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58 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is lysosomal storage disease

a. Deficient activity of lysosomal hydrolases result in accumulation of substrates within membrane bound lysosomes – ultimately leads to cell dysfunction and death
What is GM2

a. GM2 ganglioside – a component of the cell membrane
b. Catabolized within the lysosomes by hexosaminidase
c. 2 Japanese Chin dogs
What MRI findings are associated with GM2 gangliosidosis

a. White matter changes consistent with decreased myelin content
b. Hyperintensity in white matter regions compared to gray matter on T2W
c. Myelination is disrupted d/t abnormal cell metabolism
What location of tumor in the spinal cord is least common

a. Intramedullary spinal cord tumors – 15%
b. Extradural – 50%
c. Intradural/extramedullary tumors – 35%
Are primary or secondary intramedullary tumors more common

a. Primary more common – young dogs, cervical spine
b. Secondary (metastatic) – older, thoracolumbar region. 44% of these dogs’ first signs were neurologic (NOT d/t primary tumor). Common tumor types: TCC, HSA most common, other carcinoma types seen as well as pheochromocytoma.
c. Both have a poor prognosis
What signalment factors are associated with finding intracranial neoplasia in dogs

a. Increasing age
b. Increasing body weight. >15kg = higher risk of meningioma
What breeds are overrepresented for intracranial neoplasia

a. Boxer – glial neoplasm
b. Boston Terrier – glial neoplasm
c. Golden Retriever - meningioma
d. French/English Bulldog – glial neoplasm
e. Rat Terrier - meningioma
f. Min Schnauzer - meningioma
g. Decreased risk : Cocker Spaniel, Dobie
What drug was successful in treating presumed migraines in a dog in Europe

a. Topiramate
b. Modifies mitochondrial pores, inhibits voltage gated sodium channels, high voltage activated ca channels, and glutamate mediated neurotransmission
c. Enhances GABA
What areas of the brain/head can feel pain

a. Meninges, meningeal blood vessels, cerebral aa, venous sinuses, cranial nn, cervical roots
b. Brain parenchyma CANNOT feel pain
What are triggers of migraines in people

a. Primary neuronal disorder, vascular changes are secondary to primary brain excitability and sensory dysmodulation
b. Bright lights, loud noise, certain odors
c. Certain foods or delaying a meal, hormonal changes, head trauma, NO
What causes vasodilation in migraines

a. Trigeminal neurons of the trigeminovascular pathway release:
b. Calcitonin gene related peptide, Substance P, Neurokinin A
What area of the spinal cord is predisposed to chronic intervertebral disc herniation

a. Caudal cervical
b. Thoracolumbar jxn
What is the difference between Type I and Type II interventricular disc herniation

a. Type I : chronic. Extrusion of degenerate nucleus
b. Type II: assocated with nonchondrodystrophic breeds. Protrusion of the degenerating annulus
What effect does the ABCB mutation have on epileptic dogs

a. Homozygous mutant collies had lower frequency and incidence of cluster seizures
b. Epileptic collies with homozygous mutation are less likely to have drug resistant epilepsy
c. Drug resistance appears to be associated with the presence of at least 1 normal allele
What has been proposed as a marker of inflammation in CSF

a. D-Dimer
b. Indicates fibrinolytic activity
c. CRP is also useful
What neurologic diseases result in increased D Dimer and CRP concentrations

a. Steroid responsive meningitis/arteritis
b. CSF fibrinolysis is not linked to systemic fibrinolysis
Where do D Dimers comes from

a. Degradation of cross linked fibrin
b. Generated from Plasmin activity
What protein has increased expression after status epilepticus in dogs

a. Permeability glycoprotein (P-gp)
Do Australian shepherds have a familial form of epilepsy

a. Affected dogs have familial clustering of IE, severe form
b. Poor seizure control and high seizure frequency in the first 6 months are associated with shorter survival times
What tumor type should be considered in dogs with intraventricular brain masses

a. Neurocytoma
b. Oligodendrogliomas
c. Ependymoma
What is the MOA of levetiracetam

a. Binds synaptic vesicle 2a protein on presynaptic terminal
b. Modulates synaptic vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release
c. Also: GABAergic, inhibit Na dependent Cl/HCO3 exchanger, modulation of K and high voltage Ca channels
d. This study failed to show any efficacy of levitracetam over placebo as an add on therapy
What infectious pathogens were identified on PCR of brain tissue in dogs with GME and NME

a. No viral causes (adeno, bunya, corona, entero, flavi, herpes, paramyxo, parecho)
b. +/- M. canis
What are possible underlying causes of GME and NME

a. Autoimmunity
b. Direct CNS infection
c. Parainfectious immune dysregulation
d. Genetic predisposition
Are MRI guided mini brain biopsies a feasible option for dogs with encephalitis

a. 82% diagnostic yield, no deaths were caused by the rocedure.
b. SE: stupor, seizures, tetraparesis, hemiparesis, ataxia, loss of CP, resolved in 3-14 days
c. Advantages outweight the potential side effects.
Levetiracetam was an effective safe medication for status epilepticus

a. Xx
MR is a sensitive and specific modality of overall detection of inflammatory, neoplastic brain dz. This specificity decreases when trying to determine neoplastic vs. inflammatory dz. Does clinical history aid in this specificity

a. No – initial MR readings should be done blinded. Additional information
b. Histopath is needed to determine a final diagnosis
What disorder of border terriers has been identified in a group of terrier puppies

a. Disorder of myelin in CNS white matter (brain and spinal cord)
b. Combination of spongy degeneration and decreased myelination
c. Spongiform Leukoencephalomyeopathy
What are typical clinical findings in dogs with congenital hypomyelinating diseases

a. Whole body tremors that are noticebale from birth, or during the first few weeks of life
How does acute polyradiculoneuritis present

a. Analogous to Guillain Barre Syndrome
b. Acute ascending tetraparesis of varying severity
c. Dysphonia
d. Facial n weakness
e. Respiratory compromise
f. Many dogs have a history of raccoon contact 7-14 d before c/s – “coonhound paralysis”
What infectious agents have been associated with acute polyradicuoneuritis in dogs

a. Toxoplasma gondii (pos IgG Ab)
What is Bandera’s neonatal ataxia

a. AR cerebellar ataxia in Coton de Tulear dogs
b. Usually no progression or remission
c. Pups unable to walk, can scoot until they fall lateral into decerebellate posturing
What gene is responsible for this condition

a. GRM1 gene with a retrotransposon inserted into exon 8
Leviteracetam administered for 24 hours preoperatively significantly decreased the risk of postop seizures and death in dogs with PSS

a. 2 weeks of KBr does NOT reduce postop seizures
What are the hallmarks of Hungarian vizsla polymyositis

a. Pharyngeal dysphagia and masticatory muscle atrophy
b. Immunosuppression – favorable prognosis
What CSF abnormalities are associated with severity of spinal cord damage in IVDD dogs

a. CSF Pleocytosis (>5cells/uL) , neutrophils most commonly
b. % of macrophages can be used as a prognostic prediction to regain ambulation (higher % = not likely to regain ambulation)
Petit Griffon Veneen dogs – increased risk of epileptsy, early onset. Focal seizures +/- generalization

a. Prevalence 9%, clustering within litters, genetic omponent suspected
What is a potential infectious cause of segmental myeilitis in cats

a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Also – Sarcocystic can cause protozoal encephalitis
Malinois puppies suffer from hereditary spongioform degeneration. Predominates in cerebrellum. Unfavorable prognosis

Transient evoked optoacoustic emissions (TEOAE) is comparable to BAER for hearing tests in puppies

a. Sensitivity 100%, Specificity 78%
In a novel movement disorder diagnosed in male labs, what are the associated histopathologic lesions

a. Decreased neuronal counts in the spinal cord Rexed’s lamina VII (but not VIII, IX)
b. X linked inheritance is likely
What are the clinical signs of this movement disorder in labs

a. Hypertonicity syndrome – altered output from basal nuclei and reticular formation with motor neuron disinhibition. Caused by a decrease number of spinal cord interneurons.
What mode of inheritance is polyneuropathy in Leonberger dogs

a. X-lined transmission
b. Age of onset and severity of signs likely determined by contributing loci
Golden Retriever with multisystem cranial polyneuritis and ganglionitis. Also, dysfuction of the autonomic nervous system (mydriasis OD)

a. Xx
Bengal cats – recurrent demyelination and remyelination polyneuropathy

a. Nerves were surrounded by supernumerary Schwann cells – indicative of repeated cycles of deymylination and remyelination
b. Recovery is common
What is the progression of disease in Scottish terriers with hereditary cerebellar degeneration

a. Gait abnormalities first year of life, progressed slowly.
b. Wide based stance, dysmetria, intention tremor, difficulty with stairs and running
What are the histopathologic features of hereditary cerebellar degeneration

a. Segmental loss of Purkinje neurons, thinning of layers, polygucosan bodies
b. AR mode of inheritance
What are polyglucosan bodies

a. Accumulations of abnormal insoluble glycogen
b. Don’t know if these are a primary or secondary event in Scottish terriers
c. Part of the normal aging process, but found in much higher numbers/density in Scottish terriers with cerebellar degeneration
What protein in CSF is associated with active demyelination

a. Myelin Basic Protein (MBP)
b. Correlates with outcome in various neurological dz
How does Myelin Basic Protein correlate with thoracolumbar intervertebral disc herniation

a. Higher MBP – non ambulatory at follow up
b. >3ng/mL Sensitivity 78% Specificity 76% to predict an unsuccessful outcome
Encephalomyelitis in a cat with Listeria moncytogenes and FeLV

a. Xx
CNS Blastomycosis in dogs – what are typical presenting signs

a. Rare to find JUST neurologic signs. Blasto is typically in other body systems (respiratory, skin)
b. Increased total Calcium (d/t granulomatous disease)
What is the most common serologic test for Blatomycosis

a. Agar gel immunodiffusion against the A-antigen of B. dermatitidis, poor sensitivity (41%)
b. Urine EIA test for B. dermatitidis galactomannan antigen (sensitivity 94%)
What do blasto lesions look like on MRI

a. Hypointense or isointense on T1 images, Hyperintense on T2
b. Spinal cord lesions had an area of central hypointensity – may occur because of macrophage contents of hemosiderin and dense population of organisms.
How does CNS Cyrptococcosis differ between cats and dogs

a. Milder inflammatory response in cats than dogs
b. May relate to the infecting spp.
c. Survival of animals >4 days after diagnosis may indicate long term survival is possible
What is paroxysmal dyskensia

a. Episodes of abnormal involuntary movement or muscle tone
b. Distinguished from seizures by character of the episode and lack of EEG seizure activity
What are the signs of Chinooks with paroxysmal dyskinesia

a. Inability to stand or ambulate, Head tremors
b. Involuntary flexion of one or more limbs without autonomic signs or loss of consciousness
c. AR
What is GM2 gangliosidosis

a. Lysosomal storage disorder, deficiency in HexA and Hex B (should hydrolyze GM2)
What MRI findings are associated with GM2 gangliosidosis in Toy poodles

a. T2 hyperintensity of subcortical white matter in cerebrum
b. Swollen neurons are pale to eosinophilic
c. GM2 gangliosides accumulate in the brain, Hex A and Hex B are deficient in the brain and liver