization of sclera, photophobia, corneal edema and ulcers, inflammation, pain

_________ is also known as “swamp fever”

EQUINE INFECTIOUS ANEMIA (EIA)

What kind of disease is EQUINE INFECTIOUS ANEMIA (EIA)?

Persistent viral disease

What are clinical signs of EIA?

Anemia


Petechiae


Fever


Lethargy


Weight loss /anorexia


Thrombocytopenia

How is EIA transmitted?

biting flies (ie. horse flies, deer flies)

T/F: Once a horse is infected with EIA it is permanently infected and is a carrier for life.

T

What does Coggins Test test for?

EIA

T/F: EIA is not a reportable disease.

F

Horses that test positive for EIA must be:

Euthanized or Branded and quarantined


200 yards away in insect-free enclosure

What age group is Cushings disease in a horse common?

geriatrics

What is Cushings dz caused by?

Caused by excessive hormonal secretions from pituitary gland (ACTH) which leads to hyperadrenocorticism


Stimulates excessive cortisol release from adrenal glands

What do you check Digital pulses in a horse for?

bounding digital pulses means laminits

What is Hirsutism (long and wavy hair coat that does not shed in spring) a clinical sign for in horses?

Cushings disease

T/F: when a horse has Cushings disease they are very prone to laminitis

T

What does Pergolide help with in the treatment of cushings dz in horses?

Replaces dopamine which many Cushingoid horses lack

How is VESICULAR STOMATITIS (VS) transmitted?

Transmitted through biting flies and direct contact with lesions or contaminated objects/areas

Is vesicular stomatitis (VS) reportable?

yes, Zoonotic and reportable

What are clinical signs of Vesicular stomatitis (VS) in horses?

Fever


White fluid filled blisters on tongue, lips, nose, mouth


Ulcerations when rupture


May also develop on coronary band, belly, prepuce, udder

How do you treat VESICULAR STOMATITIS (VS) in horses?

Limited – most recover 7-14 days


Supportive care – soften feed, NSAIDs


Quarantine all susceptible horses on premises until 21 days after lesions heal


ISOLATION of infected horses

___________ is also known as "dry land distemper"

PIGEON FEVER

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes what disease in horses?

pigeon fever (AKA dry land distemper)

Where is pigeon fever most often found and how is it transmitted?

Most commonly seen in late fall in western US (survives best during droughts)


Lives in dry soil and manure and enters through wound and mucus membranes


TRANS: biting flies

What are clinical signs of pigeon fever in horses?

IM abscesses commonly on pectoral area and ventral part of abdomen


Sometimes internal abscesses

How do you treat pigeon fever in horses?

Drain and flush abscesses


+/- antibiotics


Pain control

What CORE vaccines are given in the spring to horses?

1. 5 way- EEE, WEE, Rhino, flu, tetanus


2. West nile

What CORE vaccines are given in fall to horses?

1. rhino


2. flu

What disease is caused by air pollutants and dust?

COPD

How is a horse’s estrous cycle classified?

Seasonally polyestrous

What is the length of a horses estrous cycle?

15-26 days

When do mares being/end cycling?

Mares begin cycling in late March or early April and continue until September or October

What part of the horses estrous cycle is the period of follicular development in ovaries?

proestrus

Proestrus ends when _______ levels peak.

estrogen

During proestrus there is a Decrease in _____ hormone and increase in _____ hormone

FSH, LH

The period of sexual receptivity..

estrus

How long is the estrus period on a horse?

5-7 days

What is a sign that a mare is in the estrus phase of her cycle?

Shown by mare teasing


Squats, urinates, lifts tail, “winks” on approach of stallion, decreased kicking, ear position forward, leaning toward stallion, and standing for stallion

When does ovulation occur in a mare?

last 48 hours of estrus phase

________ hormone at its peak during ovulation

LH

corpus luteum develops - produces _________

progesterone

What stage of estrous does the corpus luteum develop?

Metestrus

What phase of estrous does corpus luteum reach full size?

diestrus

What phase of estrous does mare "tease out"?

diestrus

What do humans use artificial light while breeding?

“Tricks” the mare into perceiving that days are lengthening


Start December 1st and is gradually increased until 16 hours of light is achieved per day


Artificial light should be added in the evening rather than morning


Breed when the “day is long”

What is the age of female horses at puberty?

10-24 months

what is the common age to first breed a horse?

2-3 yo

What is the gestation period for a horse?

305-365 days


average 340

What is the common weaning age for a horse?

4-7 months

What is the purpose of a mare breeding soundness exam?

Assess fertility (ability to support pregnancy)


Identify potential conditions that might interfere with successful breeding

A(n) ____________ is the suturing of the upper lips of the vulva performed when abnormalities of the vulvar anatomy are present.

Caslicks surgery

What is the proper confirmation of a mare vulva?

Labia should meet firmly and evenly


Should not slope more than 10 degrees

Sloping perineum (“sunken anus”) causes:

Air (pneumovagina – “windsucking”) and fecal material entering vagina and cause uterine infections which may lead to infertility

What is the most important procedure in tx of pneumovagina and infertility caused by infection of genital tract.

Caslicks surgery

What is the Most accurate method for estrus detection in mare

Ultrasound per rectum

Most common cause of infertility is in a mare is ________

METRITIS

If a mare has had repeated, unsuccessful breedings or loss of embryo early in pregnancy, what is most likely the cause?

metritis

Why is the stallions scrotal circumference measured?

Correlated with sperm production

What is the preferred method of semen collection?

artificial vagina (AV)

What temperatures do artificial vaginas need to be for the stallion?

Stallions very particular about temperature (113°F)

Fresh semen must be used ___________

immediately

frozen semen is stored __________

stored in 0.5-5.0ml straws in liquid nitrogen – must be thawed in warm water bath prior to use

cooled semen stored ____________

in plastic bags inside special insulated container – used within 24 hours

What temperature must semen be kept at?

37°C/98.6°F

When ultra sounding the mare via rectum to determine estrous what do you look at?

precise measurement of follicle size (ovulate when >35mm)

At what day of pregnancy can you dx by palpation per rectum?

18-21 days until day 90

at what day of pregnancy can you dx by ultrasound?

10-12 days

When can you head the equine heart beat via ultrasound?

4 weeks

Development in foals critical in what stage of pregnancy?

last 48 hours

What are signs of impeding parturition in a mare?

Udder enlarges 2-4 weeks before foaling


Teats may “wax” (Leakage and drying of colostrum around each teat)


Parturition often follow 24-48 hours after waxing is observed

When do most foalings occur?

80% of foalings occur at night

What is stage 1 of parturition in mares?

preparatory stage. Restless – pace, lie down then get up, roll, no interest in foodFoal getting into correct position



How long does stage 1 of parturition last in a mare and when does it end?

Lasts approximately 2-4 hours.


Ends with chorioallantois rupture “Water breaks”

What is stage 2 of parturition in mares?

Delivery of fetus


Water breaking signals start of stage 2 (several gallons of fluid)

How long does active labor last in mare? when is it a problem?

20-45 minutes of forceful pushing


(avg = 20, if >45 = PROBLEM!)

What is stage 3 of parturition in a mare?

Passage of placenta


Should take no longer than 3 hours

T/F: if placenta is retained in the mare manual detachment should be done

F.


Oxytocin therapy


Manual detachment should not be done


Risk of causing damage to uterus and hemorrhage

What is "red bag"?

PREMATURE PLACENTAL SEPERATION

What is the Most common reason for dystocia?

abnormal fetal presentation

What must you do for "red bag"?

Must be opened quickly and delivery assisted or foal will die

What are 3 primary methods to treat dystocia in mares?

1. mutation and deliver by traction


2. fetotomy


3. c section

What is the Most common and always first method attempted in dystocia in a mare?

Mutation and delivery by traction

What is metritis?

infection of uterus


Usually sequela to retained placenta or contamination during obstetric procedures


Can lead to septicemia and laminitis

What is the neonatal period in a foal?

first 4-5 days of life

When should a foal be standing and nursing?

Foal should be standing within 1-2 hrs and nursing within 2-4 hours

Normal temp of a foal?

Normal is 99-101.5

Neonatal foals highly sensitive to __________

hypothermia

How is the umbilical cord cut?

Cord breaks naturally when mare stands


Typically 1-2 inches from foal’s abdomen

How should you care for the umbilical cord the first week of life?

DIP in antiseptic solution (dilute betadine)


Continue to dip 2-3 times daily for 1st week of life

What is Persistent PATENT urachus?

Urine from umbilicus and urethra 48 hours after birth

How do you fix persistent patient urachus?

cauterize or surgical ligation

When is suckling reflex present in a foal?

~5 minutes after birth, asses by sticking fingers in mouth

How often should you feed if supplement nursing a foal?

Must feed q 1-2 hrs first week, then 3-6 hours 2nd week

What is the leading cause of Colic in neonatal foal

>24 hours impaction- not passing the meconium

Foals get no passive transfer of immunity across placenta, they only get it from ________

colostrum

The foal must get sufficient quantities of colostrum in first _____ hours of life

18

It is important to measure the_____ antibody in a foal's blood to ensure adequacy of passive transfer.

IgG

How much colostrum does an average foal need?

2-3 L

How much IgG should the mares colostrum contain?

50g/L

The most common cause of neonatal bacterial septicemia in foals is:

failure of passive transfer (no colostrum)

Why can't a foal have colostrum after 18 hours of life?

Intestines lose ability to absorb large proteins

What is Machinery murmur in a foal a sign of?

(PDA) should disappear by 4-7 days

Define Valgus in terms of leg deformities:

legs appear crooked away from midline

Define Varus in terms of leg deformities:

Legs appear crooked – toward midline

What are two flexural deformities in a foal?

Dropped ankle = hyperextended fetlock


Contracted tendons = post-legged

What is “Dysmature”?

despite normal gestation foal show signs of prematurity

What are the landmarks for IM injection in the neck of a horse?

Triangular spaced bordered dorsally by jugular groove, ventrally by crest of neck, and about hand’s width in front of cranial border of scapula

What are 4 spots of IM injection in a horse?

Lateral cervical (neck)


Semimembranosus and semitendinosus muscles


Pectoral muscles


Gluteal muscles

THE OBJECTIVE OF THE LIVESTOCK INDUSTRY IS:

Produce the most product of the highest quality and produce it with the least amount of cost


You must be PROFITABLE

What is the milking procedure for a dairy cow?

Wash and dip teats, apply teat cups, run machine, dip teats again, sanitize teat cups

How much product (butter and cheese) do dairy cows produce a year?

2300 gallons of milk per year

How much product (milk and cheese) do goats produce a year?

average 280 gallons of milk per year (1-2 gallons per day)

What is the housing for dairy cows?

Free stall barns


Dry lots or pastures

What is the housing for beef cattle?

Pasture - Requires water and shelter (trees)


DRY lot (feedlots)



4 types of pork production systems:

1. farrowing- breeding


2. growing/nursery facility


3. finishing (fed until market weight)


4. farrow to finish facility (all phases)

How are swine housed?

most in confinement

What is housing for sheep?

Pasture and lambing barns


predators are biggest challenge

What is wool from?

sheep

What is mohair from?

goat

What is fleece from?

alpaca/llamas

How should you restrain a sheep?

May back into corner and straddle between legs by squeezing shoulders and controlling head with hands


"setting up"- Sits sheep on its rump

T/F: Camelid Males do not tend to be more aggressive than females

T

What is only real defense of swine?

biting

Where is a hog snare used on a pig?

Only used on the top jaw

Where is a panel tag placed for ID?

Placed in middle 1/3 of ear


Common in cattle, swine, sheep, and goats

What is placed on heifers vaccinated for brucellosis (bangs vaccine)

metal clips

What type of ID is used in farm animals for heat detection, pregnancy checking, or IDs needed for short periods of time?

temporary marking paint

What species is ear notching most commonly performed?

pigs

How does hot branding work?

Hot branding kills the hair follicles to produce a scar

How does freeze branding work?

Destroys melanocytes (hair pigment), not hair follicles - turns hairs white

T/F: As much as 90% of health-related disease in large animals can be related to improper nutrition

T

What part of the ruminant stomach is "honeycomb"

reticulum

What is rumination

Rumination- chewing of cud.

What is eructation?

belching

What is fermentation and where does it occur?

microbes breaking down nutrients. by product is gas.


mostly takes place in the rumen along with reticulum

What is cattle dental formula?

2[ I0/3, C0/1, P 3/3, M 3/3]

What is bovines primary energy source?

carbs

What is silage and who can it be fed to?

fermented, high-moisture stored feed which can be fed to ruminants- do not feed silage to horses.

Quality_________ is essential to productivity and profitability of dairy cattle

forage/roughage

Protein in beef cow rations come primarily from the________ in the diet

forage

For bovine, The best way to evaluate your feeding program is ____________

by looking at the animals themselves. body conditioning score.

What is BOVINE VIRUS DIARRHEA (BVD)?

an infectious pestivirus.

What does BOVINE VIRUS DIARRHEA (BVD) cause?

Causes GI, respiratory, and reproductive problems

When do bovine contract BOVINE VIRUS DIARRHEA (BVD)?

Cattle infected in utero


Will be continuous carries and shed virus if survive pregnancy (most don't survive)

Clinical signs of bovine virus diarrhea?

Abortion, stillbirth, ataxia, inability to nurse, tremors, lack of appetite, diarrhea, fever, lethargy

Is there a treatment for bovine virus diarrhea?

No. slaughter carrier animal

JOHNE'S DZ (PRONOUNCED YO-NUHZ) is also known as _____________

paratuberculosis

How is Johne's Dz transmitted?

via fecal-oral route, across placenta, and via milk

What is the treatment for Johne's Dz?

None, slaughter animal.

Is there a vaccine for Johne's dz?

No. Testing for bacteria should be performed every 6 months. Good hygiene. Pasteurization of colostrum. Purchase cattle only from herds certified as free of Mycobacterium paratuberculosis

What is another name for Roman tympany?

Bloat

What is Ruman Tympany?

Abnormal ruminal distension with gas


-Fermentation and eructation

What is the difference between frothy bloat and gas bloat?

In frothy bloat, Foam develops on top of rumen contents and blocks eructation. Gas bloat is due to an obstruction that blocks gas release.

What side is distended in cattle with bloat?

left

_________ is also known as hardware dz

TRAUMATIC RETUCLOPERITONITIS

What is TRAUMATIC RETUCLOPERITONITIS caused by?

Caused by consumption of foreign body


Often heavy, metal, and sharp

With hardware disease where does metal end up?

reticulum

What is Withers test and what does it test for?

Withers test: apply pressure to backbone just above withers – grunting = positive results




hardware dz in ruminants

What is BOVINE RESPIRATORY DZ COMPLEX (BRD) caused by?

Caused by stress, crowding, poor ventilation, dust, transport, comingling


Involves many bacteria and viruses

In Bovine Respiratory Dz Comlpex _______ infection occurs first followed by ________ infection which causes pneumonia.

viral, bacterial

The causative agent of INFECTIOUS BOVINE RHINOTRACHEITITS (IBR) is:

Bovine herpes virus I

INFECTIOUS BOVINE RHINOTRACHEITITS (IBR) is spread via

direct contact with nasal secretion; can also be spread by bulls mating (virus can be present in genitals)

What is causative agent of BOVINE RESPIRATORY SYNCYTIAL VIRUS (BRSV)?

RNA virus of the paramyxovirus family

Which ruminant disease replicates in lower respiratory tract and predisposed lungs to secondary bacterial infection?

BOVINE RESPIRATORY SYNCYTIAL VIRUS (BRSV)

SHIPPING FEVER is Also known as _______

PASTEURELLOSIS

Which disease is caused by gram negative bacteria that are normal flora of upper respiratory system and become overabundant after stress or viral infection?

shipping fever (PASTEURELLOSIS)

What ruminant disease is Caused by: Bacillus anthracis?

anthrax

who can anthrax affect?

Affects ALL warm blooded animals

What is the main clinical sign of anthrax?

Sudden death with no rigor mortis,

BOVINE SPONGIFORM ENCEPHALOPATHY (BSE) Commonly referred to as __________

“MAD COW Disease”

Neurological disorder caused by infection of a PRION (abnormal protein that acts like a virus)

BOVINE SPONGIFORM ENCEPHALOPATHY (BSE) (mad cow)

_________ also known as PINK EYE in bovine

INFECTIOUS BOVINE KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS (IBV)

Most common ocular disease in cattle

INFECTIOUS BOVINE KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS (IBV)

This dz is caused by Caused by Moraxella bovis.

INFECTIOUS BOVINE KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS (IBV)

Infection of interdigital skin and underlying tissues in cattle, sheep, and goats:

FOOT ROT

This is a common, very contagious dz in cattle, sheep, and goat that occurs in wet muddy conditions.

Foot rot

Zinc sulfate foot baths for cattle prevent what?

foot rot

how do cattle contract lepto?

Infected via contaminated drinking water or direct contact of body secretions (milk, urine, afterbirth)

_________ is aBacterial VENEREAL disease caused by Campylobacter

VIBRIOSIS

How is Vibriosis transmitted?

Spread via infected bulls during mating and from dam to calf in uteroSeen in cattle, sheep, and goats

What is biosecurity?

Set of MANAGEMENT practices that greatly protect herd from being exposed to new diseases or decreases spread of disease within a herd

Calves vaccinated for :

Clostridial diseases (7 or 8 way), 4 way viral vaccine (IBR, BVD, BRSV, PI3), Brucellosis (replacement heifers)

Heifers and cows vaccinated for:

Clostridial 7 or 8 way way, 4 way viral, leptospirosis (5 way), vibriosis

T/F: Proestrus is the period of follicular development in the ovary which is stimulated by FSH from the anterior pituitary gland.

T

T/F: Estrus is the period of sexual receptivity that begins with ovulation when LH is at its peak.

F

T/F: Metestrus is the period in which the corpus luteum develops and produces estrogen.

F

T/F: Diestrus is the period of non-cycling.

F

DESCRIBE the veterinary technician's role in preparing a mare for a reproductive exam.

The tail must be wrapped so that no hair can contaminate the site and then the tail is tied or held to the side. The perineal area must be washed with soap or detergent

Which of the following is false regarding thrush?A) It is a bacterial infection of the sulci of the frog.


B) Treatment involves cleaning the hoof and applying a topical astringent such as iodine.


C) Clinical signs include smelly, black discharge from the frog sulci, as well as mild to severe lameness.


D) Thrush is usually found in horses kept in wet conditions.

C) Clinical signs include smelly, black discharge from the frog sulci, as well as mild to severe lameness.

T/F: When restraining a foal it is important to remove the mare from the immediate area.

F

______ must be fed in small mouths since horses produce a limited amount of amylase

starch

sharp points in the horse develop on the :

lingual aspect of mandible and buccal aspect of the maxilla

sharp hooks develop on

rostral aspect of the PM of the maxilla and caudal aspect of the PM on the manidble

Timothy hay is a legume that is lower in protein and calcium than alfalfa hay-

FALSE - - Timothy hay, Bermuda is a grass hay - depends on where you live- lower in protein and calcium

PSUEDORABIES is Also known as

“Aujesky disease” and “Mad-itch”

what causes Cyanosis of ears, vulva, tail, abdomen, and snout in swine?

PORCINE REPRODUCTIVE AND RESPIRATORY SYNDROME (PRRS)

TRANSMISSIBLE GASTROENTERITIS is referred to as ______________

winter time dz

Who does TRANSMISSIBLE GASTROENTERITIS affect?

swine

Most common and important cause of infectious infertility in swine

PORCINE PARVOVIRUS

2 most common serovars found in swine

Leptospira pomona


Leptospira bratislava

TPR for pig

Temperature101º to 103.5º F


Pulse rate60 to 90 per minute;


Respiration rate10 to 24 per minute;

Piglets can be restrained by

holding by rear legs

What is best site for IM injection in swine?

cervical neck muscle

What type of estrous cycle to pigs have?

Nonseasonally polyestrous – all year

When to pigs ovulate?

40 to 46 hours after the beginning of estrus

Gestation of pig

114 days (3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days)

What type of placenta do pigs have?

diffuse

What is Lordosis response in swine?

during male mounting or when back pressure is applied resulting in a rigid stance and erect ears (“Popping the ears”)

What parturition in swine called?

farrowing

How long does delivery take in swine?

all delivered in 3-4 hours

Stage 3 of farrowing is complete within ___ hours

4

T/F: Retained placentas are uncommon in swine

T

T/F: End of parturition is signaled by sow standing and urinating, followed by lying down to allow nursing

T

Most common cause of dystocia in swine:

Uterine inertia


Obstruction of birth canal

Most common causes of neonate death in swine :

Crushed by sow


Starvation from failing to nurse


Hypothermia

What do neonate piglets need done in the first 1-2 days of life?

Iron Dextran injection


Clipping needle teeth


Tail docking


Ear notching/tattooing

What does iron dextran injection prevent

Prevents “baby pig thumps”


Sow’s milk naturally low in iron

piglets tails should be cut ______ inch from base

½ to 1


Rectal prolapse may occur if cut too short

Most common method for identifying swine

ear notching

Needle teeth are:

deciduous I3 and canine teeth


- No closer than 1-2 mm to gumline

Cattle have why type of estrous cycle?

polyestrous

Gestation period of cattle

9 months (283 days)

How soon can pregnancy be dx by palpation?

Rectal palpation- 30 days gestation

Fetal sexing of cattle can be done at

between 55-70 days

Bovine have what type of placenta?

cotyledonary

Maternal caruncle (on uterine side) and fetal cotyledon (on placenta) they tightly attach to each other and causes what?

retained placenta

What are the most obvious signs of impeding parturition of cattle?

Softening of muscles and ligaments of backend and tail head (caused by relaxin)

How long does stage 1 of parturition in cattle take?

Lasts around 6 hours (Can be up to 24 hrs) ----- much longer then horses (2-4 hours in horses)

How long does stage 2 of parturition in horses take?

Avg 2-4 hours (Can take up to 6-12 hours) ---- horses are about 20 minutes (>45 is a problem)

How long does the delivery of placenta take in cattle?

Take 4-6 hours ---- horses have retained placenta >3 hours


Up to 12 hours is not uncommon


If placenta not passed in 12-18 hours, veterinarian should be consulted

What are three primary methods for treating dystocia in cattle?

mutation / traction- OB chain and handles


fetotomy- giggly wire


c section-

Most common device used to increase traction and leverage in cow

Calf jack or puller