Ammunition, Magazines, And Missile Handling

Front 1

What term describes the type of ammunition
assembly that consists of two pieces rammed
together as a single unit?
1. Fixed
2. Separated
3. Separate-loading
4. Bagged

Back 1

2. Separated

Front 2

What ammunition assembly classification in-
cludes small-arms ammunition?
1. Fixed
2. Separated
3. Separate-loading
4. Containerized

Back 2

1. Fixed

Front 3

What term describes ammunition designed for
use in combat?
1. Combat-load
2. Service
3. Target
4. Drill

Back 3

2. Service

Front 4

What type of ammunition is NOT designed to
be fired from a gun?
1. Combat-load
2. Service
3. Target
4. Drill

Back 4

4. Drill

Front 5

Fragmentation projectiles are normally con-
structed in what manner?
1. With thick walls and a large-explosive
cavity
2. With thin walls and a large-explosive
cavity
3. With thick walls and a small-explosive
cavity
4. With thin walls and a small-explosive
cavity

Back 5

2. With thin walls and a large-explosive
cavity

Front 6

What term describes the machined surface of
a gun projectile that acts to stabilize the pro-
jectile as it passes through the gun bore?
1. Ogive
2. Stabilizer bearing
3. Bourrelet
4. Body

Back 6

3. Bourrelet

Front 7

What is the function of a cannelure on a gun
projectile?
1. To provide an aerodynamic shape to the
projectile
2. To provide a rear bearing surface to sta-
bilize the round in the gun bore
3. To allow for the insertion of a base fuze
4. To collect copper wiped from the rotating
band

Back 7

4. To collect copper wiped from the rotating
band

Front 8

What component of a gun projectile acts as a
seal preventing the escape of propellant gases?
1. Ogive
2. Stabilizer bearing
3. Rotating band
4. Bourrelet

Back 8

3. Rotating band

Front 9

What type of projectile is fitted with a base
fuze only?
1. AAC
2. HE-CVT
3. HE-MT/PD
4. AP

Back 9

4. AP

Front 10

What type of projectile is designed to penetrate
one third of their caliber of armor?
1. AP
2. COM
3. HC
4. HE-PD

Back 10

2. COM

Front 11

What term describes the fuze safety feature
that requires a projectile to be fired and clear of
the muzzle before its fuze arms?
1. Dead time
2. Frictional arming
3. Fuze quick
4. Boresafe

Back 11

4. Boresafe

Front 12

Which of the following best describes the term
“dead time”?
1. The time of flight of a projectile fuzed with
a proximity fuze
2. The time elapsed between the setting of a
projectile fuze and the moment the pro-
jectile is fired
3. The time elapsed between the time when a
projectile is fired and the moment the fuze
arms
4. The delay built into the fuze of an
armor-piercing projectile that allows it
time to penetrate the target before detonat-
ing the projectile

Back 12

2. The time elapsed between the setting of a
projectile fuze and the moment the pro-
jectile is fired

Front 13

What type of projectile is painted olive drab
with a yellow band around the ogive?
1. Countermeasures
2. HE
3. Illumination
4. Smoke

Back 13

2. HE

Front 14

In the new lot numbering system, what infor-
mation directly follows the manufacturer’s ID
symbol?
1. The year and month of manufacture
2. The lot sequence number
3. The lot suffix and alpha number
4. The lot intermix number

Back 14

1. The year and month of manufacture

Front 15

What year was the new lot numbering system
implemented?
1. 1975
2. 1976
3. 1977
4. 1978

Back 15

4. 1978

Front 16

What projectile has light green body color
coding?
1. WP
2. HE-PD
3. ILLUM
4. AP

Back 16

1. WP

Front 17

What level of ammunition inventory accuracy
is required by the CNO?
1. 100 percent
2. 99.5 percent
3. 97.5 percent
4. 95 percent

Back 17

2. 99.5 percent

Front 18

What responsibility, if any, does a GM3 have in
maintaining an accurate ammunition ledger?
1. To make sure that ammunition items ex-
pended are identified and quantities
reported
2. To make sure that ammunition items are
accurately stenciled
3. To make sure that ammunition items are
properly stored
4. None

Back 18

4. None

Front 19

How many MSRCs would be required to
record 1,000 rounds of .45-caliber ammuni-
tion, NALC/DODIC A475, consisting of three
lots, if 400 rounds are condition code A and
600 rounds are condition code B?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 10

Back 19

3. 3

Hint 19

Master Stock Record Card

Front 20

The maintenance due date of a missile is
recorded in what location on an ammunition
ledger?
1. On the MSRP
2. On the lot/location card
3. On the serial/location card
4. On maintenance due date record card

Back 20

3. On the serial/location card

Front 21

What chapter of SPCCINST 8010.12 provides
detailed instructions on the makeup and main-
tenance of the ammunition ledger?
1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 14

Back 21

3. 12

Front 22

Which of the following transactions is NOT
recorded on a lot/location card?
1. Ammunition ordered
2. All transactions of that lot
3. A change in condition code
4. Ammunition of that lot which was trans-
ferred to another command

Back 22

1. Ammunition ordered

Front 23

Which of the following events does NOT
require the submission of an ammunition
transaction report?
1. The expending of small-arms ammunition
2. A change of ammunition condition code
3. A receipt of ammunition
4. A change in ammunition storage

Back 23

4. A change in ammunition storag

Front 24

The ATR file is kept in what location?
1. In a file separate from the ledger
2. In the commanding officer’s safe
3. In a file with the ledger’
4. With the requisition file

Back 24

3. In a file with the ledger’

Front 25

What document lists the types and quantities of
ammunition that are authorized for issue to a
particular ship?
1. Initial issue allowance list
2. Ship-fill allowance list
3. Training allowance list
4. The CAlMS manual

Back 25

4. The CAlMS manual

Front 26

What format is used for ordering ammunition?
1. MILSTRIP in a Navy speed letter
2. MILSTRIP in a naval message
3. ATR in a Navy speed letter
4. ATR in a naval message

Back 26

2. MILSTRIP in a naval message

Front 27

What chapter of the CAlMS manual describes
the preparation of an ammunition requisition?
1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 14

Back 27

1. 8

Front 28

What is the purpose of a gas check seal?
1. To seal the gun bore to prevent the escape
of propellant gases
2. To focus the force of propellant gases
3. To prevent propellant gases from penetrat-
ing into the explosive cavity of a projectile
4. To hold the base fuzes in place

Back 28

3. To prevent propellant gases from penetrat-
ing into the explosive cavity of a projectile

Front 29

What type of projectile is fitted with a gas
check seal?
1. Those with a solid base
2. Those with a base plug only
3. Those with a base fuze only
4. Those with either a base plug or base fuze

Back 29

4. Those with either a base plug or base fuze

Front 30

What publication contains the complete de-
scription of how to inspect projectile gas check
seals?
1. NAVSEA OP-4
2. NAVSEA OP-S
3. NAVSEA SW030-AA-MMO-010
4. NAVSEA 59522-AA-HBK-0l0

Back 30

3. Navy Gun Ammunition, NAVSEA
SW030-AA-MMO-010.

Front 31

What type of magazine is located in the im-
mediate vicinity of the weapon it serves?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Ready-service magazine
4. Ready-service stowage

Back 31

4. Ready-service stowage

Front 32

What type of magazine is designed to hold a
ship’s entire peacetime allowance of ammuni-
tion?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Ready-service magazine
4. Ready-service stowage

Back 32

1. Primary

Front 33

What type of magazine provides permanent
stowage of ammunition convenient to the
weapon that it serves?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Ready-service magazine
4. Ready-service stowage

Back 33

3. Ready-service magazine

Front 34

Which of the following publications provides
specific information concerning shipboard am-
munition stowage requirements?
1. NAVSEA OP-4
2. NAVSEA OP-S
3. NAVSEA 5W030-AA-MMO-0l0
4. NAVSEA 59522-AA-HBK-0l0

Back 34

1. NAVSEA OP-4

Front 35

Who is the custodian of all magazine keys
aboard ship?
1. The duty GM
2 The weapons officer
3. The executive officer
4. The commanding officer

Back 35

4. The commanding officer

Front 36

What is considered the controlled area on a
ship armed with nuclear weapons?
1. The space where the weapons are stored
only
2. The space where the weapons are stored
and all immediately adjoining spaces only
3. The space where the weapons are stored
and all spaces within 50 feet only
4. The entire ship

Back 36

4. The entire ship

Front 37

What is the primary source of magazine in-
spection criterion?
1. NAVSEA OP-4
2. NAVSEA OP-S
3. OPNAV Instructions
4. MRCs

Back 37

1. NAVSEA OP-4

Front 38

What is the main purpose of the daily magazine
inspection?
1. To check material condition
2. To check and record temperatures
3. To check for gear adrift
4. To check smokeless powder samples

Back 38

2. To check and record temperatures

Front 39

Magazine inspection MRCs contain the same
criteria as is used by what inspection team?
1. ESI
2. ESO
3. PSI
4. SMI

Back 39

1. ESI explosive safety inspection

Front 40

On the daily magazine temperature report,
magazines are stated to be in satisfactory
condition if they meet what requirements?
1. NAVSEA
2. PQS
3. MRC
4. Safety

Back 40

3. MRC

Front 41

What is the purpose of the exhaust ventilator
pipe and check valve in shipboard magazines?
1. To allow air to flow out of the magazine
2. To vent pressure when the space is flooded
by the sprinkler system
3. To allow the space to be flooded in case of
fire
4. To limit the maximum water level in the
space if it is flooded

Back 41

2. To vent pressure when the space is flooded
by the sprinkler system

Front 42

What type of magazine sprinkler system is
normally used in gun ammunition magazines?
1. Dry type
2. Wet type
3. Solenoid
4. Hydraulic jacking cylinder

Back 42

1. Dry type

Front 43

With what minimum firemain pressure are
sprinkler control valves designed to operate?
1. 40 psi
2. 50 psi
3. 70 psi
4. 100 psi

Back 43

1. 40 psi

Front 44

What type of pressure holds a class 2 valve
closed?
1. Spring pressure only
2. Firemain pressure only
3. A mechanical linkage
4. Both spring and firemain pressure

Back 44

Both spring and firemain pressure

Front 45

What factor allows firemain operating pressure
to overcome firemain pressure acting on the
valve disk?
1. The increased pressure produced by the
multiplier valve
2. The pressure on the valve disk is removed
at actuation
3. The area of the valve disk is larger than that
of the lower diaphragm washer
4. The area of the lower diaphragm washer is
larger than that of the valve disk

Back 45

The area of the lower diaphragm washer is
larger than that of the valve disk

Front 46

What sprinkler system valve allows the system
to be secured from a station other than the one
from which it was activated?
1. Manual control valve
2. Hydraulically operated remote control
valve
3. Spring-loaded lift check valve
4. Hydraulically operated check valve

Back 46

Hydraulically operated remote control
valve

Front 47

What sprinkler system valve permits a main
sprinkler valve to close rapidly and com-
pletely?
1. Power-operated check valve
2. Hydraulically operated remote control
valve
3. Spring-loaded lift check valve
4. Hydraulically operated check valve

Back 47

Hydraulically operated check valve

Front 48

What sprinkler valve releases operating pres-
sure from a main sprinkling valve?
1. Power-operated check valve
2. Hydraulically operated remote control
valve
3. Spring-loaded lift check valve
4. Hydraulically operated check valve

Back 48

Hydraulically operated remote control
valve

Front 49

What sprinkler system component prevents a
buildup of pressure in the control piping
because of valve leakage?
1. Hydraulically operated check valve
2. Orifices
3. Pressure vent check valves
4. Drain lines

Back 49

2. Orifices

Front 50

Heat-sensing devices are designed to create
pressure in response to what condition(s)?
1. Fire only
2. Rapid rise in temperature only
3. Fire and a rapid rise in temperature
4. A slow or rapid rise in temperature

Back 50

4. A slow or rapid rise in temperature

Front 51

At what temperature is the fusible link of an
HSD designed to part?
1. 155°F (±3°)
2. 160°F (±3°)
3. 165°F (±3°)
4. 175°F (±3°)

Back 51

2. 160°F (±3°)

Front 52

What force or condition activates the PRP
valve?
1. A vacuum pressure
2. A differential pressure
3. Heat
4. Barometric pressure

Back 52

2. A differential pressure

Front 53

What is the purpose of the compensating vent
on the PRP valve?
1. To equalize the system after it has been
activated
2. To compensate for fluctuations in baro-
metric pressure
3. To allow the PRP valve to be adjusted for
different temperature ranges
4. To vent slight pressures caused by normal
temperature changes

Back 53

3. To allow the PRP valve to be adjusted for
different temperature ranges

Front 54

How much pressure is required to trip the PRP
valve?
1. 8 oz
2. 8 lb
3. 5 oz
4. 5 lb

Back 54

1. 8 oz

Front 55

What magazine alarm indicates water in the
dry side of the sprinkler system piping?
1. F
2. FD
3. FH
4. WT

Back 55

3. FH

Front 56

An MHE operator’s license is valid for what
maximum period of time?
1. l yr
2. 18 mo
3. 2 yr
4. Indefinite

Back 56

1. l yr

Front 57

What is the standard type of forklift truck used
aboard ship?
1. EX
2. EB
3. EE
4. DS

Back 57

3. EE

Front 58

What is the difference between a Mk 85 and a
Mk 100 pallet sling?
1. Weight capacity
2. Size
3. The Mk 85 is used for helo transfer only
4. The Mk 85 is used for pallets of powder
charges; the Mk 100 is used for pallets of
projectiles

Back 58

2. Size

Front 59

What requirement must be ever present and
maintained to validate a Qual/Cert program
certification?
1. Record of the commanding officer’s signa-
ture
2. Documented training
3. 3-M maintenance records
4. The certification record of the board chair-
man

Back 59

2. Documented training

Front 60

What is/are the Qual/Cert program, require-
ment(s) for ammunition handling working
party personnel?
1. Complete certification
2. Partial certification
3. Training, temporary certification, and con-
stant supervision by certified personnel
4. Training, a safety brief, and constant su-
pervision by certified personnel

Back 60

4. Training, a safety brief, and constant su-
pervision by certified personnel

Front 61

Which of the following traits is usually found
in people who routinely engage in ordnance
handling?
1. A closer observance of safety precautions
2. A neglect for safety precautions
3. A deeper understanding of safety pre-
cautions
4. An instinctive safe behavior

Back 61

2. A neglect for safety precautions

Front 62

What is the major cause of damage to a missile
during handling?
1. Untrained crane operators
2. Carelessness and poor handling practices
3. Unapproved containers or canisters
4. Uncertified handling personnel

Back 62

2. Carelessness and poor handling practices

Front 63

How are missile canisters and containers
identified?
1. Serial number
2. Mark and mod number
3. Size
4. Shape

Back 63

2. Mark and mod number

Front 64

In what condition are guided missiles delivered
to the fleet?
1. In an all-up-round (AUR) status
2. In a disassembled status
3. In a repair status
4. In need of a configuration summary form

Back 64

In an all-up-round (AUR) status

Front 65

Although all missile inspections are equally
important, for what inspection should you be
exceptionally thorough?
1. Routine inspection
2. Off-load inspection
3. Receipt inspection
4. Daily inspection

Back 65

3. Receipt inspection

Front 66

The results of any guided missile inspection
should be logged in what document?
1. Quarter deck log
2. PMS cycle chart
3. Launcher log
4. Guided missile service record (GMSR)

Back 66

4. Guided missile service record (GMSR)

Front 67

What action must be taken to remove the
breech bolt from the M870 shotgun?
1. Drive out the breech bolt retaining pin
2. Remove the fore-end unit from the receiver
3. Remove the bolt retainer and then pull the
bolt through the ejection port
4. Remove the trigger plate assembly and pull
the bolt through the bottom of the receiver

Back 67

2. Remove the fore-end unit from the receiver

Front 68

The safety switch is in what location on the
M500 shotgun?
1. On top of the receiver
2. To the rear of the trigger guard
3. To the front of the trigger guard
4. On the bottom of the receiver

Back 68

1. On top of the receiver

Front 69

The Mk 87 Mod 1 line-throwing kit launcher is
installed on an M-14 rifle in what manner?
1. The flash suppressor is removed from the
rifle and the launcher is screwed onto the
barrel in its place
2. The launcher is clamped to the gas cylinder
of the rifle
3. The launcher is clamped around the flash
suppressor
4. The launcher is slid over the flash sup-
pressor and latched to the bayonet lug

Back 69

4. The launcher is slid over the flash sup-
pressor and latched to the bayonet lug

Front 70

What factor determines the active life of a
chemical light wand?
1. Its age
2. Its chemical composition
3. The ambient temperature
4. Barometric pressure

Back 70

3. The ambient temperature

Front 71

What is the approximate total length of a roll of
shot line?
1. 330 ft
2. 500 ft
3. 550 ft
4. 600 ft

Back 71

3. 550 ft

tensile strength of 125lbs

Front 72

What is the maximum reliable range of a
line-throwing projectile fired from an M-14
rifle?
1. 80 yd
2. 90 yd
3. 95 yd
4. 100 yd

Back 72

2. 90 yd

85 for M16

Front 73

What is the maximum effective range of the
M2 BMG?
1. 2,000 yd
2. 4,000 yd
3. 5,000 yd
4. 7,400 yd

Back 73

1. 2,000 yd

Front 74

The M2 BMG uses what type of operation?
1. Blowback-operated
2. Gas-operated
3. Recoil-operated
4. Spring and cam operated

Back 74

3. Recoil-operated

Front 75

Which of the following terms defines the
distance between the face of the bolt and the
base of a cartridge case fully seated in the
chamber of an M2 BMG?
1. Bolt gap
2. Feed space
3. Head space
4. Timing space

Back 75

3. Head space

Front 76

When firing the M2 BMG, what factor deter-
mines automatic or semiautomatic mode of
operation?
1. The position of the firing selector switch
2. The position of the safety switch
3. The position of the bolt latch release lock
4. The set of triggers the operator uses

Back 76

1. The position of the firing selector switch

Front 77

After the operator of the M2 BMG releases the
trigger, what emergency action must be taken if
firing continues?
1. Keep the weapon on target and allow it to
expend all ammunition
2. Open the feeder cover and remove the am-
munition belt
3. Break off the ammunition belt
4. Twist the ammunition belt

Back 77

4. Twist the ammunition belt

Front 78

Excessive oiling of the M2 BMG should be
avoided for what reason?
1. It is wasteful and unnecessary
2. When fired, the oil may splatter on the
operator, possibly getting in his eyes
3. It is a fire hazard during sustained firing
4. It can solidify causing sluggish operation

Back 78

4. It can solidify causing sluggish operation

Front 79

What is the maximum effective range of the
M-60 machine gun?
1. 1,100 yd
2. 1,200 yd
3. 1,000 m
4. 1,200 m

Back 79

1. 1,100 yd

Front 80

When firing at a target 500 yards away, what
total number of clicks of the windage knob on
an M-60 machine gun will correct for a 5-yard
discrepancy?
1. 5
2. 8
3. 10
4. 20

Back 80

1. 5

Hint 80

1 mil equals 1 inch at 1,000 inches, 1 yard at 1,000 yards, 1 meter at 1,000 meters, and so on.