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384 Cards in this Set

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Horse TPR

T=98-101


P=28-44


R=10-20

How many quadrants do you listen to for horse gut sounds?

4, 2 on each side upper and lower

Mare

Female horse after 3 years

broodmare

female horse for breeding

maiden

mare that has never had a foal

barren

broodmare who was not bred

stallion

intact male horse

gelding

castrated male horse

foal

young horse, birth to weaning

colt

intact male horse till 3 years

filly

female younger then 3 years

Deworming in horses

80% of worms carried by 20% of the herd

What is the EPG (eggs per gram) count for horses that indicates the need to deworm?

over 300

How often do horses need hoof trims?

6-8 weeks

Coggins test is?

Tests horse for equine infectious anemia

Horse age determination via teeth?

-incisors erupt from center to outside- decidious at 7 days, 7 weeks and 7 months. Adult at 3 years, 4 years and 5 years


- canines erupt at 4 years


incisors estimate years by wear time- occlusion table changes shape- 5 years it is flattened, 9 years is oval, 15 years it is round, 20 years triangle, 7 year hook

Horse age determination via galvaye's groove?

-10 years it appears at gum margin


-15 years halfway down surface


-20 years extends entire length


-25 years disappears from upper half of tooth


-30 years disappears totally

What is wave mouth?

-adjacent cheek teeth that have unequal heights


-can cause severe inability for the horse to grind food properly


-over-correction of a wave mouth can have disastrous results for the horse as well

What is step mouth?

A horses partner tooth in its jaw is missing and grows extremely long because it does not have another surface to grind against


-missing tooth

Core horse vaccines? Additional horse vaccines?

Core: EEE, WEE, WNV, Tetanus, Rabies


Additional: Potomac, Strangles, Rhino, Flu

Cow

Mature female cow

bull

male cow

steer

castrated male cow

heifer

immature female cow-younger then a year

calf

neonate, baby cow

first-calf heifer

a female cow who is 2 years old and only had one calf (may also hear 2nd,3rd, or fourth)

free martin

sterile female cow who was a twin to a bull calf

dry cow

dairy cow not milking, 2 months prior to calving

freshening

the act of a cow calving

Cow TRP

T=99-101.5


P=40-80


R=10-30

Types of cow stalls

- free stall barn


-tie stall/stanchion barn


- dry lots or pastures

How many teeth do horses have?

36

how many teeth do cows have?

32

Milking procedure order?

1.prewash teats


2.pre-dip and allow to dry


3. strip teats to induce oxytocin for milk let down


4. apply teat cup


5. machine strip


6. post-dip


7. sanitize teat cups

cows produce on average how much milk?

-20,000/lb/year some up to 50000/lb/year


-2300 gallons per cow per year


-70-100 lds per day

What is the cut off for somatic cell count in milk?

750,000

Beef cow hanging weight? live weight?

-live weight is weight at market


-hanging weight is weight they are sold by and weight after slaughter

Type of beef industries

- cow calf producers


backgrounding- sell calves at 1 year of age and keep them through the winter


-seed stock producers- raise replacements


-feedlot/dry lot- raise to market weight

What are supernumerary teats?


Extra teats on the utters of cows

Pinkeye

common in cattle and goats very contagious

shipping fever

respiratory sickness that can be prevented with vaccines

Most common respiratory causes in cattle

-IBR-Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis


-PI3- parainfluenza


-BVD-bovine viral diarrhea


-BRSV-bovine respiratory sensytial virus


(Most common vaccines in cows w/ lepto vaccine)

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

mad cow disease, prion caused

white muscle disease

caused by vitamin e or selenium defincency

Ketosis

metabolic issue usually right after calving

Swine

refers to porcine species

sow

mature intact female pig

boar

mature intact male pig

barrow

male castrated before puberty pig

stag

male castrated after puberty pig

gilt

female pig before the birth of her first litter

farrowing

act of birthing in pigs

hog

large swine more then 120 pounds

number one concern with swine operations

air quality due to pigs excrement making ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, carbon monoxide, methane

pig TPR

T=101-103.5


P=60-90


R=10-24

How many teeth do pigs have

44

What are pigs injected with to prevent anemia

iron

atrophic rhinitis

deformation of upper jaw, coughing and sneezing in pigs caused by bacteria

Pseudorabies

like rabies in pigs but DNA enveloped herpes virus

Malignant hyperthermia porcine syndrome

muscle cells with impaired ability to regulate calcium causing hyperthermia under sedation

parakeratosis

zinc deficiency in pigs that causes rough scaly skin

Rickets

lack of calcium, phosphorous or vit d in pigs that causes slow growth with crooked legs

erysipelas

diamond skin disease, from bacteria

Vaccines in pigs? for pet pigs

-tons for pigs especially in production: abortive-lepto, brucella Gi diseases-salmonella, ecoli Respiratory-bordetella, pastuella Neurologic-pseudorabies, rabies


-pet pigs: rabies, clostridium, tetanus, erysipelas, bordetella, pasturella

Dam

adult female camelid

harem

group of female camelids

gelding

male castrated camelid

cria

baby camelid

cush

sitting position of camelids

how often are camelids sheered?

once a year, takes 18 months for fiber to regrow, first sheer is worth more

Camelid TPR

T=99-101.5


P=60-90


R=10-30

Camelid teeth eruption?

central incisors-2 years


second incisors- 3 years


lateral incisors- 3-5 years


male fighting teeth-3 years

total number of camelid teeth

26 female


32 males

Vaccines for camelids

rabies, clostridium/tetnus (CDT)

Failure of passive transfer

colostrum antibodies are not absorbed by the neonate or not enough are absorbed to be healthy

Ewe

adult female sheep

ram

adult male sheep

wether

castrated male sheep/goat

lamb

baby sheep

Doe or nanny

mature female goat

buck or billy

mature male goat

kid

baby goat

TPR of sheep and goat

T=101-103


P=70-90


R=12-25

Goat teeth total

32

Famancha scoring

using ocular mucous membranes to measure the MM color to check anemia

How to collect urine from a sheep?

Hold nostrils and mouth shut for 45 seconds will typically pee

Collect urine from a goat

place in new stall often pee

Vaccines for goats/sheep

CDT (clostridium and tetnus), rabies

Caseous lymphadenitis

common in goats and sheep. abcesses at lymph nodes and chin, cottage cheese like sores

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy

prion, mad cow in sheep

Contagious ecthyma

soremouth, virus

Ovine prograssive pneumonia

viral, only sheep, causes bad pneumonia

Entropion

eye lid is rolled in sheep

polio

thiamine deficiency in goats and sheep

listeria

bacterial infection causeing facial paralysis

Pregnancy toxcemia

similar to ketosis in cattle, happens when pregnant

How to collect semen?

Elcetroejaculation


artificial vagina


natural stimulation

Equine repro info?

seasonally polyestrus


urine flush and infusion for insemination

Bovine repro info?

year-round polyestrous



Ovine/ Caprine repro infor

Ovine: seasonally polyestrous


Caprine: type of cylce varies among species

Camelid repro info?

Polyestrous

Porcine repro info?

polyestrous

repro drugs

progesterone-keep animal in heat, help maintain pregnancy (regumate)


gonadotropin releasing hormone- help follicles grow


FSH- stimulation follicle


Gonadotropins- induce ovulation in horses


PGF2 alpha- lyses CL (lutalase)

Gestation periods?

equine: 11 months 305 days


bovine: 283 days


Ovine: 148 days


Caprine: 151 days


Camelids: 11 months to 1 year 335 days


Porcine: 3 month, 3 weeks, 3 days (114 days)

Illegal drugs in food animals

chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO), nitrofurazone, phenylbutazone, aminoglycosides

Procaine penicillin

works well for deep wounds, has longer withholding times

polyflex/ampicillin

used for pneumonia, GI infection, post surgical, mastitis in cattle


broad spec antibiotic


withdrawal times very accurate

oxytetracycline

good at killing bacteria in cells used for toxic mastitis, pinkeye, metritis, lyme, potomac horse fever, anaplasma

mastitis tubes

milk culture for non responsive infections


important withholding guides


today version for lactation


tomorrow version for dry

Naxcel and excenel

for foot rot, metritis, pheumonia, no milk withhold time. Don't use in mastitis doesn't go to utter

Excede

long lasting broad spectrum antibiotic


no milk withhold, don't use with mastitis

nuflor and draxxin

long acting antibiotic for pneumonia



banamine

NSAID for pain inflammation and fever always give IV

bute (phenylbutazone)

illegal in cattle


orthopedic pain in horses

Baytril

Sub q use in cattle and pigs only, IV in horses


good for broad spec antibiotic for those allergic to penacillin

tetracycline/doxycycline/minocycline

lyme, anaplasma treatment in horses

sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

most common antibiotic in horses

sedatives

rompum (xylazine)- use small amounts in ruminants


dormosedan-very strong dont use in ruminants


butorphenol- helps relax muscles


acepromazine- penile paralysis in male stallions


guaifenesin- muscle relaxant


ketamine- most often used

llama lullaby

sedation with ketamine, torb and xylozine

triple drip

for horses: guaifenesin ketamine, xylazine

double drip

ruminents: guaifenesin and ketamine

adequan

joint injections for horses

sub-palpebral lavage system

allows easier delivery of eye meds

DMPLO

dorsal medial plantar lateral oblique

DLPMO

dorsal lateral plantar medial oblique

lameness exam

full limb flexion tests


specific joint flexion tests


timing and trotting


diagnostic nerve block


practice makes perfect


grade lameness (0-5)

Neuro exam

grade 0-5

dry matter

food type when completely dry

TMR

total mixed ration- mixing all different food components in dairy feed

nutrient requirements

water, carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals

Carbohydrates are?

sugars, starch and fiber

silage

fermented feed from the whole stock

fescue toxicity

hay that causes toxicity and stops mares from lactating

copper

sheep very sensitive too

Rumentin

Coccidiastat in cow fed that is bad for horses

True or False: A rectal prolapse is an urgent, life threatening emergency, but a uterine prolapse can wait until later in the day.

False

Pinkeye is spread by......

flies

White muscle disease is often associated with.... deficiency.

Selenium

True or False: Clostridial diseases are NOT spread from animal to animal.

True

Which of the following is NOT a clostridial disease?


a. Tetanus


b. Mumps


c. Botulism


d. food poisoning


e. gangrene

b. mumps

clostridium is an aerobic, spore-forming motile rod- the spores can survive up to...... on inanimate surfaces that are exposed to oxygen.

2 years

Black leg is an acute, highly fatal disease that affects....... and .........

cows and sheep

Botulism, in most cases, is a fatal disease- without showing any signs of disease, many animals will be found..... after ingesting a large amount of toxin.

dead

What teeth are removed to prevent interference with the bit in the horses mouth?

Wolf teeth

True or False: Horses have brachydont teeth which continue to move up from the jaw above the gum line (erupt) over a number of years.

False: they have hypsodont teeth

While EEE mainly causes disease in horses and other equids, what other animals have NOT been known to have been infected?

Raccoons

True or False: EEE/WEE/WNV are vector-borne diseases which means they can infect horses and humans through the bite of a mosquito

True

How is EEE/WEE/WNV spread?

Through the bite of an infected mosquito

Why are EEE/WEE/WNV usually collectively called equine viral encephalomyelitides?


a.they all affect the central nervous system of a horse and can be fatal


b. they can be confused with one another even though they are completely different viruses and are treated differently


c. because they are zoonotic diseases


d. none of the above

a.

Where was the first recorded case of West Nile Virus?

CT

Rumensin is toxic to.....

horses

..... are the most toxic part of the nightshade plant

green berries

What toxin is produced by the seeds, foliage and bark of the wild cherry tree?

Hydrogen cyanide

Though they must ingest large quantities of it, animals who ingest Bracken fern exhibit signs of?

Polio

Pokeweed produces this toxin:

phytolaccotoxin

what makes a plant poisonous?

alkaloids, cyanide, prussic acid, glycosides, thiaminase, nitrates, gallic acid

Photosensitization is...

skin lacking pigment becomes susceptible to ultraviolet light because of photodynamic agents

Rhododendron

toxic plant containing glycosides in all parts


symptoms are tremors and fever


typical in goats

Red maple

Leaves contain gallic acid


cause hemolytic anemia and kidney damage


adult horses must consume 1.5 pound dose to be toxic

Black Walnut

bark, wood, nuts and roots are toxic


horses it can be in shavings


cause depression, lethargy, laminitis, and swelling of lower limbs

Wild cherry

seeds, foliage and bark produce hydrogen cyanide


leaves most dangerous when wilted


2.5 lb dose toxic for 1000 lb animal


symptoms are bright red blood and death


death occurs in 20-30 mins

Japanese yew

contains taxine


extremely toxic to all mammals


as little as a mouthful can be fatal in 30 mins

Pokeweed

it produces a phytolaccotaxin


roots are most toxic part, but leaves and stems are also toxic


symptoms: burning sensation in mouth, low grade chronic colic, diarrhea

Nightshade plants

alkaloids in leaves, shoots and berries


affects central nervous system and GI tract


1-10 lbs toxic to 1000lb animal

Bracken fern

Leaves contain thiaminase


animals must consume hundreds of pounds for affects


signs of polio


treat with thiamine injection

Monensin-rumensin

additive to cattle feed


prevents coccydia in cattle but toxic to horses

rodenticides

diphenadione is vit k blocker


blocks clotting cascade


toxic to all mammals

Brucellosis

zoonotic that affects animals ability to reproduce


spread through raw milk to humans


bacteria

Campylobacter

spread through contaminated food, water or direct fecal oral route


cause diarrhea, cramping, abdominal pain, fever


bacteria

E coli

bacteria


transmitted via food or direct contact


severe stomach cramps, diarrhea, vomiting

Leptospirosis

bacteria


contaminated water of body fluids


lead to kidney or liver failure


fever, headaches, chills, vomiting, rash

Listeria

bacteria


spread via food, soil or water


signs: drooping ears or lips, neuro signs


shed in milk and causes abortion

MRSA type staphs

methicillan resistant staph aureus


bacteria


passed through direct contact

Tuberculosis

bacteria


weight loss, fever, persistent cough


people more likely to get infected if drink raw milk or cheese or undercooked meat

Q fever

bacteria


spread via contaminated milk, breathing dust or contact with feces or urine or placenta of infected


flu like symptoms

What animals do not get lyme disease?

cows and cats (ruminants sheep and goats)

Salmonella

bacteria


in food water or contact with contamination


most common zoonotic in horses

dermatophilosis

bacteria, rain-rot


spread via touch

ringworm

dermatophytes fungus

Porcine and avian influenza

viral


signs:coughing, sneezing, discharge from nose or eyes

Rabies

Viral neuro disease


infect through bite or saliva contact on open wound


signs: behavioral changes and neuro


deadly once symptoms appear

vesicular stomatitis

viral, blisters on mouth or penis


spread via contact

Soremouth

contagious ecthyma-viral


affects sheep and goats


sores on mouth

Crypto

parasite


spread through contaminated food, water or direct contact


abdominal pain, and profuse watery diarrhea


self limiting and resolves in 2-3 weeks

Rhinopneumonitis is caused by.....

equine herpesvirus

True or false: diagnostics for rhinopneumonitis can distinguish whether or not the disease is active or latent.

True

High levels of..... and...... can cause the equine herpesvirus to reactivate in latent tissue, leading to rhinopneumonitis

stress and corticosteroids

rhinopneumonitis can have severe.... symptoms.


a. respiratory


b. reproductive


c. neurologic


d. all of the above

d. all of the above

the prognosis for rhinopneumonitis is poor in horses who have..... symptoms and worse in those who are.....

neurologic and recumbent

Extra label is defined as:


a. used in a species not listed on the label


b. for an indication not on the label


c. different dose, frequency, or route of administration that the label


d. all of the above

d. all of the above

all of these drugs are illegal to use in food animals except:


a.dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO)


b.nitrofurazone


c. fenbendazole


d. gentamicin

c. fenbendazole

true or false: horses cannot metabolize prednisone

true

this is a common NSAID used in all large animals for pain, inflammation and fever


a. baytril


b. banamine


c. previcox


d. meloxicam

b. banamine

the most common antibiotic used in horses


a. enrofloxacin (baytril)


b. gentamicin


c doxycycline


d. sulfamethoxazole (uniprim or smz)

d. sulfamethoxazole (uniprim or smz)

the route of transmission of leptospirosis is

contact with the urine or water of contaminated animals with mucus membranes or breaks in the skin

common signs of leptospirosis in horses include all except which of the following


a. fever


b. loss of appetite


c. hives


d. lethargy

d. lethargy

leptospirosis in horse can lead to all of the following except


a. dental disease


b. equine recurrent uveitis


c. abortion


d. renal or liver failure

a. dental disease

which is the definitive method of diagnosing leptospirosis

culture or immunofluorescence staining

True or false: is there a vaccine available to prevent leptospirosis in horses

true.. yes there is a vaccine available

what is the bacteria that causes lumpy jaw


a. actinomyces bovis


b. mycobacterium bovis


c. action bacillus lignieresii


d. escherichia coli

a. actinomyces bovis

true or false: Lancing the lump on the jaw will help with healing

false

what animal is most common to get lumpy jaw?

cattle

True or false: there is a vaccine to prevent lumpy jaw

false

what are common symptoms of lumpy jaw


a. lumps forming on the joints inside the mouth


b. swollen and still tissues inside of the mouth


c irregular loss of teeth


d. all of the above

d. all of the above

how many stages are there in zoo notice diseases

5

what can brucellosis cause

abortion

True or false: ringworm is a parasite

false

what is a zoo notice disease

disease that can be passed between animals and humans in both directions

how can you protect yourself from zoonotic diseases


a. handwashing


b. wearing gloves


c. don't consume raw milk


d. all of the above

d. all of the above

what does DCAD stand for? what is its significance with regards to milk fever?

dietary cation anion difference


negative DCAD or acid dietary ions have been shown to reduce likely hood of milk fever

which breed is considered most susceptible to milk fever? why?

jerseys, as a smaller breed with a demand for a higher nutrient content in their milk

True or false: IV calcium must be given rapidly as possible to get the necessary calcium into the blood stream

false it can mess up the heart rate and cause death

what is the difference between milk fever and eclampsia


a. milk fever presents prior to calving while eclampsia presents after birth or whelping


b. eclampsia presents prior to birth or whelping, while milk fever presents at or after calving


c. both present before partition


d. both present after partition

d. eclampsia presents prior to birth o whelping , while milk fever presents at or after calving

which one of the following symptoms is not a potential sign of clinical milk fever?


a. high body temperature


d. muscle tremors


c. down cow posture


d. dystocia


e. all of the above

a. high body temperature

when are the most cases of Potomac horse fever seen

summer

True or false: symptoms of Potomac horse fever can include inappetence, fever, diarrhea, and edema of the legs

true

Potomac horse fever is diagnosed by:


a. radiographs


b. ultrasounds


c. testing blood and feces

c. testing blood and feces

Potomac horse fever is treated by:

oxytetracycline

True or false: potomac horse fever is caused by a virus

False

True or false: dry matter is the measurement of food type when completely dried with all water removed

True

Which of the following is a high protein forage?


straw, soybeans or corn stocks

soy beans

if a dead animal gets rolled up into a hay bale, what diseases are horses susceptible to?

clostridium (botulism)

True or false: it is okay to feed medicated cattle feed to horses. Why or why not?

False, risk of death with coccidostat

The rumen and cecum synthesizes what essential vitamin?

Vitamin c

What does TMR stand for and who do we feed it to?

Total mixed ration, dairy cattle

Name three nutritional requirements

water, carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals

Which of the following are different routes of water loss?


a. urine


b. hair


c. both


d. none of the above

a. urine (also sweating breathing pooping)

Which one of these hays are easily digested?


a. alfalfa


b. bermuda


c. clover


d. oat

a. alfalfa

which one of these hays should not be ingested by pregnant horses?


a. orchard grass


b. fescue


c. timothy


d. clover

b. fescue

Where does impaction colic occur?

a. small intestine
b. colon
c. cecum
d. all of the above


d. all of the above ( most common impaction is the pelvic flexture)

What is the main cause of impaction colic?

dehydration

Name three symptoms of colic

pawing, nudging at abdomen, rolling, bloating, sweating, distress, uneasiness, loss of interest in food and water, peculiar postures, and absence of gut sounds

If client calls and fearing colic what should you advise them?

to get the horse up and moving around until the vet arrives

What is the name of the most common large colon obstruction?

pelvic flexure impaction

Treatment for small colon impactions are

break down mass with hose and water. if it doesn't work, enterotomy and removal of impaction

what is the name of the drug we typically give colic for pain first?

flunixin (brand name) or banamine

How can you get a urine sample from a billy (buck) goat?

Place them in a new stall or pen area, they will typically mark the area

Where do you rub a cow to stimulate urination?

The estucian or below the vulva area

Polio is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin?

Thiamine/ B1

What is a classic sign of listeria in sheep in goats?

facial nerve paralysis

Caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats is zoonotic to which animals?

Horses (caseous lymphadenitis= cottage cheese pus in lymph node area, bacterial infection)

Which drug is toxic at low doses in sheep and goats and should be diluted and used with great care?

lidocaine

How can you get a urine sample from a sheep?

Hold the nostrils and mouth shut for 45 seconds or rubbing below the vulva like a cow

Why is tail docking done in sheep?

the wool holds urine and feces which can cause a maggot infection

What is an external sign of caseous lymphadentitis?


a. abscessed lymph node on chin


b. weight gain


c. seizures


d. wool or hair loss


a. abscessed lymph node on chin

What is the causeative agent of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (scrapie)?

prion

What is a clinical sign of contagious ecthyma?

lesions in oral cavity

Which animal is most susceptible to Johne's disease?

Dairy cows/ ruminants

What is the average amount of time that an animal can be infected with Johne's before they show signs?

3-5 years

What can be the infectious dose of Johne's disease?

less then a pencil tip, bacteria

What are the most common signs of Johne's disease?

rapid weight loss/ diarrhea

what is the survival rate for an animal with Johne's disease?

0%

Equine has which type of placenta?

diffuse

What has a diffuse placenta?

Horses and camelids

What has discoid placenta

humans

what has zonary placentas?

dogs and cats

what has cotyledonary placenta?

ruminants (cows sheep and goats)

which is NOT a sign of late gestation?


a. edema of the legs


b. frequent urination


c. stays close to the herd


d. behavioral changes

c. stays close to the herd

On average how long does bovine parturition last total?

10-16 hours

how long after birth is passive transfer of antibodies-colostrum able to pass from the gut into the body?

24 hours

Which is NOT part of a physical exam for a neonate?


a. hearing


b. temperature


c. temperature


d. ocular

a. hearing

What are the three stages of parturition?

Stage 1-prelabor


Stage 2- active labor


Stage 3- passing of the placenta

What are 2 causes of Dystocia?

uterine torsion, uterine inertia, multiple fetuses, malformation, malpresentation

What is important to consider after birth?


a. oxygenation/ pulse assessment and temperature regulation


b. care of the umbilical cord and umbilicus, dipping with iodine or chlorhexadine


c. nutrition and nursing and bonding of the mother and neonate


d. passage of meconium and adequacy of passive transfer of antibodies


e. all of the above

e. all of the above

What is meconium?

dark substances in the newborns intestines, passes as the first feces of a newborn

What is ferotomy?

cutting off sections to allow dead fetus to pass without doing a c-section

True or false: dried powder colostrum can be purchased and mixed with water and bottle fed

True: usually do this for cows


can be frozen to preserve as well

True or false: sheep and goats are typically given IV plasma to correct a failure of passive transfer but horses and camelids are not

False: horses get it

What are some common causes of failure of passive transfer in newborns?

mom rejects baby, waited to long to nurse, mom not producing enough milk, fescue causes mom not to produce milk (toxic plant effect)

How can an IgG level be tested in a foal? What is an acceptable level?

blood test, over 800

bloat occurs in which part of the cow?

rumen and reticulum


will see on left side

when consumed, which causes highest risk of bloat in cattle?

wet clover

name 2 causes of bloat

ingestion of toxic plant


mass or tumor


Vagas indigestion

what is a sign of bloat

distended left abdomnen

how do you treat bloat

place tube and push gas out or troclar it with a puncture in side


if bubble frothy bloat

treatment for frothy bloat is called..... it works by breaking up the...... to make ......

therabloat, bubbles, free gas

during which stage of the estrous cycle does ovulation occur?

estrus

True or false: electro ejaculation probes are placed into the rectum to stimulate ejaculation

True use in cos sheep goats can in pigs but shouldnt

Why might a horse breeding program use embryo transfer

if a high performance mare is bred and the embryo is transfered she can still perform

which of the following semen preservation techniques has shown to be the least effective

cryopreserved or frozen

what hormone can be given to an animal to induce superovulation

follicle stimulating hormone

which type of large animal is an induced ovulator

camelids male goes up entire horn

in the birthing process stage 2 is expulsion of the........ stage 3 is expulsion of the.........

fetus, placenta

short day breeders breed during the .....

Fall and late winter


sheep and goats

artificial insemination


a. decreases disease


b. makes less work


c. decreases conception rate


d. increases injury

a. decreased disease

when a fetus is delivered what is the first thing you should check?

oxygenation

True or false: a horse doesn't get very sick from having a retained placenta, but a cow can get systemically I'll from it

false

which mechanical vector spreads equine infectious anemia

horsefly

what is the incubation period of EIAV

15-45+

the acute phase of EIAV last..... to ..... days where symptoms include fever lethargy and low platelet counts

1


3

an EIAV positive horse is known as a ..... and 24 hours after becoming obe, these horses must be placed under quarantine

reactor


If positive must call state vet and quarantine

All quarantines horse must be kept..... yards from all other equids

200


endemic in wild horses

True or false: subpalpebral lavage system is mostly used in horses but may be used in other species

true

which way should you wrap a horses leg to prevent a bowed tendon?

from the inside to the outside


around to the front

what does DMPLO mean when taking a radiography of a horses leg

dorsal medial plantar lateral oblique

99.9% of time where are IV fluids administered to large animals

jugular vein

name 3 things a dipstick urinalysis would show

blood, ketones, ph

what does compartment syndrome refer to and what can yoh do to avoid it in a patient?

down animal having lack of blood flow to a muscle for a long time. rotate the side they are laying on

what does the term fresh cow mean?

Just recently gave birth , newly milking

how are two ways beef cattle are marketed?

pound or grade

how is CAE teansmitted

through infected milk, airborne

what are common clinical signs of a goat with CAE

arthritis, encephalitis, pneumonia, mastitis

is there a cure for CAE

no, once a goat is infected with CAE it is a lifelong virus, no vaccine

which animal does not have an fda approved rabies vaccine

goats

can other species other than goats get infected with CAEv

yes

what would one do if there was an infected goat on a farm?

keep it quarantined and if it was near any other animals quarantine them test the herd for levels

what is bottle jaw

edema caused by parasites

which animal does bottle jaw mostly affected

sheep and goats

what is a way that you can catch bottle jaw before it occurs?

Fama change scoring/ anemia guide, eyelid on scale, scale of 4

what is the cut off for a fecal egg count- above this number means a lot of adult worms are present

300 eggs per gram

how can brisket edema be treated

deworm the animal and the swelling will resolve

how many compartments does a camelid stomach have and what are they called

3


c1 c2 c3

what is the CDT vaccination for

clostrodium c and d and tetnus

what is a common problem with crias

failure of passive transfer

Why don't we typically do IV catheterization on camelids

veins blow easily

crias receive plasma transfusions for what health issue

failure of passive transfer


sometimes given into abdomen if can't give IV

what should you not feed camelids because the bard can cause ulcers

oats

how old should a camelid be before he is castrated? why

2 years, because it helps bone development to keep them through growth

what type of animal is very clean and uses a dung pile

camelids

what's the difference between clinical and subclinical mastitis

clinical you can see blood, pus in the milk


subclinical need CMT to detect can't see

what is a CMT

California mastitis test

Why would you treat a dry cow with a mastitis tube

to stop any current subclinical infection and prevent infections during the dry period

how do you test for mastitis

culture the milk


CMT

who does mastitis affect

any mammal lactating

what are environmental mastitis pathogens called

coli forms

what is a common cause of mastitis

e coli

intact male pigs cannot be marketed for meat for what reason

boar taint

what is the cause of rickets


a. lack of phosphorus


d. lack of calcium


c. lack of vitamin d


d. all of the above

d. all of the above


lack of proper nutrition

which of the following is a swine deworm


a. panacur


b. revolution


c. heart guard

panacur

which is not a vaccine for a pet swine


a. tetanus


b. clostridium


c. rabies


d. influenza

d. influenza

what is porcine stress syndrome

muscle cells have an impaired ability to regulate calcium


sudden high fever

True or false: stangles is a highly zoonotic disease

false


bacteria

what is the incubation period for a horse with strangles

3 to 14 days

what is the fastest way to test for strangles

pcr testing looks at rna or dna

what should a horse infected with strangles be fed

moist palatable food

how is strangles transmitted


a. via nasal discharge


b. from a fly that has landed on another infected horse


c. contaminated


d. all of the above

d. all of the above

what animal is the only known definately host for EPM

opossum

what are 4 clinical signs of EPM

ataxia, general weakness, muscle spasticity, neuro signs, lameness, gait asymmetry, focal muscle atrophy, incoordination, loss of body condition, paralysis of eye face or mouth muscles, airway abnormalities, difficulty swallowing, seizures, collapse, adnormal sweating, loss of sensation in face neck or body, head tilt

giving folic acid to animals being treated for EPM is important for what reason?

some treatments inhibit folic acid uptake in the parasite but also affect the horse so supplementation is needed

what is EPM

disease caused by parasite that affects the central nervous system of the horse

True or false: epm is contagious between horses, a horse should be quarantined if positive for EPM

false horse is dead end host

what is more common an LDA or RDA

LDA

what clinical findings would you see with a DA

decreased milk production, reduced feces, anorexia, ketones in urine

what are 2 ways of correcting an LDA

roll and toggle, surgery

what factors may determine the course of treatment for DA?

preference, economical situation, condition of patient, available facilities

what is the cause of ketosis

energy demand exceeds energy intake resulting in a negative energy balance


give DCAD diet before becoming fresh to prevent

what urine changes are associated with DA

acid urine and ketones in the urine

rumensin is toxic to....

horses

..... are the most toxic part of the nightshade plant

green berries

what toxin is produced by the seeds, foliage and bark of the wild cherry tree

hydrogen cyanide

though they must ingest large quantities of it, animals who ingest bracken fern exhibit clinical signs of....

polio

bracken fern produces what compound that causes it clinical signs

thiminase

if you feel a strong pulse in a horses leg what is this a possible indication of

pain or inflammation in the foot, laminitis, abcess

how many zones do you listen to wen you as cult a horses adbomen

4

what physical trait do you use to age horses

their teeth

name 3 illegal drugs in food animals

chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, DMSO, nitrofurazone, phenylbutazone, aminoglycosides

explain what VPCR and extra label drug usage are

veterinary patient client relationship must be present to use drugs in a way which not approved or labeled for

True or false: procaine penicillin and oxytetracycline are both antibiotics that you need a prescription to obtain

false

name 2 examples of NSAIDS used in large animal medicine

meloxicam, firocoxcib, phenylbutazone, flunixin, but and banamine

the most common oral antibiotic used in horses is

sulfamethoxazole SMZ/trimethoprim

True or false: xylazine is 100 times more potent an alpha 2 sedation then detomidine

false detomidine is more powerful

meningeal worm is a parasite that comes from what mammal

white tail deer

what are clinical signs associated with meningeal worm infections

neurologic signs like weakness in hind end

which animal are at most risk of this disease

camelids most commonly but also sheep and goats

we use....... to treat meningeal worm because of its ability to cross the .......

panacur/safeguard/fenbendazole


blood brain barrier

meningeal worm disease is caused by....

a larval migration to the spinal cord


parasite

true or false: dermatophilus is a bacteria that causes rain rot

true

dermatophyte is.....

ringworm

True or false: animals infected with rabies take anywhere from 2 to 5 weeks to show clinical signs after infection.

false. 6 months for virus to reach clinical


active or bites are 14 day

crypto is a ........ disease that causes.......

parasitic


diarrhea

vessicular stomatitis is found in what part of the us

southwest- Texas and new mexico

Q fever is a fever caused by a ......... and contracted from.......

bacteria


sheep/goats

name 2 examples of a zoonotic cause for diarrhea

salmonella, campy, e coli, crypto

the most common cause of zoonotic diarrhea in the horse

salmonella

rodenticide block or bind......... that blocks the clotting cascade and causes death

vitamin k

as little as a mouthful of........ can be fatal as it is extremely toxic to all mammals

japanese yew

the most toxic part of an oak tree is the.......

acorns

true or false: secondary photosensitization occurs when a photodynamic agent is ingested, injected or absorbed through the skin

false, this is primary, secondary is due to other

the degree of toxic danger a plant pass depends on its.....

Prevalence, palatability, toxicity

laminitis is a complex disease characterized by......... of the extremely delicate and sensitive structures of the hoof called lamellae

inflammation

True or false: in most cases, laminitis is due to a primary or underlying disease, condition or insult

true

All of the following are possible causes of laminitis except:


a. fat overload


b. a retained placenta


c. a leg injury

fat overload

a classic sign of laminitis is......

a bounding digital pulse

true or false: overweight horses are at a higher risk of developing laminitis

true