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683 Cards in this Set
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- Back
Q001. Infective Endocarditis - What is it; Risk Factors
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A001. Infection of endocardium secondary to infectious causes; MC affects heart valves - especially mitral valve; Risk Factors - dental procedures that cause bleeding, oral & upper respiratory surgery, certain GI procedures, GU surgery, prosthetic heart valves, valvular heart disease, alimentation caths in right heart pressure monitoring caths, IVDU
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Q002. Infective Endocarditis - Causes
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A002. acute - S. aureus; subacute - S. viridans; IVDU - S. aureus; prosthetic valve - coag-negative Staph,; coexisting GI malignancy - Strep. bovis; fungal – Candida, Aspergillus; predisposing factors - long-term indwelling, IV catheter, immunosup from malignancy, AIDS, organ transplant, IVDU
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Q003. Infective Endocarditis - Hx
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A003. Fever; chills; weakness; dyspnea; sweats; anorexia; skin lesions; IVDU; in patients with h/o valve disease or IVDU - fever alone should be red flag
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Q004. Infective Endocarditis - PE
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A004. Fever; heart murmur; Osler's nodes; Janeway lesions; splinter hemorrhages; Roth's spots
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Q005. Infective Endocarditis - Dx
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A005. Fulfill Duke's criteria:; major criteria - • positive Blood culture - 2+ sets • abnormal echo – vegetations, paravalvular abscess, new regurgitation, new partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve • TTE - very specific • TEE - very sensitive; or 1 major and 3 minor criteria - PE findings, emboli, glomerulonephritis, positive Rh factor; Other findings – leukocytosis, left shift, increased ESR, increased C-reactive protein, mild anemia, microscopic hematuria, EKG
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Q006. Infective Endocarditis - Tx
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A006. Tx based on organisms & sensitivity; if very ill – empiric empiric - antistaph, antistrep & gentamicin, change as soon as know organism; surgery if - severe CHF from valve incompetence, paravalvular leak around prosthetic valve, fungal endocarditis, persistent bacteremia despite Antibiotics, extravalvular infection; Antibiotics prophylaxis before: • dental work – amoxicillin, if PCN allergy - clindamycin or azithromycin, clarithromycin or cephalexin • urinary or GI procedures - ampicillin and gentamicin, if PCN allergy - vancomycin and gentamicin
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Q007. Candidal Thrush - What is it & risk factors
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A007. Infection of C. albicans, risk factors; xerostomia; corticosteroid inhaler use; immune def. immunosuppressive Tx; leukemia; lymphoma; cancer; diabetes; obesity; pregnancy; can cause skin infections in noncompromised (diaper rash)
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Q008. Candidal Thrush - Hx/PE
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A008. White, cream-colored or yellow plaques can be scraped off, leaves bleeding surface, frequent complaint of mucosal burning; oral candidiasis; intertriginous; candidal paronychia; vulvovaginitis - pregnancy, DM
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Q009. Candidal Thrush - Dx
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A009. Clinical Dx; KOH; Cx - definitive
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Q010. Candidal Thrush - Tx
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A010. Hair & nails involved - can't use topical, must use systemic; not involved – topical nystatin; clotrimazole; fluconazole, miconazole; amphotericin; oral nystatin - 4x/day, "swish and swallow" use for 5-7 days after lesions disappear
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Q011. Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia; What is it
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A011. Organism of low virulence; found in lung of humans; predisposing factor in development of PCP - impaired cell- mediated immunity
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Q012. Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia; Hx/PE
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A012. Pneumonia; DOE; dry cough; fever; chest pain; impaired oxygenation; SOB; tachypnea; tachycardia
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Q013. Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia; Dx
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A013. Principle diagnostic test - bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage; CXR - b/l diffuse perihilar infiltrates; silver stain and immunofluorescence of sputum samples
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Q014. Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia; Tx
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A014. TMP-SMX; pentamidine; steroids - adjunct if severe - PaO2 <70, A-a gradient >35 Prophylaxis:; TMP-SMX - oral, #1; dapsone - #2; atovaquone - #3; aerolized pentamidine; prophylaxis can be stopped - if antiretrovirals raise CD4 > 200 for >6 months
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Q015. Chlamydia - What is it
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A015. MC bacterial STD in US; Chlamydia trachomatis; can infect genital tract, urethra, anus and eye; in newborns - conjunctivitis, pneumonia; coexists or mimics gonorrhea; test for both
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Q016. Chlamydia - Hx/PE
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A016. Hx - often asymp; urethritis – dysuria, urgency; mucopurulent cervicitis, vaginal discharge, bleeding, dyspareunia; salpingitis; PID - abdom pain, fever; nongonocc urethritis - men; PE - mucopurulent discharge, cervical or adnexal tenderness, penile discharge, testicular tenderness
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Q017. Chlamydia - Dx
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A017. Ligase chain reaction test - of voided urine; serology- fluorescent Ab; (swab of male urethra); (gram stain of discharge - may show PMNs, but no bact.)
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Q018. Chlamydia - Tx
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A018. Doxycycline; or azithromycin; pregnant - erythromycin
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Q019. Chlamydia - Complications
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A019. Chronic infection; pelvic pain; Reiter's syndrome; Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome; PID => infertility; epididymitis
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Q020. Gonorrhea - What is it
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A020. Gram-negative diplococcus; can infect almost any site in female reproductive tract; men - usually limited to urethra
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Q021. Gonorrhea - Hx/PE
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A021. Greenish-yellow discharge; pelvic or adnexal pain; swollen Bartholin's glands; purulent urethral discharge; dysuria; erythema of urethral meatus
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Q022. Gonorrhea - Dx
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A022. Swab & culture on Thayer-Martin medum; gram stain cervical discharge; Culture - most specific test
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Q023. Gonorrhea - Tx
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A023. single-dose ceftriaxone 250 IM and doxycycline for 7 days; or single-dose ceftriaxone 250 IM and single-dose azithromycin; or single-dose oral cipro or cefixime; (also treating for chlamydia - doxycycline or macrolide); condoms for prophylaxis
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Q024. Gonorrhea - Complications
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A024. Urethritis; epididymitis; cervicitis; PID; tubo-ovarian abscess & rupture; Fitz-Hugh-Curtis; DGI (Disseminated Gonoc Infec); persistent infection with pain
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Q025. Syphilis - What causes it
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A025. Treponema pallidum; spirochete
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Q026. Syphilis - Hx/PE
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A026. Primary - 10-60 days after infection, chancre (painless ulcer) near area of contact, spontaneously heals in 3-9 weeks; Secondary - 1-2 months after see chancre, maculopapular rash on soles, palms, low-grade fever, headache, malaise, lymphadenopathy, can see alopecia, meningitis, hepatitis & nephritis may also be seen, very infective 2o eruptions, coalesce => condylomata lata, spontaneously heals in 2-6 weeks; Early latent - no symptoms, positive serology, first yr of infection; Late latent - no symptoms, positive or negative serology, > 1 yr of infection, 1/3 will progress to tertiary; Tertiary - 3-20 yrs after init infection, not contagious, gummas, Tabes dorsalis, Argyll Robertson pupil, CV – aortitis, aortic root aneurysms, aortic regurgitation
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Q027. Syphilis - Dx
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A027. Best diagnostic in primary - dark-field microscopy; secondary - RPR/VDRL
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Q028. Syphilis - Tx
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A028. primary & secondary - IM PCN 2.4 million units/wk, primary - 1 wk, secondary - 3 weeks; tertiary - IV PCN, 10-20 million units/day x 10D; PCN allergic - primary & secondary – doxy, tertiary or pregnant - desensitize; Jarisch-Herxheimer - > 50% of patients, fever, headache, sweating rigors, temp exacerbations of lesions, 6-12 hrs post Tx
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Q029. Histoplasmosis - What is it
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A029. Dimorphic fungus; environment - mold (mycelial), yeast in body; endemic - MS River, OH; self-limited flu-like Symptoms; mediastinal fibrosis, residual scar tissue; chronic cavitary disease - if obstructive lung disease; disseminated histoplasmosis - especially in immune compromised, infants, fatal if untreated; risk factors – AIDS, spelunking, bird and bat feces
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Q030. Histoplasmosis - Hx/PE
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A030. Acute infection - arthralgia, erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme; chronic infection - low-grade fever, anorexia, weight loss, night sweats, productive cough
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Q031. Histoplasmosis - Dx
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A031. polysaccharide Ag detection, fast test for Dx and monitoring relapse; complement fixation Ab of 1:8 of 1:16; silver stain on Biopsy, bone marrow, l. node, liver; bronchoalveolar lavage; CXR; chest CT
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Q032. Histoplasmosis - Tx
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A032. amphotericin B; ketoconazole
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Q033. Coccidioidomycosis - What is it
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A033. Dimorphic fungi; environment - breaks up into arthroconidia; spherules in tissue; endemic - SW, S. CA; can present as flu-like or acute pneumonia; if disseminates, can involve - bone, meninges, skin; the "great imitator"; incubation period is 1-4 weeks after exposure
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Q034. Coccidioidomycosis - Hx/PE
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A034. Fever; headache; anorexia; chest pain; cough; dyspnea; night sweats; arthralgias
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Q035. Coccidioidomycosis - Dx
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A035. Precipitin Ab - rise within 2 weeks, disappear after 2 months; complement fixation Ab - rise at 1-3 months; culture – sputum, wound exudate, joint aspirate; CXR; consider – bronchoscopy, fine-needle Biopsy, open lung Biopsy, pleural Biopsy
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Q036. Coccidioidomycosis - Tx
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A036. Ketoconazole or fluconazole, amphotericin B
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Q037. Cryptococcosis - What is it
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A037. C. neoformans; encapsulated yeast in soil with pigeon droppings; can cause asymp pulmon infect; affects meninges; defining opportunistic infection for AIDS
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Q038. Cryptococcosis - Hx/PE
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A038. Meningitis - frontal or temporal headache; fever; impaired mentation; no meningismus; pneumonia - nonproductive cough, SOB, fever
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Q039. Cryptococcosis - Dx
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A039. LP with init eval by india ink; then cryptococcal Ag testing; worse prognosis - high opening pressure, high Ag titer, low CSF cell count; fungal culture; latex agglutination test; CT - if neuro deficits; fungal meningitis - CSF glucose decreased, protein increased, leukocyte count high, lymphocytes predominate
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Q040. Cryptococcosis - Tx
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A040. IV Amphotericin - 2 weeks, then oral fluconazole for life; prophylaxis - fluconazole not recommended, effective, but incidence of meningitis too low
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Q041. Anthrax - What is it
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A041. B. anthracis; forms spores; gram positive rods; occupational hazard for veterinarians & farmers; animal wool/hair, hides, bone meal products, biological weapon; MC - cutaneous; inhalational - most deadly; intestinal
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Q042. Anthrax - Hx/PE
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A042. Cutaneous - 1-7 days after skin exposure and penetration of spores; MC - exposed upper extremities; pruritic papule in 24-48 hrs forms ulcer with edematous halo; in 7-10 days => black eschar; regional lymphadenopathy
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Q043. Anthrax - Dx
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A043. Aerobic culture; gram stain of ulcer exudate
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Q044. Anthrax - Tx
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A044. Meningeal anthrax - PCN - meningeal dose; doxycycline, chloramphenicol, quinolone 1-2 weeks (PCN allerg); ciprofloxacin prophylaxis - postexposure prophylaxis, 60 days to prevent inhalational anthrax
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Q045. Lyme Disease - What is it
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A045. Borrelia spirochete; Ixodes tick; usually seen in summer months; endemic - NE, Pacific, North midwest; MC vector-borne disease in NA
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Q046. Lyme Disease - Hx/PE
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A046. Rash, fever, malaise, headache, myalgias, joint pain; often recent history of camping, hiking in endemic areas; tick needs 24 hours of attachment to transfer Borrelia; primary - Erythema migrans, eryth macule or papule at tick- feeding site, slowly expands, central clearing, "bull's eye"; secondary - migratory polyarthropathy, neuro - Bell's palsy – MC, meningitis, myocarditis: MC - AV heart block; tertiary – arthritis, subacute encephalitis, severe arthritis - HLA-DR2
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Q047. Lyme Disease - Dx
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A047. rash; 1 late manifestation; lab confirms organism: ELISA - positive = exposure, not active disease; Western Blot - to confirm
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Q048. Lyme Disease - Tx
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A048. Doxycycline - minor Symptoms; IV ceftriaxone - major Symptoms
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Q049. Rocky Mt Spotted Fever - What is it
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A049. Rickettsia rickettsii; dermacentor tick; invades endothel lining of cap => small-vessel vasculitis; rapidly fatal if untreated
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Q050. Rocky Mt Spotted Fever - Hx/PE
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A050. Headache; fever; rash - before 6th day, macular pink rash, starts at wrists, ankles, maculopapular and darker petechial/purpuric as spreads, spreads centripetally (in) => palms & soles; in severe cases - altered mental status, DIC
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Q051. Rocky Mt Spotted Fever - Dx
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A051. Clinical; confirm - complement fixation test, Weil-Felix test
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Q052. Rocky Mt Spotted Fever - Tx
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A052. Doxycycline
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Q053. UTIs - What is it; Causes
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A053. Cystitis, pyelonephritis, perinephric abscess; cystitis - very common, affects women > men; E. coli - 80%; due to - urinary stasis, foreign body, tumor, stones, stricture, BPH, neurogenic bladder, honeymoon cystitis; major cause – catheters, risk related to length (time) of catheterization
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Q054. UTIs - UTI bugs
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A054. SEEKS PP; S. saprophyticus; E. coli; Enterobacter; Klebsiella; Serratia; Proteus; Pseudomonas
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Q055. UTIs - Cystitis; Hx/PE
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A055. Dysuria; urgency; frequency; hematuria; low-grade fever; suprapubic pain; PE - suprapubic tenderness; kids - bedwetting; infants - poor feeding; recurrent febrile episodes; foul-smelling urine
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Q056. UTIs - Dx
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A056. Best initial test - UA; look for: WBC = #1, RBC, protein, bacteria; if nitrites - gram negative; increased urine pH - Proteus; WBC < 5 is normal; UC > 100,000 colonies confirmatory, not always necessary if; have Symptoms and positive UA
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Q057. UTIs - Tx
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A057. Uncomplicated cystitis - TMP-SMX or any quinolone for 3 days, DM - 7 days, pregnant - no quinolones; elderly, comorbid disease or acute toxicity - admit; IV ciprofloxacin or ampicillin & gentamicin; recurrent UTIs - prophylaxis Antibiotics
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Q058. Pyelonephritis - What is it
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A058. Ascending UTI that has reached renal parenchyma; More common in – women, pregnancy, childhood, after catheterization or instrumentation; if immunosuppressed - prone to Candida; due to obstruction from – strictures, tumor, stones, bph, neurogenic bladder, vesicoureteral reflux
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Q059. Pyelonephritis - Hx/PE
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A059. Costovertebral angle tenderness; flank pain; fever/chills; n/v; dysuria; frequency; urgency
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Q060. Pyelonephritis - Dx
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A060. Clean-catch urine for - UA, UC, sensitivity, >100,000 colonies suggestive; US - to rule out obstruction; WBC casts; leukocytosis; UC; radiology if – pregnancy, history of urolithiasis, prior GU surgery, recurrent pyelonephritis, prepubescent age, fever > 5-7 days without appropriate med eval, elderly; IVP - #1 choice (if not pregn); US - safe in pregnancy; CT - if nondiagnostic IVP & US, if don't respond to therapy after 3 days of Tx
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Q061. Pyelonephritis - Tx
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A061. Any Antibiotics or gram negative rods; 10-14 days; (fluoroquinolone, TMP-SMX, ampicillin, gentamicin, 3rd gen cephalosporin)
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Q062. Sepsis - What is it
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A062. Systemic infection plus; a reaction called Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)
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Q063. Sepsis - What causes SIRS
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A063. A release of many mediators into the blood that activate inflammatory and coag pathways
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Q064. Sepsis - What is severe sepsis
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A064. Sepsis and signs of failure of at least 1 organ
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Q065. Sepsis - What is septic shock
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A065. Sepsis-induced severe sepsis; organ hypoperfusion; hypotension (systolic BP < 90); poor response to initial fluid resuscitation; most cases - hosp.-acquired gram negative bacilli or gram positive cocci; gram-positive shock - secondary to fluid loss caused by exotoxins; gram-negative shock - caused by vasodilation due to endotoxin (LPS)
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Q066. Sepsis - What causes septic shock in; neonates
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A066. Group B strep; E. coli; Klebsiella
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Q067. Sepsis - What causes septic shock in; kids
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A067. H. influenzae; pneumococcus; meningococcus
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Q068. Sepsis - What causes septic shock in; adults
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A068. Gram-positive cocci; aerobic bacilli; anaerobes
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Q069. Sepsis - What causes septic shock in; IV drug users
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A069. S. aureus
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Q070. Sepsis - What causes septic shock in; asplenic patients
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A070. Pneumococcus; H. influenzae; meningococcus; (in other words, encapsulated organisms)
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Q071. Sepsis - Hx/PE
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A071. Hx - abrupt onset of fever & chills, often hyperventilation, altered mental status; PE – fever, tachy, tachypnea, in septic shock - may start as warm shock, warm skin and extremities => cold shock, cool skin and extremities; petechiae or ecchymoses - DIC; elderly patient with altered mental status - consider urosepsis
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Q072. Sepsis - Dx
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A072. WBCs initially decreased, WBCs increased in 1-4 hrs. with increased PMNs - especially bands, thrombocytopenia; BC; UC; sputum; CXR; coag studies, DIC panel
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Q073. Sepsis - Tx
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A073. May need ICU admission; treat aggressively; maintain BP; IV fluids; pressors; Antibiotics; treat underlying cause
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Q074. Pneumonia - What is it
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A074. Infection of lung parenchyma/alveoli has inflammatory exudate; only cause of death in top 10 from infectious disease; not necessary to have predisposing condition; but predisposed if – cigarettes, DM, alcoholism, malnutrition, immunosuppression, bronchial obstruction (tumor); neutropenia, steroids => aspergillosis
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Q075. Pneumonia - Categories of "typical" and "atypical"
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A075. Typical - bacteria from nasopharynx; Atypical - from organism inhaled from envi, hard to see on gram stain, not susceptible to Antibiotics that act on cell wall (B-lactams); RSV; adenovirus; mycoplasma; legionella; chlamydia
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Q076. Pneumonia - What is aspiration pneumonia
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A076. Secondary to inhaling a large amount of oropharyngeal secretions into larynx and lower respiratory tract; aspiration of small amount in pts with impaired pulmonary defenses; MCC of death in patients with dysphagia due to neurologic disorder
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Q077. Pneumonia - What is chemical pneumonitis
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A077. Secondary to inhaling gastric contents; causes chemical injury to lung
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Q078. Pneumonia - Hx; Mycoplasma Hx; Legionella Hx; PCP Hx
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A078. Productive cough - green or yellow sputum; rust-colored = pneumococcus; currant jelly = klebsiella; hemoptysis, dyspnea, fever/chills, night sweats, pleuritic chest pain; atypical organisms present - more gradual onset, dry cough, headaches, myalgias, sore throat, pharyngitis; Mycoplasma - dry cough, sore chest, bullous myringitis, anemia (from hemolysis from cold agglutinins), rare to be inpatient/need to admit; Legionella – confusion, headache, lethargy, diarrhea, abdom pain; PCP - marked dyspnea, DOE, chest soreness, cough, HIV+
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Q079. Pneumonia - PE
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A079. Decreased or bronchial breath sounds; crackles (rales); wheezing; dullness to percussion; egophony; tactile fremitus; elderly, COPD or DM - may have minimal signs on PE
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Q080. Pneumonia - Dx
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A080. CXR - initial test; sputum Culture - most specific diagnosis for lobar (atypicals don't show up on gram stain or regular Culture); invasive tests sometimes to confirm, open lung Biopsy - most specific; Mycoplasma - Ab titers, cold agglutinins - limited; Legionella - special Culture media: charcoal yeast extract, urine Ag tests, direct fluorescent Ab, Ab titers; PCP - bronchoalveolar lavage, increased LDH; Chlamydias, Coxiella, Coccidio - Ab titers; CBC – leukocytosis, left shift; sputum gram stain & culture- ID organism, ID Antibiotics susceptibility, good sputum sample - many PMNs (> 25 cells/hpf), few epith cells (< 25/hpf); BC; ABG for recurrent pneumonias - consider underlying disease
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Q081. Pneumonia - Outpt community-acq < 65 y/o, otherwise healthy; What are pathogens
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A081. S. pneumoniae; M. pneumoniae; Chlamydia; H. flu; viral
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Q082. Pneumonia - Outpt community-acq < 65 y/o; otherwise healthy; What is init coverage
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A082. In uncomplicated cases, Tx on outpatient basis; erythromycin; tetracycline; smokers with H. flu – clarithromycin, azithromycin
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Q083. Pneumonia - Outpt community-acq > 65 y/o or with comorbidity; What are pathogens
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A083. S. pneumoniae; H. flu; E. coli; Enterobacter; Klebsiella; S. aureus; Legionella; viruses
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Q084. Pneumonia - Outpt community-acq > 65 y/o or with comorbidity; What is init coverage
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A084. Require admission; cefuroxime (2nd gen cephalo); TMP-SMX; amoxicillin; if atypicals suspected - add erythromycin; if patient has obstructive disease - add pseudomonal coverage
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Q085. Pneumonia - Community-acq req. admission; What are pathogens
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A085. S. pneumoniae; H. flu; anaerobes; aerobic GNRs; Legionella; Chlamydia
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Q086. Pneumonia - Community-acq req. admission; What is init coverage
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A086. Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone (2nd or 3rd gen); or B-lactam with B-lactam inhib; if atypicals suspected - add erythomycin
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Q087. Pneumonia - Severe community-acquired, require ICU; What are pathogens
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A087. S. pneumoniae; H. flu; anaerobes; aerobic GNRs; Mycoplasma; Legionella; Pseudomonas
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Q088. Pneumonia - Severe community-acq req. ICU; What is init coverage
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A088. Erythromycin – macrolide; and antipseudomonal agent; and aminoglycoside
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Q089. Nosocomial pneumonia - (hospitalized > 48 hrs or in long- term care fac. > 14 days); What are pathogens
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A089. E. coli; Enterobacter; Klebsiella; Pseudomonas; S. aureus; Legionella; mixed flora
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Q090. Nosocomial pneumonia - (hospitalized > 48 hrs or in long- term care fac. > 14 days); What is init coverage
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A090. 3rd gen cephalosporin with anti-pseudomonal activity and gentamicin
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Q091. Pneumonia - Who gets pneumococcal vaccine
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A091. > 65 y/o; any serious lung, cardiac, liver, renal disease; immunocompromised; splenectomized; sickle cell; DM; leukemia; lymphoma; 60-70% effective, redose in 5 years if - severe immunocompromised, original vaccine at < 65 y/o
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Q092. Tuberculosis - What is it
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A092. Mycobacterium tuberculosis; most cases of symptomatic TB - reactivation of old infection, remain confined to lung; common cause of FUO; MC site of Extrapulmonary infection - lymph nodes (adenitis); most significant defect associated with reactivation - impaired T cell- mediated cellular immunity; risk factors – immunosuppression, alcoholism, preexisting lung disease, immigrants from developing nations, DM, advancing age, homelessness, malnourishment, crowded living conditions, prisoners, nursing home residents, health care workers, sick contacts
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Q093. Tuberculosis - Hx/PE
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A093. Cough; hemoptysis; weight loss; night sweats; dyspnea; fever; cachexia; hypoxia; tachy; lymphadenopathy; abnormal lung sounds; (positive Babinski - when affects spine)
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Q094. Tuberculosis - Dx
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A094. CXR - best init test; AFB stain - allows for specific Dx, need 3 negative for >90% sensitivity; Culture - the most specific, need for sensitivity testing; pleural Biopsy - most sensitive test; if AFB stain unrevealing – thoracentesis, gastric aspirate (kids); Biopsy (extrapulmonary organ), needle aspiration (extrapulmonary); LP (if meningitis)
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Q095. Tuberculosis - PPD test
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A095. Length of induration measured at 48-72 hrs. BCG vaccine- PPD positive for 1 yr; 2-stage testing - no recent PPD test, have reactivity < 10mm, 2nd test within 2 weeks; Positive results indicated by - 5 mm – HIV, close TB contacts, steroid use, organ transplant recipient, abnorm CXR - old, healed TB; 10 mm – homeless, recent immigrant, IVDU, chronic illness, residents of health & correctional institutions, healthcare workers, immunocompromised other than in "5mm" group; 15 mm - everybody else; if positive PPD - get CXR, abnormal CXR - get 3 AFB; if positive AFB - Tx; if negative AFB - latent TB, INH and B6 for 9 months ("prophylaxis"); if positive PPD - get CXR, normal CXR - latent TB, INH and B6 for 9 months ("prophylaxis")
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Q096. Tuberculosis - Tx
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A096. All cases reported to local & state health depatients; respiratory isolation; Directly Observed Therapy - rifampin (RIF), ethambutol (ETB), pyrazinamide (PZA), INH & B6 for 2 months (until know sensitivity); ETB & PZA discontinued, cont. RIF & INH for 4 more months; if sensitivity not known - give ETB; TB meningitis - Tx 12 months, TB meds and steroids; TB pericarditis - TB meds and steroids; TB in pregnancy - Tx 9 months; TB in osteomyelitis & HIV - Tx 6-9 months; pregnant - no pyrazinamide, no streptomycin; all but streptomycin => liver toxicity; RIF - stains contacts and underwear; ETB - optic neuritis => color blind; PZA - benign hyperuricemia, don't Tx unless gout Symptoms
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Q097. Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO)- What is it; MCC; Risk factors
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A097. Temp > 38.3 for 3 weeks, undx after 3 outpt visits or 3 days of hospitalization; MCC - infections & cancer, autoimmune disease (15%); Risk factors - recent travel, immune deficiency, drug abuse
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Q098. Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO)- Hx/PE
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A098. Fever; headache; myalgia; malaise
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Q099. Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO)- Dx
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A099. CBC with diff; BC; ESR; CXR; PPD; CT & MRI - if malig or abscess suspected; specific tests if infectious or autoimmune suspected
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Q100. Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO)- Tx
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A100. If severely ill - empiric broad-spectrum Antibiotics; stop if no response
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Q101. Neutropenic Fever - What is it
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A101. One oral temp of 38.3 or 38.0 > 1 hour in neutropenic patient; 38.3 C = 101 F; 38.0 C = 100.4 F
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Q102. Neutropenic Fever - Hx/PE
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A102. Common in patients undergoing chemo; ANC nadir 7-10 days post chemo; if severely neutropenic - inflammation may be min. or 0; pain at MC infected sites – skin, eye, peridontium, pharynx, lungs, lower esoph, abdomen, perineum, anus
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Q103. Neutropenic Fever - Dx
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A103. Thorough PE; NEVER do rectal exam; CBC with diff; BC; BUN/Cr; transaminases; CXR - if resp signs; CT - to check for abscess
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Q104. Neutropenic Fever - Tx
|
A104. Empiric Antibiotics; Tx algorithm
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|
Q105. Congenital Infections - Common sequelae
|
A105. Can occur at any time during, pregnancy, labor, delivery; common sequelae - premature delivery, CNS abnorm, jaundice, anemia, hepatosplenomegaly, growth retardation
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Q106. Congenital Infections - What are they; (mnemonic)
|
A106. TORCHeS; Toxoplasmosis; Other; Rubella; CMV; Herpes; Syphilis
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Q107. Congenital Infections - Toxoplasmosis; How transmitted; Specific findings
|
A107. Transplacental - rare; primary infection - consumption of raw meat - undercooked pork & lamb, contact with cat feces; Specific findings - intracranial calcifications, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, ring-enhancing lesions on Head CT; immunocompetent - usually asymp; best diagnostic test - visualize parasite in tissue or fluid; MC - serology
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Q108. Congenital Infections - Other (TORCHeS); What are they
|
A108. HIV; parvovirus; Varicella; Listeria; TB; malaria; fungi
|
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Q109. Congenital Infections - Rubella; How transmitted; specific findings
|
A109. Transplacental transmission in 1st trimester; Specific findings - rubella; purpuric blueberry muffin Rash; PDA; Cataracts; Deafness; Mental retardation; Microcephaly
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Q110. Congenital Infections - CMV; How transmitted; specific findings
|
A110. CMv is MC congenital infection; transplacental transmission; Specific findings - petechial rash, periventricular calcifications
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Q111. Congenital Infections - Herpes; How transmitted; specific findings
|
A111. Intrapartum transmission if mom has active lesions; Specific findings - skin, eye and mouth infections, life- threatening CNS/systemic infection
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|
Q112. Congenital Infections - Syphilis; How transmitted; specific findings
|
A112. Intrapartum transmission; Specific findings - maculopapular skin rash, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, "snuffles" - mucopur rhinitis, osteitis; In childhood, late congen - saber shins, saddle nose, CNS involvement; Hutchinson's triad - peg-shape upr central incisors, deafness, interstitial keratitis (photophobia, lacrimation)
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Q113. Congenital Infections - Dx
|
A113. Serologic testing – rubella, toxoplasmosis, HSV; UC - CMV; syphilis - dark field exam - skin lesions, material serum, test cord blood for increased IgM; viral isolation; amniocentesis - PCR for CMV, antigen detection; all ill newborns – BC, LP, empiric Antibiotics
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Q114. Congenital Infections - Toxoplasmosis; Tx
|
A114. Pyrimethamine; sulfadiazine; spiramycin (if 3rd trimester)
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|
Q115. Congenital Infections - Syphilis; Tx
|
A115. PCN
|
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Q116. Congenital Infections - HSV; Tx
|
A116. Acyclovir
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Q117. Congenital Infections - CMV; Tx
|
A117. Ganciclovir
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Q118. Congenital Infections - Toxoplasmosis; Prevention
|
A118. Avoid exposure to cats & cat feces during pregnancy; women with primary infection - pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine in third trimester - spiramycin
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|
Q119. Congenital Infections - Rubella; Prevention
|
A119. Immunize before pregnancy; consider abortion if infected or exposed; vaccinate mom after delivery if titers remain negative
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|
Q120. Congenital Infections - Syphilis; Prevention
|
A120. PCN in pregnant women who test positive
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|
Q121. Congenital Infections - CMV; Prevention
|
A121. Avoid exposure
|
|
Q122. Congenital Infections - HSV; Prevention
|
A122. C-section if lesions present at delivery
|
|
Q123. Congenital Infections - HIV; Prevention
|
A123. AZT - pregnant with HIV; C-section; AZT prophylaxis - infant; no breast-feeding
|
|
Q124. Osteomyelitis - What is it
|
A124. Three types:; acute hematogenous – kids, long bones of lower extremities, MC - staph; secondary to contig infection - recent trauma, placement of prosthesis, MC – polymicrobial, MC single organism - staph; vascular insufficiency - >50 y/o, DM or PVD, repeated minor trauma, not noticed cuz of neuropathy, small bones of lower extremity, MC – polymicrobial, MC single organism - staph
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Q125. Osteomyelitis - Common Pathogens
|
A125. Most people - staph; IVDU - staph or pseudomonas; SCD - salmonella; hip replaced - s. epidermidis; foot puncture wound - pseudomonas; chronic - staph, pseudomonas, enterobacter
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|
Q126. Osteomyelitis - Hx/PE
|
A126. Fever; localized bone pain; localized warmth, tenderness, swelling, erythema; limited ROM
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Q127. Osteomyelitis - Dx
|
A127. XR - initial test, periosteal elevation - 1st abnorm; technetium bone scan; MRI - better differentiation; ESR – nonspecific, can follow during Tx; Biopsy and Cx - best diagnostic, most invasive
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|
Q128. Osteomyelitis - Tx
|
A128. Depends on isolate; oxacillin/nafcillin and aminoglycoside or 3rd gen ceph until specific Dx; chronic - 12 weeks of IV therapy, then 8-12 weeks orally
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|
Q129. Osteomyelitis - Complications
|
A129. Chronic osteomyelitis; soft tissue infection; sepsis; septic arthritis; chronic osteomyelitis with draining sinus tract => squamous cell ca (Marjolin's ulcer)
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Q130. HIV - What is it; Risk factors
|
A130. Retrovirus; targets and destroys CD4+; CD4+ count = marker for extent of disease progression; viral load = indicates rate; Risk factors - MC risk – IV drug user, 2nd MC risk – homosexuality, unprotected sex, maternal HIV infection, needle sticks, mucocutaneous exposure, receipt of blood products
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Q131. HIV - Hx/PE
|
A131. Primary infection often asymp; may present with flu-like Symptoms; Later - night sweats, weight loss, thrush, cachexia; complications correlate with CD4+ count
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|
Q132. HIV - Dx
|
A132. ELISA - high sensitivity, moderate specificity, detects anti- HIV ab, can take up to 6 months to appear after exposure; Western blot – confirmatory, low sensitivity, high specificity; viral load; PPD with anergy panel; VDRL; CMV serology; toxoplasmosis serology
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|
Q133. HIV - Tx; Tx During Pregnancy; Tx for Needlesticks
|
A133. Start when - CD4+ <350 or viral load >55,000 (PCR-RNA); 1) 2 reverse transcriptase inhibitors + protease inhibibtor; 2) 2 reverse transcriptase + 2 protease inhibitor; 3) 2 reverse transcriptase + efavirenz. adequate Tx - viral load decreased 50% in 1st month PREGNANCY:; if low CD4+ or high load - 3x's antiretrovirals as nonpregnant patient; C-section - only if CD4+ & viral load not controlled; all get AZT, start AZT by 14th week; AZT => transient anemia; no efavirenz - teratogen; Postexposure Prophylaxis (Needlestick) - AZT + lamivudine + nelfinavir for 4 weeks
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|
Q134. HIV - PCP; CD4+ Level at Presentation; Tx
|
A134. CD4+ <200; TMP-SMX; pentamidine; steroids - if severe; prophylaxis - TMP-SMX - orally, #1; dapsone - #2; atovaquone -#3; pyrimethamine - aerolized, #4; prophylaxis may be discontinued if antivirals raise CD4 >200 for more than 6 months
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|
Q135. HIV - Mycobacterium Avium Complex; CD4+ Level at Presentation; Tx
|
A135. CD4+ <50; clarithromycin and ethambutol; prophylaxis - azithromycin - orally once a week; or clarithromycin BID; rifabutin - alternative; prophylaxis can be stopped if antiretrovirals raise CD4 >100 for several months
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|
Q136. HIV - Toxoplasma; CD4+ Level at Presentation; Tx
|
A136. CD4+ <100; pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine (clindamycin is substitute for sulfadiazine if sulfa-allergy); prophylaxis - TMP-SMX, dapsone/pyrimethamine
|
|
Q137. HIV - TB; Indication for prophylaxis; Medication
|
A137. PPD > 5mm; INH x 9 months or rifampin + pyrazinamide or rifabutin + pyrazinamide
|
|
Q138. HIV - Candida; Indication for prophylaxis; Medication
|
A138. Multiple recurrences; Fluconazole or itraconazole
|
|
Q139. HIV - HSV; Indication for prophylaxis; Medication
|
A139. Multiple recurrences; Acyclovir or; famciclovir or; valacyclovir
|
|
Q140. HIV - Pneumococcus; Indication for prophylaxis; Medication
|
A140. All patients; Pneumovax
|
|
Q141. HIV - Influenza; Indication for prophylaxis; Medication
|
A141. All patients; Influenza vaccine
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|
Q142. Otitis Externa - What is it; Common etiologic agents
|
A142. "Swimmer's ear"; inflammation of skin lining ear canal and surrounding soft tissue from moisture => maceration of skin; breeding ground for bacteria; from trauma - usually from objects for cleaning; Pseudomonas; Enterobacteriaceae
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|
Q143. Otitis Externa - Hx/PE
|
A143. Pain; pruritus; possible purulent discharge; pain with movement of tragus/pinna; edematous, eryth ear canal
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Q144. Otitis Externa - Dx
|
A144. Clinical; gram stain & culture if suspect fungal; CT if patient looks toxic
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Q145. Otitis Externa - Tx
|
A145. Eardrops - polymyxin B, neomycin, hydrocortisone; acute - dicloxacillin; DM - at risk for malignant OE, at risk for osteomyelitis of skull bone, admit, IV Antibiotics
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|
Q146. Encephalitis - What is it
|
A146. Inflammation of the brain; meninges and parenchyma; MCC - viral infection; MC virus - HSV
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Q147. Encephalitis - Hx
|
A147. Can have any level of neuro deficit; any level of focal deficit; 1st clue - altered mental status, fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, mild lethargy, confusion, stupor, coma
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|
Q148. Encephalitis - PE
|
A148. Focal neuro signs - hemiparesis; focal seizures; autonomic dysfunction; increased ICP; SIADH
|
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Q149. Encephalitis - Dx
|
A149. CT or MRI; HSV affects temporal lobe; LP - key to Dx; PCR - eliminates need for Biopsy
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Q150. Encephalitis - Tx
|
A150. HSV - immediate IV acyclovir; CMV - ganciclovir or foscarnet; HIV - if suspect resistant HSV, foscarnet
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Q151. Meningitis - Hx/PE
|
A151. Fever; malaise; headache; neck stiffness; photophobia; altered mental status; seizures; MC focal neuro deficits - visual fields; MC long-term damage - CN8; signs of meningeal irritation- Kernig and Brudzinski, often absent in < 2 y/o
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Q152. Meningitis - Dx
|
A152. LP - to establish Dx; CSF Culture - most accurate test, cell count & differential - most useful; CT best initial test if – papilledema, focal motor deficits, severe abnorm in mental status; give ceftriaxone prior if 20-30 min. delay in LP; best init step - ceftriaxone or cefotaxime, add ampicillin if suspect Listeria
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Q153. Meningitis - Tx
|
A153. Empiric - ceftriaxone or cefotaxime; Listeria - add ampicillin; Staph after surgery - vanco; PCN resistant - vanco; Lyme - ceftriaxone; Syphllis - PCN; TB - steroids (adults); viral - no proven useful Tx; cryptococcus - amphotericin, then lifelong fluconazole if also HIV positive contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis - rifampin prophylaxis
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Q154. Meningitis - Complications; Tx
|
A154. Hyponatremia - admin fluids, monitor sodium concentration; Seizures – benzos, phenytoin; Subdural effusions - may be seen on CT; 50% of infants with H. influenzae meningitis, no Tx necessary; Cerebral edema - presents with loss of oculocephalic reflex, IV mannitol; Subdural empyema - presents as intractable Seizures, surgical evacuation; Brain abscess - surgical drainage; Ventriculitis - presents as: worsening clinical pic, yet improved CSF findings, need ventriculostomy, possibly intraventricular Antibioticss
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Q155. Sinusitis - What is it; Risk factors
|
A155. Infection of sinuses due to undrained collection of pus; MC infected - maxillary; Risk factors – barotraumas, allergic rhinitis, viral infection, asthma, smoking, nasal decongestant overuse
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Q156. Sinusitis - Acute sinusitis; Definition; MC associations
|
A156. Symptoms last < 1 month; MC associated with - S. pneumonia, H. influenza, Moraxella catarrhalis, viral infection
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|
Q157. Sinusitis - Chronic sinusitis; Definition
|
A157. Symptoms persist > 3 months; often ongoing low-grade anaerobic infections; DM - mucormycosis can start in nose and maxillary sinuses
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Q158. Sinusitis - Hx/PE
|
A158. Fever; facial pain can radiate to upper teeth; nasal congestion; headache, headache worse when lean forward; tenderness, erythema, swelling over affected area; purulent discharge; in chronic - pain may be absent; febrile ICU patients - may have occult sinusitis, especially if intubated or have NGT
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|
Q159. Sinusitis - Dx
|
A159. Obvious cases - no XR before Tx; maxillary sinus XR - best init test, air-fluid levels, opacification; coronal CT - greater detail; sinus puncture - if don't respond to Tx, frequent recurrences, confirms bacteria
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|
Q160. Sinusitis - Tx
|
A160. Mild or acute uncomplicated – decongestant (oral pseudoephedrine or ozymetazoline spray); severe pain & discolored discharge - amoxicillin - best initial; amoxicillin-clavulanate - if recent amoxicillin use or don't respond, or 2nd or 3rd ceph OK to use
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|
Q161. Sinusitis - Complications
|
A161. Osteomyelitis of frontal bone; meningitis; orbital cellulitis; cavernous sinus thrombosis; abscess of epidural or subdural spaces
|
|
Q162. Acute Pharyngitis - What is it; Etiologies
|
A162. Usually self-limited; must differentiate strep from other causes; MC - viral causes; Grp A B-hemolytic strep; Grp C B-hemolytic strep; N. gonorrhoeae, C. diphtheria,M. pneumonia, rhinovirus, coronavirus, adenovirus, HSV, EBV, CMV, influenza, coxsackie
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|
Q163. Acute Pharyngitis - Hx/PE
|
A163. Typical of strep - sudden-onset sore throat; pharyngeal erythema; fever; ant. cervical lymphadenopathy; soft palate petechiae; headache; vomiting; scarlatiniform rash; tonsillar exudate - EBV can give exudate, mild S. pyogenes may not
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|
Q164. Acute Pharyngitis - Dx
|
A164. Clinical; rapid group A strep Ag detect; throat culture; positive rapid group A strep Ag - equivalent to positive Cx; negative test - confirm with Cx
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|
Q165. Acute Pharyngitis - Tx
|
A165. Reduce symptoms - fluids; rest; antipyretics; salt-water gargles; PCN V po x 10 days or PCN G benzathine M x 1 dose; if allergic to PCN – macrolides, oral 2nd gen cephalosporins
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Q166. Acute Pharyngitis - Complications
|
A166. Nonsuppurative - acute rheumatic fever, poststrep glomerulonephritis; suppurative - cervical lymphadenitis, mastoiditis, sinusitis, otitis media, retropharyngeal or peritonsillar abscess; peritonsillar abscess – odynophagia, trismus (lockjaw), muffled voice, unilateral tonsil enlargement, erythema, uvula & soft palate deviate away; intraoral US or CT; Culture abscess fluid; Drain; PCN or erythromycin; elective tonsillectomy later
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|
Q167. Lymphogranuloma Venereum - What is it
|
A167. Contagious STD; Chlamydia trachomatis
|
|
Q168. Lymphogranuloma Venereum - Hx/PE
|
A168. Lesion ulcerates & heals; unilateral inguinal lymph nodes enlarge => draining buboes; scar formation; fever; joint pains; headache
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|
Q169. Lymphogranuloma Venereum - Dx
|
A169. Clinical exam and Hx; high or increased Ab titer; isolate Chlamydia from bubo pus
|
|
Q170. Lymphogranuloma Venereum - Tx
|
A170. Doxycycline; erythromycin - alternative
|
|
Q171. Chancroid - What is it
|
A171. Haemophilus ducreyi; gram negative rod
|
|
Q172. Chancroid - Hx/PE
|
A172. Small, soft, painful papules; become shallow ulcers; have ragged edges; vary in size & coalesce; inguinal lymph nodes enlarge
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|
Q173. Chancroid - Dx
|
A173. Clinical; gram stain with Cx to confirm; PCR
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Q174. Chancroid - Tx
|
A174. Azithromycin single dose; or ceftriaxone 250 IM one dose; erythromycin x7D (alternative); cipro x3D (alternative)
|
|
Q175. Genital Herpes - What is it
|
A175. HSV-2 (85%); HSV-1 can be seen
|
|
Q176. Genital Herpes - Hx/PE
|
A176. Vesicles erode; painful, circular; with red areola; can have inguinal lymphadenopathy; relapses
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|
Q177. Genital Herpes - Dx
|
A177. Tzanck smear and Cx
|
|
Q178. Genital Herpes - Tx
|
A178. Acyclovir; famciclovir or; valacyclovir
|
|
Q179. Granuloma Inguinale - What is it
|
A179. Chronic granulomas; spread by sexual contact; Donovania granulomatis; Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
|
|
Q180. Granuloma Inguinale - Hx/PE
|
A180. Painless, red nodule; develops into elevated granuloma; heals slow; scars form
|
|
Q181. Granuloma Inguinale - Dx
|
A181. Giemsa or Wright stain; Donovan bodies - confirm; punch Biopsy
|
|
Q182. Granuloma Inguinale - Tx
|
A182. Doxycycline or TMP/SMZ; erythromycin (alternative)
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|
Q183. Genital Warts - What are they
|
A183. HPV 6 & 11
|
|
Q184. Genital Warts - Hx/PE
|
A184. Soft, moist, pink or red; grow fast; cauliflower appearance; condylomata acuminata
|
|
Q185. Genital Warts - Dx
|
A185. Clinical; must differentiate between - warts and c. lata of syphilis
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|
Q186. Genital Warts - Tx
|
A186. Remove - curettage; sclerotherapy; trichloroacetic acid; cryotherapy; podophyllin; laser; imiquimod (immune stimulant)
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Q187. Perinephric Abscess - What is it; Causes
|
A187. Not common; pyelonephritis => abscess, rupture into perinephric space; caused by - any factor predisposing to pyelonephritis, stones - #1, structural abnorm, trauma, recent surgery, DM; "SEEKS PP" pathogens; MC - E. coli, then Klebsiella, Proteus, S. aureus - hematogenous
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|
Q188. Perinephric Abscess - Hx/PE
|
A188. Insidious; 2-3 weeks of Symptoms before 1st visit; fever; flank pain; abdom pain; palpable abdom mass; persistence of pyelonephritic Symptoms even the Tx for pyelonephritis
|
|
Q189. Perinephric Abscess - Dx
|
A189. UA/UC - initial tests; fever, pyuria & negative UC or polymicrobial UC - suggestive; US - best initial scan; CT or MRI - better imaging; Biopsy - necessary for definitive bacterial Dx
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|
Q190. Perinephric Abscess - Tx
|
A190. Antibiotics for gram negative rods - ex. - 3rd gen ceph; drainage (usually percutaneous); antipseudomonal PCN: ticarcillin/clavulanate, often with aminoglycoside
|
|
Q191. Brain Abscess - What is it
|
A191. Bacteria spread from contiguous infections - dental infections, otitis media, mastoiditis, sinusitis; spread hematogenously – endocarditis, pneumonia; Toxoplasmosis can reactivate if CD4 <100; MC have Strep, then Bacteroides, Enterobacteriae, Staph, polymicrobial
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|
Q192. Brain Abscess - Hx/PE
|
A192. MC Sx - headache; fever; focal neuro; seizures
|
|
Q193. Brain Abscess - Dx
|
A193. CT with contrast - init test; MRI - more accurate; bacteria - Biopsy for gram stain and Cx
|
|
Q194. Brain Abscess - Tx
|
A194. HIV - 90% Toxo or lymphoma; empiric Tx to establish Dx; if respond to sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine, continue Tx; Other Tx - based on etiology
|
|
Q195. Bronchitis - What is it
|
A195. Infection limited to bronchial tree; Caused by - S. pneumonia, H. influenza, Moraxella, viruses; MC causative factor - cigarettes; acute and chronic form; chronic can => COPD
|
|
Q196. Bronchitis - Hx/PE
|
A196. Cough; sputum; discolored sputum = bacteria; may have low-grade fever; most are afebrile
|
|
Q197. Bronchitis - Dx
|
A197. Clinical; CXR - 1st test; normal CXR confirms!
|
|
Q198. Bronchitis - Tx
|
A198. Mild - no Tx needed, usually from virus, resolves spontaneously; severe - amoxicillin, doxycycline or TMP-SMZ; repeated infection or not responding - amoxicillin/clavulanate, clarithromycin, azithromycin, oral 2nd or 3rd gen cephalo or new fluoroquinolones
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|
Q199. Lung Abscess - What is it
|
A199. Necrosis of pulmonary parenchyma; caused by bacterial infection; 90% - anaerobes involved; Staph, E. coli, Klebsiella; periodontal disease, predisposition to aspiration; noninfectious causes - pulmonary infarction, cancer, vasculitis (Wegener's)
|
|
Q200. Lung Abscess - Hx/PE
|
A200. Fever; cough; chest pain; foul-smelling sputum; chronic course
|
|
Q201. Lung Abscess - Dx
|
A201. CXR; CT; Biopsy - for specific bacterial Dx; sputum for gram stain & Cx - will NOT show causative organism; common sites of aspiration - lower lobes - if upright; posterior segment of right upper lobe - if supine
|
|
Q202. Lung Abscess - Tx
|
A202. Clindamycin - empiric; PCN - alternate empiric
|
|
Q203. Impetigo - What is it
|
A203. Skin infection; mainly kids; S. pyogenes, S. aureus (bullous); untreated => lymphangitis, a. glomerulonephritis, cellulitis, furunculosis
|
|
Q204. Impetigo - Hx/PE
|
A204. Superficial, pustular oozing, crusting, draining of lesions; common on - arms, legs, face; may follow trauma to skin; maculopapular => vesicles
|
|
Q205. Impetigo - Tx
|
A205. Oral 1st gen ceph or ox-, clox-, or dicloxacillin; mild - topical mupirocin or bacitracin; PCN-allergy - macrolide
|
|
Q206. Erysipelas - What is it
|
A206. Superficial cellulitis; S. pyogenes
|
|
Q207. Erysipelas - Hx/PE
|
A207. Bilateral shiny, red, edematous; face, arms, legs
|
|
Q208. Erysipelas - Tx
|
A208. If can't tell from cellulitis- 1st gen cephalosporin, oxa-, cloxa, dicloxacillin; if sure, Strep - PCN
|
|
Q209. Tinea Versicolor - What is it
|
A209. Skin infection; Malassezia furfur (Pityrosporum orbiculare)
|
|
Q210. Tinea Versicolor - Hx/PE
|
A210. Tan, brown, white lesions; may coalesce; on chest, neck, abdomen, face; lesions do not tan
|
|
Q211. Tinea Versicolor - Tx
|
A211. Topical selenium sulfide,; ketoconazole,; oral itraconazole
|
|
Q212. Scabies - What is it
|
A212. Parasitic skin infection; Sarcoptes scabiei (itch mite); transmitted skin-to-skin contact
|
|
Q213. Scabies - Hx/PE
|
A213. Digs into skin at skin folds; burrows; pruritis; flexor surfaces of - wrists; finger webs; axillary folds; areola (women); genitals (men)
|
|
Q214. Scabies - Dx
|
A214. See in scrapings (mineral oil)
|
|
Q215. Scabies - Tx
|
A215. Permethrin; lindane (Kwell)
|
|
Q216. Pediculosis - What is it
|
A216. Skin infestation by lice; Head - pediculus humanus capitis; Body - pediculus humanus corporis
|
|
Q217. Pediculosis - Hx/PE
|
A217. Itching; excoriation; secondary bacterial infections
|
|
Q218. Pediculosis - Dx
|
A218. Direct exam of hair-bearing surfaces
|
|
Q219. Pediculosis - Tx
|
A219. Permethrin; lindane (Kwell)
|
|
Q220. Molluscum Contagiosum - What is it
|
A220. Skin-colored, waxy, umbilicated papule; poxvirus
|
|
Q221. Molluscum Contagiosum - Hx/PE
|
A221. Small papules; central umbilication; anywhere on skin; asymptomatic; adults - usually by venereal contact, genitals, pubic area
|
|
Q222. Molluscum Contagiosum - Dx
|
A222. Appearance; giemsa stain - large cells with inclusion bodies
|
|
Q223. Molluscum Contagiosum - Tx
|
A223. Freezing; curettage; electrocautery; cantharidin
|
|
Q224. Gas Gangrene; (Clostridial Myonecrosis) - What is it
|
A224. Wounds contaminated by Clostridium perfringens; not common, increased in wartime; trauma (50%): shrapnel, MVA, postop; nontraumatic: uterine gangrene - was complication of improper abortion
|
|
Q225. Gas Gangrene; (Clostridial Myonecrosis) - Hx/PE
|
A225. <1-4 days of incubation - pain, edema => hypotension; tachycardia; fever; crepitation; renal failure
|
|
Q226. Gas Gangrene; (Clostridial Myonecrosis) - Dx
|
A226. Gram stain - positive rods, no WBC; Culture - not diagnostic; gas bubbles on XR - not diagnostic. diagnostic - direct visualization; pale, dead muscle; brown, sweet-smelling discharge
|
|
Q227. Gas Gangrene; (Clostridial Myonecrosis) - Tx
|
A227. High-dose PCN; PCN-allergy - clindamycin; surgical debridement or amputation; hyperbaric O2 - controversial
|
|
Q228. Septic Arthritis - What is it
|
A228. Infection due to any agent; MC – bacterial, rickettsia, virus, spirochete; may also cause gonococcal and nongonococcal; nongonococcal - any previous damage to joint, OA, RA, previous surgery, prosthesis placement, IVDU, gout, sickle cell; gram positive - S. aureus (60%), Strep (15%); gram negative (15%); polymicrobial
|
|
Q229. Septic Arthritis - Hx/PE
|
A229. Gonococcal - polyarticular 50%, tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthralgia, petechiae & purpura; nongonococcal – monoarticular, swollen, tender, erythematous, decreased ROM, usually knee
|
|
Q230. Septic Arthritis - Dx
|
A230. gonococcal - hard to Culture, Culture sites other than knee - greater yield; nongonococcal - synovial fluid aspiration: Cx, gram stain, cell count – high, mainly PMN, low glucose
|
|
Q231. Septic Arthritis - Tx
|
A231. gonococcal - ceftriaxone; nongonoccocal - good empiric - staph/strep & gram- negative drug, nafcillin or oxacillin & aminoglycoside or 3rd gen ceph
|
|
Q232. Myocarditis - What is it
|
A232. Associated with every group of infectious agent; MC - Coxsackie B; also noninfectious – radiation, drugs, collagen vascular disease, hyperthyroidism
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Q233. Myocarditis - Hx/PE
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A233. Any presentation possible; MC - dyspnea & fatigue; can be asymp, subclinical, or rapid progression to death; PE - normal or S3 and murmurs
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Q234. Myocarditis - Dx
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A234. Any EKG abnormality; MC - ST-T changes; any type of heart block possible; cardiac enzymes may be increased; Ab titers may be increased; viruses may be isolated – stool, saliva; NPA; endomyocardial Biopsy - best diagnostic test
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|
Q235. Myocarditis - Tx
|
A235. Viral - supportive; most spontan resolve; no steroids (damaging); other Tx depends on agent
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|
Q236. MCC of UTI; MC with GU instruments?
|
A236. MCC: E. coli; MC with GU instruments: Pseudomonas
|
|
Q237. UTI with Alkaline urine is suggestive of which bug?
|
A237. Proteus
|
|
Q238. (2) MC bugs for Urethritis
|
A238. Chlamydia; Gonorrhea
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|
Q239. What meds (2) can be given to a pregnant woman with bacteriuria?
|
A239. Nitrofurantoin; Ampicillin
|
|
Q240. DOC for non-pregnant uncomplicated Cystitis and UTI; Tx for how many days?; What bug does it not work on?
|
A240. TMP-SMX (Bactrim), 3 - 5 days; Does not work on: Pseudomonas
|
|
Q241. DOC for Pseudomonas pyelonephritis, cystitis and UTI; Tx for how many days for pyelonephritis?
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A241. FQ (Cipro); Pyelonephritis: 7 - 14 days
|
|
Q242. Difference b/t discharge of Chlamydia and Gonorrhea
|
A242. Chlamydia: Non-purulent discharge; Gonorrhea: Purulent dischange
|
|
Q243. DOC for; 1. Chlamydia; 2. Gonorrhea
|
A243. Chlamydia: 1g Azithromycin PO (one dose); Gonorrhea: 125mg Ceftriaxone IM (one dose)
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Q244. What protects the vagina by providing it with an acidic environment (also used to make yogurt)?
|
A244. A Yoplait a day keeps the Vaginitis away: Lactobacilli
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|
Q245. What is the "whiff" test?; What (2) bugs does it work with?
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A245. Whiff test: applying KOH to wetmount, causing enhancement of odor for: Gardnerella; Trichomonas
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|
Q246. DOC for Pregnant patient with vaginitis
|
A246. Clotrimazole
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|
Q247. What should patient on Metronidazole be warned about ingesting while on the drug?
|
A247. Alcohol: can cause Disulfuram-like effects
|
|
Q248. Dx:; possible vaginal itch and burning, abnormal fishy odor; What is seen on wet mount?; Tx?
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A248. Gardnerella ("Bacterial Vaginosis"); wet mount: Clue cells (epithelial cells with bacteria); Tx: Metronidazole
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|
Q249. Dx:; vaginal itch and burning; rancid fish odor; green, frothy discharge; Strawberry cervix; What is seen on wet mount?; Tx?
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A249. Trichomonas; Wet mount: Motile Trichomonads; Tx: Metronidazole
|
|
Q250. Dx:; vaginal itch and burning; cheese-like discharge; no odor; What is seen on wet mount?; Tx?
|
A250. Candida Albicans ("Yeast infection"); Wet mount: Pseudohyphae; Tx: Fluconazole (Nystatin)
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|
Q251. On exam, how can you tell a syphillitic pupil?
|
A251. Like a Prostatute:; It accomodates, but doesn't react
|
|
Q252. Describe the (4) stages of Syphillis
|
A252. Primary: Painless chancre; Bubo LN; Secondary: Rash on palms and soles; Condylomata Lata; Latent stage (asymptomatic); Tertiary: Gummas in CNS, heart, aorta; Tabes dorsalis; Argyll Robertson pupil
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|
Q253. Bug name of Syphillis; What common test does it not show-up on?; What test is used?
|
A253. Treponema Pallidum; Does not grow on Blood culture; Darfield Microscopy - will see Spirochetes
|
|
Q254. DOC for Syphillis
|
A254. Penicillin G
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|
Q255. Definition:; inflammation of the glans penis; (2) causes and Tx for each
|
A255. Balanitis Causes:; 1. Candida - Tx with Nystatin; 2. Reiter's syndrome - Tx with NSAIDs
|
|
Q256. What should patients with balanitis be screened for?
|
A256. Diabetes
|
|
Q257. Dx:; painful vesicular lesions on erythematous base; local lymphadenopathy; Dx test?; Tx?
|
A257. Herpes; Test: Tzanck smear and culture (also herpes serologies); Tx: Acyclovir
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|
Q258. (2) adverse effects of Acyclovir
|
A258. Renal crystals;; Allergic Interstitial Nephritis
|
|
Q259. What Dx can a mother with HPV cause in a child during delivery?
|
A259. Laryngeal Papillomatosis
|
|
Q260. What UTI bug is a predisposing factor for PID?
|
A260. Chlamydia
|
|
Q261. Dx:; Diabetic patient with a black necrotic parasinus lesion
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A261. Mucormycosis
|
|
Q262. Dx:; man with perineal and suprapubic pain, dysuria and urinary frequency, fever, tender with rectal exam; (2) main causes; Tx? (2)
|
A262. Bacterial Prostatitis; Causes: E. coli, Pseudomonas; Tx (for 21 days): TMP-SMX, Ciprofloxacin
|
|
Q263. Pneumonia bug with "salmon pink" sputum and cavitary lesions; Tx?
|
A263. S. Aureus; Tx: Beta-lactam Antibiotics
|
|
Q264. Pneumonia bug with "buldging fissure" and "currant jelly"; Tx?
|
A264. Klebsiella; Tx: Cephalosporin (+/- aminoglycosides)
|
|
Q265. Dx:; 21-yo female complains of dry cough, malaise, and low- grade fevers for "2 weeks", has a CXR with hazy infiltrates
|
A265. Mycoplasma Pneumonia
|
|
Q266. Dx:; patient with confusion and diarrhea is found to have a large infiltrate on CXR with pleural effusions
|
A266. Legionella
|
|
Q267. WHat is the most common pneumonia with cystic fibrosis?
|
A267. Pseudomonas
|
|
Q268. Dx:; Respiratory infection with low fever, sore throat, N/V and causes a gray exudative pseudomembrane
|
A268. Corynebacterium Diptheria
|
|
Q269. Dx:; fever, rash, nausea, skin desquamatization, kidney and liver failure in women using tampons; Bug?
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A269. Toxic Shock Syndrome; (S. Aureus)
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|
Q270. Dx:; pharyngitis, strawberry tongue, rash that begins on trunk and spreads to extremities; Bug?
|
A270. Scarlet fever; (S. pyogens)
|
|
Q271. Dx:; HIV patient with dry cough for 1 week. No fever or chills. White count is normal.
|
A271. Mycoplasma Pneumonia
|
|
Q272. Cause of brain lesion in AIDS patient:; Ring-enhancing lesion with mass effect
|
A272. Toxoplasmosis
|
|
Q273. Cause of brain lesion in AIDS patient:; Periventricular ring
|
A273. CMV
|
|
Q274. Cause of brain problem in AIDS patient:; CNS lymphoma
|
A274. EBV
|
|
Q275. Cause of meningitis in AIDS patient:; Sensation of smell and behavior changes
|
A275. Herpes; (Temporal lobe)
|
|
Q276. Cause of meningitis in AIDS patient:; India ink stain with round organisms
|
A276. Cryptococcus
|
|
Q277. Dx:; 29-yo with HIV and CD-4 count of 100 has unexplained fever and elevated Alk-Phos.
|
A277. Mycobacterium Avium Complex
|
|
Q278. Dx:; HIV patient with painful, poorly healing perirectal lesion
|
A278. Herpes
|
|
Q279. Dx:; patient has fever, N/V and maculopapular rash on distal extremities that progresses to trunk; What can it cause?; Tx?
|
A279. Rocky Mt Spotted Fever (Rickettsia); Causes: Myocarditis and heart block; Tx: Doxycycline
|
|
Q280. Dx:; 42-yo man who recently camped in the woods of Vermont presents to ER with one-sided facial droop and a skin rash with central clearing; Tx?
|
A280. Lyme Dz (B. Burgdorferi); Tx: Penicillin
|
|
Q281. Dx:; fever, chills, myalgias, "hemolytic anemia" in patient who lives in Northeast or Midwest; Tx? (2)
|
A281. Babesiosis; Tx: Quinine and Clindamycin
|
|
Q282. Dx:; Tick or flea bite causing an ulcer at the bite site; Tx?
|
A282. Tularemia; Tx: Gentamicin (or Tetracycline)
|
|
Q283. Dx:; 40-yo patient recently returned from Kenya presents with body aches, malaise and fever. Labs show normal WBC, anemia and elevated LFT; Tx?
|
A283. Malaria; Tx: Cloroquine
|
|
Q284. When does antiretroviral therapy start for HIV?
|
A284. CD4 count < 500
|
|
Q285. what is the prophylaxis med and CD4-count start time in AIDS for:; PCP
|
A285. med: TMP-SMX (or Dantrolene if pt is intolerant to TMP- SMX); CD4: < 200
|
|
Q286. what is the prophylaxis med and CD4-count start time in AIDS for:; Mycobacterium Avium complex
|
A286. med: Azithromycin (or Clarithromycin); CD4: < 100
|
|
Q287. what is the prophylaxis med and CD4-count start time in AIDS for:; Cryptococcal and Candida infections
|
A287. med: Fluconazole; CD4: < 100
|
|
Q288. what is the only live vaccine able to be given to an HIV patient?
|
A288. MMR
|
|
Q289. What vaccines can you give to HIV patients?; (4)
|
A289. 1. Hepatitis B; 2. Inactivated Polio vaccine (never oral polio vaccine); 3. Pneumococcal; 4. Influenza
|
|
Q290. patient has HIV with severe hypoxia, normal CXR (or diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates) with dry and non-productive cough. Dx?; Test?; med Tx?
|
A290. Dx: PCP; test: Silver stain (Wright-Giemsa, methenamine silver); Tx: TMP-SMX
|
|
Q291. Malassezia furfur
|
A291. Patient with blotchy hypopigmentation of skin; KOH scraping shows spaghetti and meatballs
|
|
Q292. Dermatophytes
|
A292. (Trichophyton - skin, hair, nails; Microsporum - hair and skin; Epidermophyton - nails and skin); Patient with scaly, ringlike lesions of ski that may involved hair shafts or nails; KOH scraping shows arthroconidia and hyphae
|
|
Q293. Sporothrix schenckii
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A293. Patient with subcutaneous/lymphocutaneous mycetoma; Fardener, florist, basket weaver; Cigar-shaped yeasts in pus
|
|
Q294. Histoplasma capsulatum
|
A294. Normal patient with acute pulmonary; immunocompromised patient with chronic pulmonary or disseminated infection; States following drainages of Great Lakes to Gulf of Mexico; Exposure to bird or bat excrement; Sputum or blood cultures with mononuclear cells packed with yeast cells
|
|
Q295. Coccidioides immitis
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A295. Normal patient with erythema nodosum or self resolving pneumonia; Immunocompromised patient with calcifying chronic pulmonary or disseminated infections; Pregnant female in third trimester, disseminated infection; Desert southwest; Sputum has spherule with endospores
|
|
Q296. Blastomyces dermatitidis
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A296. Normal patient with acute pulmonary symptoms; Immunocompromised patient with chronic pulmonary or disseminated infection; North and South Carolina Sputum has broad-based, budding yeasts with double, refractile cell walls; Sputum has broad-based budding yeasts with double refractile cell walls
|
|
Q297. Aspergillus fumigatus
|
A297. Patient with asthma allergies-growing mucous plugs in lung; Patient with cavitary lung lesions-fungus ball; Patient with burns-cellulitis invasion; Immunocompromised patient-penumonia, meningitis; Septate hyphae branch at acute angles (45-degrees)
|
|
Q298. Candida albicans
|
A298. Immunocrompromised patient, overuse of antibiotics- thrust,spread down GI tract, septicemia; IV drug abusers-endocarditis; Germ tube test demonstrates pseudohyphae and hyphae
|
|
Q299. Cryptococcus neoformans
|
A299. Pigeon breeder with acute pulmonary symptoms; Hodgkins/AIDS patient with meningitis; India ink mount of CSF with encapsulated yeasts
|
|
Q300. Mucor, Rhizopus, Absidia
|
A300. Ketoacidotic diabetic or leukemic patient with rhinocerebral infection; Biopsy with nonseptate, irregular-width hyphae branching at 90-degree angles
|
|
Q301. Pneumocystis jiroveci
|
A301. Premature infant or AIDS patient with atypical pneumonia; Biopsy with honeycomb exudate and silver staining cysts; X-ray: ground glass
|
|
Q302. Staphylococcus epidermidis
|
A302. Coagulase (-); gram (+) cocci; Novobiocin sensitive; Infections of catheters and shunts
|
|
Q303. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
|
A303. Coagulase (-); gram (+) cocci; Novobiocin resistant; "Honeymoon cystitis"
|
|
Q304. Staphylococcus aureas
|
A304. Coagulase (+), gram (+) cocci in clusters; Gastroenteritis: 2-6 hours onset, salty foods, custards; Endocarditis: acute; Toxic shock syndrome: desquamating rash, fever, hypotension; Impetigo: bullous; Pneumonia: nosocomial, typical, acute; Osteomyelitis: #1 cause unless HbS mentioned
|
|
Q305. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
|
A305. Catalase (-), Beta hemolytic, gram (+) cocci, bacitracin sensitive; Pharyngitis: abrupt onset, tonsillar abscesses; Scarlet fever: blanching, sandpaper rash, strawnerry tongue; Impetigo: honey-crusted lesions; Rheumatic fever; Increased ASO titer; Acute glomerulonephritis after skin or throat infection, hypertension, edema, smoky urine; Bacitracin sensitive, gram (+) cocci
|
|
Q306. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)
|
A306. Bacitracin resistant, gram (+) cocci; Hydrolyze hippurate; CAMP test (+); Catalase (-), Beta hemolytic, gram (+) cocci, bacitracin resistant; MCC of Neonatal meningitis and septicemia: especially in prolonged labors
|
|
Q307. Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
A307. Gram (+), catalase (-), alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive, bile soluble; Lancet shaped diplococci; MCC of typical pneumonia, rusty sputum; MCC pf adult meningitis - many PMNs, decreased glucose, increased protein in CSF; MCC of otitis media and sinusitis
|
|
Q308. Viridans Streptococc (S. sanguis, S. mutans)
|
A308. Gram (+), catalase (-), alpha hemolytic, optochin resistant, bile insoluble; Plaque and dental caries; Subacute bacterial endocarditis - preexisting damage to the heart valves; follows dental work
|
|
Q309. Enterococcus faecalis/faecium
|
A309. Gram (+), catalase (-), variable hemolysis, hydrolyzes esculin; Urinary and biliary tract infections - elderly males after prostate treatment; Subacute bacterial endocarditis - elderly males, follows GI/GU surgery, preexisting heart valve damage
|
|
Q310. Bacillus antracis
|
A310. Gram (+), spore forming aerobic rods; Contact with animal hides or postal worker; eschar or life- threatening pneumonia; Rapid-onset gastroenteritis; Fried rice, Chinese restaurants
|
|
Q311. Clostridium tetani
|
A311. Dirty puncture wound; Rigid paralysis
|
|
Q312. Clostridium botulinum
|
A312. Home-canned alkaline vegtables; Floppy baby syndrome (infant with flaccid paralysis); Reversible flaccid paralysis
|
|
Q313. Clostridium perfringens
|
A313. Contamined wound; Pain, edema, gas, fever, tachycardia; Food poisoning: reheated meats, noninflammatory diarrhea
|
|
Q314. Clostridium difficile
|
A314. Hospitalized patient on antibiotics; Develops colitis, diarrhea
|
|
Q315. Listeria monocytogenes
|
A315. Gram (+), beta hemolytic bacilli, facultative intracellular; Foodborne (deli foods); Transplacental - granulomatosis infantiseptica; Neonatal septicemia and meningitis (third most common cause); MCC of meningitis in renal transplant or cancer patients
|
|
Q316. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
|
A316. Gram (+), aerobic, non-spore forming rods; Bull neck, myocarditis, nerve palsies; Gray pseudomembrane → airway obstruction; Toxin produced by lysogeny and ribosylates EF-2; heart, nerve damage
|
|
Q317. Actinomyces israelii
|
A317. Mycetoma on jaw line or spread from IUD; Sulfur granules in pus grow anaerobic, gram (+), non-acid fast branching rods
|
|
Q318. Nocardia asteroides and brasiliensis
|
A318. Gram (+) filamentous bacilli, aerobic, partially acid fast; Cavitary bronchopulmonary disease, mycetomas
|
|
Q319. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
|
A319. High-risk patient (low SES, HIV+, IV drug user); Chronic cough, weight loss; Ghon complex; Auramine-rhodamine staining, acid fast bacilli in sputum, faculative intracellular; Produce niacin, heat-sensitive catalase; Positive DTH test (PPD)
|
|
Q320. Mycobacterium leprae
|
A320. Acid fast bacilli in punch biopsy; Immigrant patient with sensory loss in extremities; Armadillos in Texas and Louisana; Hansen's disease
|
|
Q321. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare, Mycobacterium kansasii
|
A321. AIDS patients, cancer, chronic lung disease with pulmonary, GI, disseminated symptoms, atypical mycobacteria
|
|
Q322. Mycobacterium marinum
|
A322. Fish tank granuloma - cutaneous granulomas
|
|
Q323. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
|
A323. Solitary cervical lymph node in kids, lymphadenitis, atypical mycobacteria
|
|
Q324. Meningococcal meningitis
|
A324. Gran (-) diplococcus in CSF; Young adults with meningitis, abrupt onset with signs of endotoxin toxicity
|
|
Q325. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
|
A325. Sexually active patient; Urethral/vaginal discharge (leukorrhea); Arthiritis possible; Neonatal opthalmia; Gram (-) diplococcus in neutrophils
|
|
Q326. Moraxella catarrhalis
|
A326. Gram (-) diplococcus causes otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis, bronchopneumonia in elderly patients with COPD
|
|
Q327. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
A327. Gram (-), oxidase (+), aerobic bacillus; Blue-green pigments, fruity odor; Burn infections - blue-green pus, fruity odor; Typical pneumonia - Chonic granulomatous disease or Cystic fibrosis; UTI - catheterized patients
|
|
Q328. Legionella pneumophilia
|
A328. Elderly smoker, heavy drinker or immunosuppressed; Exposure to aerosols of water; Atypical pneumonia; Pontiac fever
|
|
Q329. Francisella tularensis
|
A329. Patient with ulceroglandular disease, atypical pneumonia, or gastrointestinal disease; Arkansas/Missouri; Exposure to rabbits/ticks; Tularemia
|
|
Q330. Bordetella pertussis
|
A330. Unvaccinated child (immigrant family or religious objections); Cough with inspiratory "whoop"; Whooping cough
|
|
Q331. Brucella species
|
A331. Patient with acute septicemia; Exposure to animals or unpasteurized dairy; California/Texas or travel to Mexico
|
|
Q332. Campylobacter jejuni
|
A332. Patient with inflammatory diarrhea; Gram (-), curved rod, microaerophilic, exidase (+), grows at 42 degrees C
|
|
Q333. Helicobacter pylori
|
A333. Patient with gastritis, ulcers, stomach cancer; Gram (-), helical bacilli, oxidase (+), microaerophilic, urease (+)
|
|
Q334. Escherichia coli
|
A334. MCC of UTI; Neonatal septicemia (2nd MCC)
|
|
Q335. Escherichia coli (ETEC)
|
A335. Gastroenteritis, Traveler's diarrhea; Infantile diarrhea (2nd MCC); Hemorrhagic colitis, HUS; Lactose fermenter, gram-negative rod; Inflammatory diarrhea, similar to shigellosis
|
|
Q336. Shigella sonnei (MC in US), dysenteriae (most severe)
|
A336. Patient with acute bloody diarrhea and fever; Gram (-) bacilli, which are nonmotile, nonlactose fermenters, do not produce H2S
|
|
Q337. Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
A337. Elderly patient with typical pneumonia currant-jelly sputum; UTI - catheterized patients; Septicemia: immunocompromised or nosocomial; Gram (-) bacilli, oxidase (-), encapsulated, lactose fermenters
|
|
Q338. Klebsiella granulomatis
|
A338. Patient from Caribbean or New Guinea with subcutaneous genital nodules; Encapsulated gram (-) rods inside mononuclear cells
|
|
Q339. Salmonella enterica typhi
|
A339. Patient with fever, abdominal pain with travel to endemic area
|
|
Q340. Salmonella enterica typhi / non-typhi
|
A340. Gram (-), encapsulated, nonlactose fermenter, produces H2S gas; Widal test
|
|
Q341. Salmonella enterica non-typhi
|
A341. Enterocolitis - inflammatory, follows ingestion of poultry products or handling pet reptiles; Septicemia - very young or elderly; Osteomyelitis - sickle cell disease
|
|
Q342. Yersinia pestis
|
A342. Patient with high fever, buboes, conjunctivitis, pneumonia; Exposure to small rodents, desert southwest
|
|
Q343. Yersinia enterocolitica
|
A343. Patient with inflammatory diarrhea or pseudoappendicitis; Cold climates; Unpateurized milk, pork; Gram (-) bacilli, non-lactose fermenters, non-H2S producers
|
|
Q344. Proteus mirabilis / vulgaris
|
A344. Patient with UTI or septicemia; Swarming motility; Staghorn renal calculi (struvite stones); Gram (-), non-lactose fermenting, urease (+)
|
|
Q345. Gardnerella vaginalis
|
A345. Female patient with thin vaginal discharge, post antibiotic or menses; Clue cells; Whiff test
|
|
Q346. Vibrio cholerae
|
A346. Patient with noninflammatory diarrhea; Rice-water stool; Dehydration; Gram (-) curved rods, polar flagellae, oxidase (+), travel to endemic area
|
|
Q347. Pasteurella multocida
|
A347. Patient with cat (animal) bite; Cellulitis / lymphadenitis
|
|
Q348. Haemophilus influenzae
|
A348. 3 mo-2 year old unvaccinated child - meningitis, pneumonia, epiglottitis; Smokers with COPD - bronchitis, pneumonia; Gram (-) rod, requires factors X and V
|
|
Q349. HACEK group infections
|
A349. MCC of gram-negative endocarditis in non-IV drug users
|
|
Q350. Haemophilus ducreyi
|
A350. Painful chancre
|
|
Q351. Bacteroides fragilis
|
A351. Patient with abdominal trauma, emergency abdominal surgery; Septicemia, peritonitis, abscess; Gram (-) bacilli, anaerobic
|
|
Q352. Treponema pallidum
|
A352. Sexually active patient or neonate of IV drug-using female; Primary disease - nontender indurated genital chancre; Secondary disease - maculopapular, copper-colored rash, condylomata lata; Tertiary disease - gumma in CNS and cardiovascular system; Spirilar, gram (-) bacteria visualized by dark-field or fluorescent antibody; FTA-ABS, VDRL
|
|
Q353. Borrelia burgdorferi
|
A353. Patient with influenza-like symptoms and erythema migrans; Spring/summer seasons, noreast, midwest, west coast; Later-neurologic, cardiac, arthiritis/arthralgias; Lyme disease
|
|
Q354. Leptospira interrogans
|
A354. Patients with influenza-like symptoms +/- GI symptoms; Occupational or recreational exposure to water aerosols; Hawaii; Spirochetes with terminal hook
|
|
Q355. Rickettsia rickettsii
|
A355. Patient with influenza-like symptoms and petechial rash that begins on ankles and wrists and moves to trunk; East coast mountainous areas; Sring/summer seasons, outdoor exposure, Weil-Felix (+); Rocky Mountain spotted fever
|
|
Q356. Coxiella burnetii
|
A356. Patient with fever, pneumonia, granulomatous hepatitis; Exposure to domestic animal breeding operation, gram (-) bacilli, diagnose serologically
|
|
Q357. Chlamydia trachomatis
|
A357. Sexually active patient or neonate; Adult: urethritis, cervicitis, PID, inclusion conjunctivitis; Neonate: inclusion conjunctivitis / pneumonia; Immigrant from Africa/Asia, swollen genital lymphadenopathy; Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in scrapings
|
|
Q358. Chlamydia pneumoniae
|
A358. Atypical pneumonia, sputum with intracytoplasmic inclusion
|
|
Q359. Chlamydia psittaci
|
A359. Atypical pneumonia, exposure to parrots
|
|
Q360. Mycoplasma pneumonia
|
A360. Young adult with atypical pneumonia (MCC); Mulberry-shaped colonies on media containing sterols; Positive cold agglutinin test
|
|
Q361. Ureaplasma urealyticum
|
A361. Adult patient with urethritis, prostitis, renal calculi; Alkaline urine; Non-Gram-staining, urease (+)
|
|
Q362. Entamoeba histolytica
|
A362. Amebiasis: dysentery; Liver abscesses (protozoa etiology); Inverted flask shaped lesions
|
|
Q363. Giardia lamblia
|
A363. Fatty, foul-smelling diarrhea leading to malabsorption; Fecal (human, beaver, muskrat), water , food, day care; Trophozoites with "falling leaf" motility
|
|
Q364. Cryptosporidium species
|
A364. Transient diarrhea in healthy, severe in immunocompromisted hosts, acid fast round oocysts in stool; Undercooked meat, water - no killed by chlorination, cysts
|
|
Q365. Trichomonas vaginalis
|
A365. Frothy vaginal discharge,; motile trophozoites with corkscrew motility,; sexual transmission
|
|
Q366. Plasmodium vivax
|
A366. Chills,; fever spike,; and malarial rigors,; relapses
|
|
Q367. Plasmodium falciparum
|
A367. Irregular fever spikes,; causes cerebral malaria,; multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes
|
|
Q368. Trypanosoma cruzi
|
A368. Chagas diseases,; Romana sign (swelling around eye),; cardiac muscle, liver, brain often involved,; reduviid bug
|
|
Q369. Trypanosoma brucei, gambiense, rhodesiense
|
A369. African sleeping sickness,; tsetse fly,; antigenic variation
|
|
Q370. Leishmania donovani
|
A370. Viseral Leishmaniasis,; sandfly,; amastigotes in macrophages in bone marrow, liver, spleen
|
|
Q371. Leismania species
|
A371. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis,; sandfly,; amastigotes in cutaneous lesions
|
|
Q372. Babesia
|
A372. Malaria-like Babesiosis,; NE, N Central, California, and NW U.S.,; Ixodes tick,; co-infection with Borrelia
|
|
Q373. Toxoplasma gondii
|
A373. Cat is definitive host,; raw meat in US #1 = pork, contact with cat feces,; deadly in pregnant patients
|
|
Q374. Schistosoma mansoni, japonicum
|
A374. Intestinal schistosomiasis; Skin penetration,; mature in veins of mesentery,; eggs cause granulomas in liver
|
|
Q375. Schistosoma haematobium
|
A375. Vesicular schistosomiasis; Skin penetration,; bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa
|
|
Q376. Clonorchis sinesis
|
A376. Chinese liver fluke; Raw fish ingestion, serum-like sickness
|
|
Q377. Paragonimus westermani
|
A377. Lung fluke; Raw crabs, crayfish,; mimics pulmonary TB
|
|
Q378. Taenia solium
|
A378. Pork tapeworm; Cysticercosis, calcified larva in brain, eye, heart, lung, IH: pigs; Raw pork containing cysticerci ingested by humans, DH: humans - intestinal tapeworm, proglottids in feces
|
|
Q379. Diphyllobothrium latum
|
A379. Raw pickled fism containing a sparganum, intestinal tapeworm, megaloblastic anemia (B12 deficiency); Fish tapeworm
|
|
Q380. Enchinococcus granulosus
|
A380. Hydatid cyst disease
|
|
Q381. Enterobius vermicularis
|
A381. Pinworms, large intestine, perinal itching; Scotch tape test; Most frequent helminth parasite in U.S.
|
|
Q382. Ascaris lumbricoides
|
A382. Ascariasis; MC helminth worldwide; Largest roundworm, may obstruct intestine or bile duct
|
|
Q383. Toxocara canis or cati
|
A383. Visceral Larva Migrans - larvae wader aimlessly until they die,; cause inflmmation,; from hangling puppies or eating dirt (pica)
|
|
Q384. Necator americanus
|
A384. Hookworm,; larva penetrates intact skin of bare feet,; penumonitis,; anemia,; occult blood fecal may be +
|
|
Q385. Strongyloides stercoralis
|
A385. Threadworm,; early: pneumonitis, diarrhea, abdominal pain; later: malabsorption, ulcers, bloody stools, larva penerates intact skin
|
|
Q386. Trichinella spiralis
|
A386. Trichinosis,; variable encysted larvae in meat, wild game meat, in muscle,; fever, myalgia, splinter hemorrhages, eosinophilia
|
|
Q387. Wucheria bancrofti
|
A387. Elephantiasis, mosquito
|
|
Q388. Loa loa
|
A388. Pruritus,; calabar swelling,; chrysops mango fly, African eye worm
|
|
Q389. Onchocerca volvulus
|
A389. River blindness, itchy leopard rash
|
|
Q390. Dracunculus medinesis
|
A390. Creeping eruptions,; ulcerations,; rash,; remove with stick, fiery serpant
|
|
Q391. B19 - Parvoviridae
|
A391. School-aged child with fever and indurated facial rash, slapped cheek fever; Pregnant woman with flu-like symptoms, hydrops fetalis or spontaneous abortion
|
|
Q392. HPV - Papovaviridae
|
A392. Warts; Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN); Biopsy or pap smear reveals koilocytic cells
|
|
Q393. HSV-1 and HSV-2 - Herpesviridae
|
A393. Cold sores / gential vesicles; Keratoconjunctivitis; Meningoencephalitis / encephalitis; Neonatal disseminated / encephalitis; Tzanck smear, Cowdry type A inclusion bodies
|
|
Q394. HSV-1 - Herpesviridae
|
A394. Latency in trigeminal ganglion; Latency in sacral ganglion
|
|
Q395. VZV - Herpesviridae - Chickenpox
|
A395. unvaccinated child with asynchronous rash
|
|
Q396. VZV - Herpesviridae - Shingles
|
A396. Elderly with unilateral vesicular rash that follows dermatome
|
|
Q397. VZV - Herpesviridae
|
A397. Tzanck smear, Cowdry type A inclusion bodies, and synctia intranuclear inclusions; Latency in DRG
|
|
Q398. EBV - Herpesviridae
|
A398. Young adult with fever, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly; Downey type II atypical T lymphocytes reach 70% in blood; Heterophile (monospot) positive mononucleosis; Latency in B cells; Kissing disease
|
|
Q399. CMV - Herpesviridae
|
A399. Heterophile-negative mononucleosis in children and adults; Neonate with jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytic purpura; Owl-eye inclusion bodies in biopsy
|
|
Q400. HHV-6 - Herpesviridae
|
A400. Infant with fever leading to lacy body rash
|
|
Q401. HHV-8 - Herpesviridae
|
A401. AIDS patient with sarcoma; Kaposi sarcoma
|
|
Q402. EBV, CMV - Herpesviridae
|
A402. Latency in mononuclear cells
|
|
Q403. Adenovirus - Adenoviridae
|
A403. Young adults with ARDS, spring and winter peak; Swimmers and shipyard workers: nonpurulent conjunctivitis; Daycare: viral gastroenteritis
|
|
Q404. Molluscum Contagiosum - Poxviridae
|
A404. Young adult (wrestling, swim team), umbilicated warts, Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies
|
|
Q405. Variola - Poxviridae
|
A405. Virus extinct; Syncronous rash begins in mouth goes to face and body; Guarnieri bodies (intracytoplasmic inclusions); Smallpox
|
|
Q406. HBV - Hepadnaviridae
|
A406. Dane particle, infectious
|
|
Q407. HAV - Picornavirus
|
A407. Fecal oral, infectious
|
|
Q408. HCV - Flavivirus
|
A408. Parenteral, sexual, post-transfusion,; 80% chronic carriers,; primary HCC,; cirrhosis
|
|
Q409. HDV - Defective
|
A409. Parenteral, sexual, superinfection,; cirrhosis,; fulminant hepatitis
|
|
Q410. HEV - Calcivirus
|
A410. Fecal oral, enteric,; pregnant patients severly affected
|
|
Q411. Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE)
|
A411. Streptococcus Viridans: Mutans, Intermedius,; Streptococcus Bovis; Enterococcus Faecalis
|
|
Q412. Local: UTI, Billiary tract infection; Systemic: SBE
|
A412. Enterococcus Faecalis
|
|
Q413. Local: Dental carries, Brain or abdominal abscesses. Systemic: SBE
|
A413. Carries: S. Mutans; Brain or Abdominal abscesses:Intermedius
|
|
Q414. Neonatal: meningitis, pneumonia, sepsis
|
A414. Streptococcus Agalactiae
|
|
Q415. Glomerulonephritis with hematuria, periorbital edema, HTN; Rheumatic Fever with carditis,chorea, polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, subcue nodules
|
A415. Streptococcus Pyogenes (immune-mediated)
|
|
Q416. Scarlet Fever with sandpaper rash, strawberry tongue. TSS; Necrotizing Fasciitis
|
A416. Streptococcus Pyogenes (toxin-mediated)
|
|
Q417. Pharyngitis; Impetigo; Erysipelas; Cellulitis
|
A417. Streptococcus Pyogenes (infection)
|
|
Q418. UTI, Cystitis
|
A418. Staphlococcus Saprophyticus
|
|
Q419. Local: impetigo, cellulitis,flolliculitis, carbuncles, pneumonia with cavitations; Systemic: acute endocarditis, meningitis,osteomyelitis, septic arthritis
|
A419. Staphylococcus Aureus (infections)
|
|
Q420. TSS; SSS (ritters disease in newborn); Food Poisoning (custards, heat stable toxins, enterotoxin EA A)
|
A420. Staphylococcus Aureus (toxin-mediated)
|
|
Q421. Infection of indwelling medical device (catheter, iv line, prosthetic valve.
|
A421. Staphylococcus EpidermidisA
|
|
Q422. Abscesses in mouth, lungs, GI tract, GU tract. Draining sinus tracts
|
A422. Actinomyces Israelii
|
|
Q423. Local: pseudomembrane. airway obstruction; Systemic: myocarditis, polyneuritis
|
A423. Corynebacterium Diphtheriae
|
|
Q424. Listerosis: meningitis and sepsis in neonates and immumoncompromised
|
A424. Listeria Monocytogenes
|
|
Q425. cellulitis; gas gangrene (myonecrosis with crepitus); food poisonoing (meat, poultry)
|
A425. Clostridium Perfringens
|
|
Q426. Pseudomenbranous colitis (PMC); Diarrhea
|
A426. Clostridium Difficile
|
|
Q427. Adult botulism (food poisoning, canned foods, hours); Infant botulism (contiminated honey, floppy baby, days); no fever (bacteria doesn't invade)
|
A427. Clostridium Botulinum
|
|
Q428. spastic paralysis; lockjaw, risus sardonicus
|
A428. Clostridium Tetani
|
|
Q429. Local: cutaneous tissue hemorrhage and necrosis-- >malignant pustules; Dysentery (secondary to lesions in GI tract); Systemic:fever, dyspnea, nonproductive cough (woolsorters disease)
|
A429. Bacillus Anthracis
|
|
Q430. food poisoning from contiminated rice
|
A430. Bacillus Cereus
|
|
Q431. Local: Lobar pneumonia, otitis media; Systemic: Meningitis
|
A431. Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
Q432. Pneumonia; Abscesses in kidney, brain; immune compromised
|
A432. Norcardia
|
|
Q433. Streptococcus Bovis DOC?
|
A433. PCN
|
|
Q434. Enterococcus Faecalis DOC?
|
A434. Ampicillin or Vancomycin; and; Aminoglycosides (synergistic)
|
|
Q435. Streptococcus Agalactiae DOC?
|
A435. PCN G; Prophylaixs: Ampicillin for preg women
|
|
Q436. Streptococcus Pyogenes DOC?; for Glomerulonephirits or Rheumatic Fever (immune- mediated)
|
A436. Symptomatic Tx. Prophylaxis: PCN to pts with Hx of; Rheumatic Fever to prevent further valve damage.
|
|
Q437. Streptococcus Pyogenes DOC?; for Scarlet Fever, TSS, Necrotizing Fasciitis (toxin-mediated)
|
A437. PCN G; Clindamycin added in TSS (prevents Scarlet fever toxin); Surgery and Debridement for Necrotizing Fasciitis
|
|
Q438. Streptococcus Pyogenes DOC?; Pharyngitis, Impetigo, Ersipelas, Cellulitis (Infections)
|
A438. PCN G
|
|
Q439. Staphylococcus Saprophyticus DOC?
|
A439. TMP-SMX
|
|
Q440. Staphylococcus Epidemidis DOC?; Infections of Indwelling Medical Devices
|
A440. Vancomycin ( most strains resistant to PCN and Cephalosporins); Remove foreign body
|
|
Q441. Staphylococcus Aureus DOC?; Infections: Impetigo, cellulits, folliculitis, furnuncles, carbuncles, pseumonia with cavitations, Acute Endocarditis, Meningitis, Osteomylitis, Septic Arthritis.
|
A441. MSSA: Penicillinase-resistant PCN; MRS: Vancomycin
|
|
Q442. Staphylococcus Aureus DOC?; Toxin Mediated: TSS, SSS (Ritter's disease in Newborn), Food Poisoning
|
A442. Remove foreign body, drainage of purpulent fluid, fluid replacement,; Penicillanase-resistant PCN
|
|
Q443. Actinomyces Israelii DOC?; Abcesses in mouth, lungs, GI Tract, GU tract.
|
A443. PCN G; Surgical Drainage of abscesses
|
|
Q444. Corynebacterium Diphtheriae DOC?
|
A444. antitoxin; PCN or Erythormycin for local infection; DTaP booster
|
|
Q445. Listeria Monocytogenes DOC?
|
A445. Ampicillin + or - Gentamicin; TMP-SMX
|
|
Q446. Clostridium Perfringens DOC?
|
A446. Surgical removable of infected areas; Hyperbaric oxygen to keill anaerobic organisms; PCN, Clindamycin (effective in local, weak infections)
|
|
Q447. Clostridium Botulinum DOC?
|
A447. antitoxin; respiratory support
|
|
Q448. Clostridium Tetani DOC?
|
A448. Prophylaxis DTaP vaccine, tetanus toxoid, boosters required; clean wound, antitoxin; DTaP booster; PCN, Metronidazole; Diazepam (a GABA-agonist)
|
|
Q449. Bacillus Anthracis DOC?
|
A449. parenteral PCN G; anti-PA vaccine
|
|
Q450. Bacillus Cereus DOC?
|
A450. rehydration; good food handling
|
|
Q451. Viridans Streptococci : Mutans, Intermedius DOC?
|
A451. PCN G
|
|
Q452. Streptococcus Pneumoniae DOC?
|
A452. PCN or Cepholosporin; Except Vancomycin for Meningitis
|
|
Q453. Norcardia: Asteroides, Brasiliensis DOC?
|
A453. TMP-SMX; Surgical drainage of abcess
|
|
Q454. c diff associated with
|
A454. pseudomembrane colitis, secondary to clinda or amp use
|
|
Q455. tx of pseudomembrane colitis
|
A455. metro, oral vanco
|
|
Q456. diphtheria
|
A456. exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by ADP ribosylation of EF-2; grey-white membrane in pharynx with LAD; tx: diphtheria antitoxin, DPT vaccine, penecillin
|
|
Q457. anthrax
|
A457. contact: malignant pustule; inhalation: flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, shock
|
|
Q458. actinomyces
|
A458. normal oral flora, bad if immunocompromised
|
|
Q459. neisseria gonococci cause
|
A459. urethritis, cervicitis, PID, epididymitis; most common cause of septic arthritis; ophthalmia neonatorum- sticky eye discharge, tx- EES eye drops
|
|
Q460. H influ
|
A460. epiglottitis, meningitis, otitis, pneumonia; can vaccinate
|
|
Q461. enterbacter
|
A461. aerobic GN rods; e coli, salmonella, shigella, klebsiella, enterobacter, serratia, proteus
|
|
Q462. kleb
|
A462. pneumonia, sepsis, UTI; red currant jelly sputum
|
|
Q463. salmonella
|
A463. motile, most common food associated diarrhea; do not tx- you will prolong the carrier state; see in chicken and eggs
|
|
Q464. shigella
|
A464. bacterial dysentery- water diarrhea then mucousy diarrhea
|
|
Q465. S typhi
|
A465. typhoid fever; fever,; RUQ pain,; resides in GB
|
|
Q466. S flexeneri
|
A466. Reiter's syndrome
|
|
Q467. Yersinia entercolitica
|
A467. pet feces (puppy)
|
|
Q468. seafood bugs
|
A468. vibrio parahaemolyticus,; v vulnificus
|
|
Q469. EHEC and EHIC
|
A469. have sHIga like toxin - inhibits 60s ribosome
|
|
Q470. E coli general
|
A470. diarrhea,; UTI,; neonatal meningitis/pneumonia/sepsis
|
|
Q471. ETEC
|
A471. most common cause of traveler's diarrhea; tx: TMP-SMX, fluoroquinolones; similar to cholera, rice water diarrhea; no intestinal wall invasion
|
|
Q472. EHEC
|
A472. O157:H7--> HUS- hemolysis, renal failure, TCP
|
|
Q473. enteropathogenic
|
A473. similar to shigella
|
|
Q474. EIEC
|
A474. intestinal wall invasion- blood diarrhea and fever
|
|
Q475. bloody diarrhea
|
A475. campylobacet,; salmonella,; shigella,; EHEC,; EIEC,; yersinia enterocolitica,; C diff,; entamoeba
|
|
Q476. watery diarrhea
|
A476. ETEC,; vibrio,; c perfringens,; protozoa- giardia, cryptosporidium,; viruses- rota, adeno, norwalk
|
|
Q477. campylobacter and cholera
|
A477. comma shaped organisms
|
|
Q478. cAMP inducers
|
A478. cholera,; pertussus,; e coli,; bacillus
|
|
Q479. proteus mirabilis
|
A479. very motile, flagella- no distinct colonies can be grown; common cause of UTI; carries urease (also h pylori and c neoformans)
|
|
Q480. cat scratch
|
A480. bartonella
|
|
Q481. dog/cat bite
|
A481. pasteurella multocida
|
|
Q482. cat feces
|
A482. toxoplasmosis
|
|
Q483. animal urine
|
A483. leptospira
|
|
Q484. rat bites
|
A484. spirillum minus
|
|
Q485. francisella tularemia
|
A485. rabbits
|
|
Q486. brucella
|
A486. undulant fever, dairy products, contact with animals
|
|
Q487. legionella
|
A487. poorly staining GN rod- use silver stain; aerosol transmission from environmental water source habitat; tx: ees; detect with urinary antigen test
|
|
Q488. pseudomonas causes
|
A488. pneumonia (CF, immunocompromised),; burn wound infections,; UTI,; external otitis,; hot tub folliculitis,; osteomyelitis (DM, IVDA),; sepsis,; endocarditis (IVDA),; corneal infections in contact lens wearers
|
|
Q489. pseudomonas things
|
A489. water source, produces endotoxin, blue green pigment; tx: AG + extended spectrum penicillin
|
|
Q490. H pylori
|
A490. duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcers; tx with triple therapy; urease positive
|
|
Q491. DDX granulomatous disease
|
A491. fungal infections,; silica/be exposure,; TB,; foreign bodies,; sarcoid-hilar LAD,; bartonella
|
|
Q492. primary TB
|
A492. ghon complex,; hilar nodes
|
|
Q493. secondary TB
|
A493. fibrocaseous cavitary lesion- classic TB
|
|
Q494. how do we kill TB
|
A494. kill by T memory lymphokines--> activate macrophages-- >kill
|
|
Q495. Ghon complex
|
A495. TB granulomas (Ghon focus) with lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement;; reflects primary infection or exposure
|
|
Q496. TB symptoms
|
A496. fever,; night sweats,; weight loss,; hemoptysis
|
|
Q497. M kansasii
|
A497. pulmonary TB like symptoms
|
|
Q498. M scrofulaceum
|
A498. cervical LAD in kids
|
|
Q499. MAIC
|
A499. disseminated disease in AIDs
|
|
Q500. M marinum
|
A500. marine activity, skin infection
|
|
Q501. M leprae
|
A501. likes cool temperatures- infects skin and superficial nerves; Tx: l/t dapsone, rifampin
|
|
Q502. lepromatous leprosy
|
A502. worse, failed cell mediated immunity
|
|
Q503. tuberculoid leprosy
|
A503. self limited
|
|
Q504. lyme disease
|
A504. caused by borrelia burgdorferi- transmitted by ixodes tick; erythema chronicum migrans rash with central clearing; tx: TCN, doxy
|
|
Q505. stage 1 lyme
|
A505. erythema chronicum migrans,; flulike symptoms
|
|
Q506. stage 2 lyme
|
A506. neurologic and cardiac manifestations
|
|
Q507. stage 3 lyme
|
A507. AI migratory polyarthritis
|
|
Q508. primary syph
|
A508. painless chancre
|
|
Q509. secondary syph
|
A509. disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms,; maculopapular rash,; condyloma lata,; alopecia areata
|
|
Q510. tertiary syph
|
A510. gumma,; aortitis,; neurosyph (tabes dorsalis- no proprioception),; argyll robertson pupil
|
|
Q511. congenital syph
|
A511. saber shins,; saddle nodes,; deafness,; notched incisors,; interstitial keratitis
|
|
Q512. argyll robertson pupil
|
A512. accomodates to convergence but does not react to light
|
|
Q513. VRDL false positives
|
A513. viruses (mono, hep),; drugs,; rheumatic fever/RA,; lupus,; leprosy
|
|
Q514. spirochetes
|
A514. borrelia,; leptospira,; treponema
|
|
Q515. C pneumo and C psittaci
|
A515. atypical pneumo- no fever or SOB, interstitial pneumo only; psittaci- avian resevoir
|
|
Q516. CT A-C
|
A516. chronic infection,; cause blindness in africa
|
|
Q517. CT D-K
|
A517. urethritis,; PID,; ectopic pregnancy,; neonatal pneumonia,; neonatal conjunctivitis (tx with EES)
|
|
Q518. CT L1-L3
|
A518. lymphogranuloma venereum
|
|
Q519. Rickettsia triad
|
A519. HA,; fever,; rash,; arthropod vector
|
|
Q520. tx for rickettsia
|
A520. TCN
|
|
Q521. why is coxiella atypical
|
A521. no rash, no vector, negative weil-felix reaction, aerosol; Q fever- interstitial pneumonia like woolsorters disease
|
|
Q522. RMSF
|
A522. rickettsia rickettsii- rash on palms and soles (migrates inward), HA, fever; endemic to east coast
|
|
Q523. acrodynia
|
A523. peeling of palms and soles because of Hg poisoning
|
|
Q524. Endemic typhus (fleas)
|
A524. R typhi
|
|
Q525. Epidemic typhus (human body louse)
|
A525. R prowsezekii
|
|
Q526. Weil-Felix reaction
|
A526. antirickettsia AB cross react with proteus antigen
|
|
Q527. Myco pneumo
|
A527. atypical walking pneumonia (insidious onset, HA, nonproductive cough, diffuse interstitial infiltrate), high titer of cold agglutinins (IgM); Tx: TCN, EES; bacterial cell membrane contains cholesterol; younger patients in clusters
|
|
Q528. gives rigid support, protects against osmotic pressure
|
A528. peptidoglycan
|
|
Q529. major surface antigen - has teichoic acid - induces acute phase reactants TNF and IL1
|
A529. cell wall/cell membrane
|
|
Q530. site of endotoxin (LPS), major surface antigen
|
A530. outer membrane (GN)
|
|
Q531. LPS components
|
A531. lipid A (induces TNF and IL1),; core polysaccharide,; outer O side chain
|
|
Q532. site of oxidative and transport enzymes
|
A532. plasma membrane
|
|
Q533. space between cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in GN bacteria
|
A533. periplasm
|
|
Q534. protects against phagocytosis
|
A534. capsule
|
|
Q535. mediates adherence of bacteria to cell surface, sex pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during conjugation
|
A535. pilus/fimbria
|
|
Q536. motility
|
A536. flagellum
|
|
Q537. provides resistance to dehydration, heat and chemicals
|
A537. spore
|
|
Q538. contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes and toxins
|
A538. plasmid
|
|
Q539. organisms with IgA proteases
|
A539. S pneumo,; N mening,; N gonorrhea,; H influ
|
|
Q540. bugs that do not gram stain well
|
A540. treponema,; rickettsia,; mycobacteria,; mycoplasma,; legionella,; chlamydia
|
|
Q541. exotoxin
|
A541. secreted from cell,; made of polypeptide,; induces high titer antibodies- antitoxins
|
|
Q542. endotoxin
|
A542. part of the cell,; made of LPS,; poorly antigenic
|
|
Q543. superantigens
|
A543. bind directly to MHC II and TCR,; activating large numbers of T cell to stimulate release of IFN-gamma and IL2
|
|
Q544. S aureus toxins
|
A544. TSST-1- TSS; enterotoxin (preformed)- food poisoning; a-toxin- hemolysis; b-toxin- sphingomyelinase; leukocidin and hemolysin; epidermolytic/exfoliative- epithelial cell lysis, SSSS
|
|
Q545. S pyogenes toxins
|
A545. streptolysin O- hemolysis; streptolysin S- hemoylsis; erythrogenic/pyrogenic toxins- skin rash and fever of scarlet fever
|
|
Q546. diphtheria toxin
|
A546. inactivates EF2,; causes pharyngitis and pseudomembrane colitis
|
|
Q547. vibrio toxin
|
A547. stimualates adenylyl cyclase;; increases pumping of Cl and water into gut- voluminous rice water diarrhea
|
|
Q548. e coli toxin
|
A548. heat labile toxin stimulates adenylyl cyclase causing watery diarrhea; heat stabile toxin stimulates guanylyl cyclase
|
|
Q549. bordatella toxin
|
A549. stimulates adenylyl cyclase,; causes whopping cough;; inhibits chemokine receptor, causing lymphocytosis
|
|
Q550. perfringens toxin
|
A550. gas gangrene
|
|
Q551. tetanus toxin
|
A551. blocks release of inhibitor transmitter glycine- causes lockjaw
|
|
Q552. botulinum toxin
|
A552. blocks release of Ach,; causes anticholinergic symptoms,; CNS paralysis especially cranial nerves
|
|
Q553. anthracis toxin
|
A553. edema factor,; lethal factor,; protective antigen
|
|
Q554. shiga toxin
|
A554. like E coli O157:H7 cleaves host cell rRNA;; enhances cytokine release causing HUS
|
|
Q555. bacteria that secrete enterotoxins
|
A555. vibrio,; e coli,; staph,; salmonella,; shigella
|
|
Q556. what does C3a do
|
A556. hypotension, edema; mast cell and basophil degranulation--> histamien
|
|
Q557. what does C5a do
|
A557. neutrophil chemotaxis
|
|
Q558. H influ media
|
A558. chocolate agar with factors V and X
|
|
Q559. M TB media
|
A559. Lowenstein Jensen agar,; 2-4 weeks,; slow growing
|
|
Q560. Lactose fermenting enterics media
|
A560. MacConkey's agar
|
|
Q561. Features of MacConkeys
|
A561. bile salts and crystal violet- inhibit GP; lactose- only carbohydrate; neutral red stain (those that ferment lactose will pick it up)
|
|
Q562. congo red stains for
|
A562. amyloid; (green apply birefringence because of beta pleated sheets)
|
|
Q563. giema stains for
|
A563. borrelia,; plasmodium,; trypanosomes,; chlamydia
|
|
Q564. Ziehl-Neelson stains for
|
A564. acid fact bacteria
|
|
Q565. india ink stains for
|
A565. C neoformans
|
|
Q566. silver stains for
|
A566. fungi,; PCP,; legionella
|
|
Q567. methods for exchanging DNA cell to cell
|
A567. conjugation,; transduction,; transformation
|
|
Q568. method for plasmid transfer
|
A568. conjugation by f-pillus
|
|
Q569. obligate aerobes
|
A569. nocardia,; pseudomonas,; myco TB,; bacillus; "nagging pests must breathe"
|
|
Q570. m TB likes...
|
A570. apices of the lung which have the highest PO2
|
|
Q571. obligate anaerobes
|
A571. clostridium,; bacteriodes,; actinomyces; cannot use aminoglycosides against them; lack catalase/superoxide dismutase
|
|
Q572. obligate IC bugs
|
A572. rickettsia, chlamydia; cannot make their own ATP
|
|
Q573. encapsulated bacteria
|
A573. strep pneumo,; H influ,; neisseria mening,; kleb pneumo
|
|
Q574. spore formers
|
A574. bacillus anthracis,; clostridium perfringens,; c tetani,; coxiella
|
|
Q575. Conidia
|
A575. Asexual fungal spores (most spores)
|
|
Q576. Candida albicans Infxn
|
A576. Systemic or superficial fungal infection; Thrush esophagitis in ICH; Endocarditis in IV drug user; Post-Antibiotics vaginitis; Diaper rash
|
|
Q577. Candida albicans transmission?
|
A577. Inhalation of spores. No person-to-person spread.
|
|
Q578. Candida albicans treatment?
|
A578. Superficial infxn: nystatin; Systemic infxn: amphotericin B
|
|
Q579. Systemic (inhaled) mycoses - diseases (4)
|
A579. Histoplasmosis; Blastomycosis; Coccidiodomycosis; Paracoccidiomycosis
|
|
Q580. Histoplasmosis; Endemic location and pathologic features
|
A580. MS and OH river valley; Causes pneumonia; Bird/bat droppings; Intracellular (see Macs filled with yeast)
|
|
Q581. Blastomycosis; Endemic location and pathologic features
|
A581. MS river states + Central America; Inflammatory lung disease; Can disseminate to skin and bone; Granulomatous nodules; Culture on Sabouraud's agar; Broad Base Budding; "Cold=Mold"; "Heat=Yeast"
|
|
Q582. Coccidiodomycosis; Endemic location and pathologic features
|
A582. SW US, CA; "Valley fever"; Pneumonia and meningitis; Can disseminate to bone and skin; Spherules filled with endospores
|
|
Q583. Paracoccidiomycosis; Endemic location and pathologic features
|
A583. Rural Latin America; Budding yeast with "Captain's wheel" appearance
|
|
Q584. Diseases caused by dimorphic fungi (4)
|
A584. Histoplasmosis; Blastomycosis; Coccidiomycosis; Paracoccidiomycosis
|
|
Q585. Dimorphic fungi properties
|
A585. COLD=MOLD (soil); HEAT=YEAST (body temp) (except coccidiomycosis: spherule in tissue); All can cause pneumonia and disseminate; Systemic infxns can mimic TB (granuloma formation)
|
|
Q586. Treatment of Dimorphic fungi
|
A586. local: fluconazole or ketoconazole; systemic: amphotericin B
|
|
Q587. Cutaneous mycosis
|
A587. Tinea versicolor; Tinea pedis; Tinea cruris; Tinea capitis; Tinea corporis
|
|
Q588. Tinea versicolor
|
A588. Caused by Maelassezia furfur; hot, humid weather; "Spaghetti and meatball appearance"; Treat: miconazole, selenium sulfide
|
|
Q589. Tinea pedis, cruris, corporis, capitis
|
A589. Pruritic lesion with central clearing resembling a ring; Caused by dermatophytes; Mold hyphae in KOH prep are not dimorphic; Pets are reservoirs; Treat: azoles
|
|
Q590. Opportunistic fungal infxns (7)
|
A590. Candida albicans; Aspergillus fumigatus; Cryptococcus neoformans; Mucor; Rhizopus; Pneumocystis jiroveci; Sporothrix schenckii
|
|
Q591. Mucor and Rhizopus spp.
|
A591. Mucormycosis; Found in ketoacidotic diabetics and leukemic Pts; Proliferate in walls of BVs; Cause infarction and necrosis; Rhinocerebral, frontal lobe abcesses
|
|
Q592. Pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP)
|
A592. Diffuse interstitial pneumonia (PCP); Inhaled yeast. Most infxns--asymptomatic; Dx: lung biopsy or lavage, silver stain; Treat: TMP-SMX, pentamidine, dapsone; AIDS: prophylaxis at CD4 < 200
|
|
Q593. The molds
|
A593. aspergillus,; mucor/rhizopus,; cutaneous mycoses
|
|
Q594. The yeasts
|
A594. candida albicans,; crypto neoformans,; pneumocystis carinii
|
|
Q595. The dimorphic
|
A595. sporothrix,; coccidio,; histoplasmosis,; paracoccidio,; blastomycosis
|
|
Q596. Candida infections
|
A596. thrush in immunocompromised,; vulvovaginitis,; disseminated candidiasis,; chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis,; ballanitis,; esophagitis,; endocarditis,; diaper rash
|
|
Q597. What is seen in diaper rash
|
A597. irregular border with satellite lesions
|
|
Q598. Treatment for candida
|
A598. nystatin or azoles for superficial,; Amp B for systemic
|
|
Q599. Features of thrush
|
A599. will scrape,; will not swab
|
|
Q600. Aspergillus infections
|
A600. allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis,; lung cavity aspergilloma ("fungus ball"),; invasive aspergillosis
|
|
Q601. Aspergillus features
|
A601. mold with septate hyphae that branch at acute angles
|
|
Q602. C neoformans infections
|
A602. cryptococcal meningitis (HIV/AIDS),
|
|
Q603. C neoformans features
|
A603. encapsulated yeast,; found in soil, pigeon droppings; stains with India ink, urease positive; SNOWMAN
|
|
Q604. Mucor and rhizopus
|
A604. branches at wide angles,; disease mostly in ketoacidosis diabetes and leukemic patients;; can cause infarction, rhinocerebral or frontal lobe abscesses; wide angle branching!
|
|
Q605. PCP
|
A605. causes diffuse interstital pneumonia, inhaled, mostly asymptomatic;; immunosupressed; dx by lung biospy or lavage; silver stain; tx: tmp-smx, pentamidine, dapsone; prophylaxis when CD4 < 200
|
|
Q606. coccidio
|
A606. SW US, CA;; mold "winebarrels" -arthroconidia;; sandstorms; San Joaquin Valley or desert fever
|
|
Q607. Histoplasmosis
|
A607. MS and OH river valleys,; bird or bat droppings,; intracellular tiny yeast inside macrophages
|
|
Q608. Paracoccidio
|
A608. Rural Latin America,; multiple budding yeast form
|
|
Q609. Blastomycosis
|
A609. States E of MS river, Central America; big broad-based budding yeast
|
|
Q610. Tinea infections caused by...
|
A610. microsporum,; trichophyton,; epidermophyton,; spidermophyton
|
|
Q611. infections associated with birds
|
A611. C neoformans,; H capsulatum,; C psittaci,; West Nile,; Avian influenza (H5, N1)
|
|
Q612. Amp MOA, use, toxicities
|
A612. Amp B (also nystatin) binds to ergosterol, pokes holes in the membrane; systemic infections, intrathecally; fever/chills, hypotension, nephro(affinity for cells in the GBM)/hepatotox, arrythmias, anemia, IV phlebitis
|
|
Q613. nystatin use
|
A613. too toxic for systemic,; use orally or topical
|
|
Q614. Azole MOA; uses; toxicity
|
A614. inhibit fungal steroid (ergosterol) synthesis; systemic mycoses (fluconazole for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS pts), also hypercortisolism; hormone synthesis inhibition (gynecomastia), liver dysfunction (inhibits cyt P 450), fever chills
|
|
Q615. flucytosine mechanism, uses
|
A615. inhibits DNA synthesis by conversion to fluorouracil; systemic fungal infections
|
|
Q616. capsofungin uses
|
A616. invasive aspergillosis; (inhibits cell wall synthesis)
|
|
Q617. terbinafine mechanism
|
A617. inhibits fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase,; used topically or orally
|
|
Q618. griseofulvin mechanism, use, Toxicity
|
A618. interferes with microtubule function, disrupts mitosis, deposits in keratin containing tissues; oral treatment of superficial infections, inhibits growth of dermatophytes; teratogenic, carcinogenic, confusion, headaches, increase P450 met and warfarin metabolism
|
|
Q619. Giardiasis
|
A619. Giardia lamblia; Transmitted by Cysts in water; often seen in campers/hikers; Bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling diarrhea; Diagnosis: trophozoites or cysts in stool; Tx: Metronidazole
|
|
Q620. Chagas disease
|
A620. Trypanosoma cruzi; The reduviid bug ("kissing bug") is responsible for the transmission of this organism; South America; dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus;; Dx: Blood smear; tx: Nifurtimox
|
|
Q621. African sleeping sickness
|
A621. Etiology: Trypanosoma gambiense, Trypanosoma rhodesiense; The tsetse fly is responsible for transmission; Enlarged lymph nodes, recurring fever (due to antigenic variation), somnolence, coma; dx: Blood smear; tx: Suramin, The treatment for African sleeping sickness that has penetrated the CNS is Melarsoprol
|
|
Q622. Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)
|
A622. Leishmania donovani; The sandfly transmits; spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia; dx: Macrophages containing amastigotes; tx: Sodium stibogluconate
|
|
Q623. Name the four types of malaria
|
A623. Plasmodium vivax,; Plasmodium ovale,; Plasmodium malariae,; Plasmodium falciparum
|
|
Q624. What are the common sx of malaria
|
A624. Cyclic fever,; headache,; anemia,; splenomegaly
|
|
Q625. What types of Plasmodium have dormant forms in liver (hypnozoites) and causes relapsing malaria?
|
A625. P. vivax and P. ovale
|
|
Q626. What Plasmodium cases severe malaria that can affect CNS
|
A626. P. falciparum
|
|
Q627. What is the treatment for malaria?
|
A627. Chloroquine (primaquine to prevent relapse caused by P. vivax, P. ovale),; sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine,; mefloquine,; quinine
|
|
Q628. Babesiosis
|
A628. Transmitted by Ixodes tick; fever and hemolytic anemia; Maltese cross: A classic sign of Babesiosis: a RBC has no RBC pigment and a cross shape can be seen; Tx: Quinine, clindamycin
|
|
Q629. Cryptosporidium
|
A629. -
|
|
Q630. How is Cryptosporidium? diagnosed?
|
A630. transmitted through cysts in water; Mild disease (watery diarrhea) in non-immunocompromised. Severe diarrhea in AIDS. Dx: cysts on acid-fast stain; There is no treatment for Cryptosporidium
|
|
Q631. Toxoplasma gondii
|
A631. Transmitted by cysts in meat or cat feces; crosses placenta (pregnant women should avoid cats); causes brain abscess in HIV and birth defects; pregnant women should avoid cats; dx: Serology, biopsy; tx: Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
|
|
Q632. Amebiasis
|
A632. Entamoeba histolytica; Transmitted by cysts in water; cause bloody diarrhea, liver abscess, and RUQ pain; dx: Serology and/or trophozoites or cysts in stool; RBCs in cytoplasm of entmoeba; tx: Metronidazole and iodoquinol
|
|
Q633. Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis
|
A633. Naegleria fowleri is responsible; Transmission: Swimming in freshwater lakes (enter via cribriform plates); dx: Amoebas in spinal fluid
|
|
Q634. echinococcus
|
A634. eggs in dog feces--> cysts in liver,; causes anaphylaxis if echinococcal antigens are released from cysts
|
|
Q635. schistosoma
|
A635. snail are host (freshwater),; cercariae penetrate skin of humans,; causes granulomas, fibrosis, and inflammation of spleen and liver
|
|
Q636. clonorchis
|
A636. undercooked fish,; causes inflammation of biliary tract
|
|
Q637. tx for schistosoma, clonorchis, and paragonimus
|
A637. Praziquantel
|
|
Q638. tx for taenia solium
|
A638. praziquantel,; albendazole
|
|
Q639. echinococcus tx
|
A639. albendazole
|
|
Q640. ancylostoma
|
A640. larvae penetrate skin of feet;; intestinal infection can cause anemia;; Fe deficiency
|
|
Q641. ascaris
|
A641. eggs visible in feces, intestinal infection;; in 1/3 of the world
|
|
Q642. enterobius
|
A642. food contaminated with eggs,; intestinal infection,; causes anal pruritis (most common worm in US),; scotch tape test
|
|
Q643. strongyloides
|
A643. larvae in soil penetrate the skin, intestinal infection;; life cycle similar to ascaris
|
|
Q644. tx for ancylostoma, ascaris, enterobius
|
A644. mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
|
|
Q645. tx for enterobius
|
A645. mebendazole,; PP
|
|
Q646. tx for strongyloides
|
A646. ivermectin/thiabendazole
|
|
Q647. wuchereria bancrofti
|
A647. female mosquito;; causes blockage of lymphatics (elephantiasis);; tx with diethylcarbamazine
|
|
Q648. bladder cancer in 3rd world countries
|
A648. schistosoma hematobium
|
|
Q649. hookworm
|
A649. ancylostoma
|
|
Q650. roundworm
|
A650. ascaris
|
|
Q651. trichinella
|
A651. from undercooked meat,; causes muscle inflammation and periorbital edema
|
|
Q652. tx of entamoeba, giardia, trichomonas
|
A652. metronidazole
|
|
Q653. giardia
|
A653. causes bloating,; flatulence,; foul-smelling diarrhea (campers, hikers),; from cysts in water
|
|
Q654. most common malariae
|
A654. Plasmodium vivax and falciparum
|
|
Q655. Malaria disease
|
A655. cyclic fever,; headache,; anemia,; splenomegaly
|
|
Q656. treatment of malaria
|
A656. chloroquine and primaquine (esp with PV and PO relapse),; sulfadoxine and pyrimethamine, mefloquin, quinine and doxycycline
|
|
Q657. malaria form that causes fevers and chills
|
A657. merozoite
|
|
Q658. replicating malaria
|
A658. shizont
|
|
Q659. PF gametes
|
A659. banana shaped
|
|
Q660. trichomonas
|
A660. foul smelling,; greenish discharge,; itching and burning,; sexual tramsition;; motile trophozoites on wet mount with flagella
|
|
Q661. T. cruzi
|
A661. Chagas- dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus; Frum reduviid bug
|
|
Q662. Leischmania donovanii
|
A662. visceral leishmaniasis,; infects liver and spleen;; from the sandfly but dogs are resevoir;; tx with sodium stibugluconate
|
|
Q663. most common protozoal infectoin
|
A663. giardia/trichomonas
|
|
Q664. erythrocyte ingested trophozoite
|
A664. entamoeba histolytica
|
|
Q665. malaria stage that looks like a diamond ring
|
A665. trophozoite
|
|
Q666. malaria stage that ruptures the host cell
|
A666. merozoite
|
|
Q667. malaria stage that replicated intracellularly
|
A667. shizont
|
|
Q668. malaria stage injected from anopheles mosquito
|
A668. sporozoite
|
|
Q669. Segmented Viruses
|
A669. BOAR; bunya; orthomyxo; arena; reo; can undergo reassortment causing antigenic shifts which result in pandemics!
|
|
Q670. Tzanck Test
|
A670. smear of open skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells; picks up hsv and vzv
|
|
Q671. HA vs NA
|
A671. HA attaches to host sialic acid receptors on upper rest tract; NA cleaves neuramic acid and disrupts mucin barrier exposing sialic acid binding site below
|
|
Q672. Reye's Syndrome
|
A672. severe brain/liver disease resulting from children being given asa when they have influenza or varicella
|
|
Q673. Parainfluenza Virus
|
A673. upper resp tract symptoms; can cause croup (infection of larynx) in kids
|
|
Q674. RSV
|
A674. number 1 cause of pneumonia in young kids; contains F proteins that form multinucleated giant cells (syncytial cells)
|
|
Q675. Treatment of RSV
|
A675. palivizumab
|
|
Q676. Measles
|
A676. Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis (3Cs); Koplick spots; Paint drip rash; can cause SSPE later one
|
|
Q677. Enteroviruses
|
A677. all the picorna viruses except Rhino and HAV; spread by fecal oral route
|
|
Q678. What does polio damage?
|
A678. gray matter, mainly anterior horn of spinal cord and motor nuclei of pons/medulla
|
|
Q679. HFM disease
|
A679. coxA
|
|
Q680. CoxB symptoms
|
A680. pleurodynia; myocarditis; pericarditis
|
|
Q681. Yellow Fever Symptoms
|
A681. Black vomit; high fever, jaudice; transmitted by aedes mosquito
|
|
Q682. CSF findings of viral, bacterial, and fungal/TB meningitis
|
A682. Bacteria: low glucose, high pressure, high protein, mostly PMNs; Viral: normal/high pressure, normal glucuse, normal protein, mostly lymphs; Fungal/TB: same as bacteria except mostly lymphs!
|
|
Q683. Rubella symptoms
|
A683. 3day measleas, mild; if congential, BAD, deafness, PDA, cataracts, pulmonary artery stenosis, hydrocephalus
|