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52 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
What occurrence normally accompanies the
rapid release of energy produced by an ex- plosive chemical reaction? 1. A fireball only 2. A fireball and a rapid rise in temperature 3. A rapid rise in pressure and a sonic blast 4. A rapid rise in temperature and pressure |
4. A rapid rise in temperature and pressure
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What factor causes the rapid release of energy
experienced during an explosive chemical reaction? 1. The explosive material changing into a gas 2. The increase in temperature caused by the expanding fireball 3. The restraining property of the explosive container 4. The huge vacuum created by the explosion |
1. The explosive material changing into a gas
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An explosive compound that decomposes ex-
tremely fast is categorized as what type of material? 1. As a propellant 2. As a low explosive 3. As a high explosive 4. As TNT |
3. As a high explosive
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What term describes the instantaneous decom-
position of an explosive material? 1. Defamation 2. Deflagration 3. Detonation 4. Disruption |
3. Detonation
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What feature of a low-explosive decomposi-
tion allows it to function as a propellant? 1. The heat produced 2. The gases produced 3. The force of detonation 4. The force of disruption |
4. The force of disruption
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What characteristic of an explosive reaction
represents its potential for doing work? 1. The heat produced 2. The velocity of the reaction 3. The pressure developed 4. The time of the reaction |
1. The heat produced
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What term defines a measurement of the shat-
tering ability of an explosive? 1. Brisance 2. Deflagration 3. Detonation 4. Explosiveness |
1. Brisance
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What term defines a measure of the energy
necessary to initiate an explosive? 1. Ignition temperature 2. Sensitivity 3. Stability 4. velocity |
2. Sensitivity
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What conditions determine the behavior of an
explosive material when it is heated? 1. The manner of confinement and its sensi- tivity 2. Sensitivity and stability 3. Rate and manner of heating and manner of confinement 4. Sensitivity and rate and manner of heating |
3. Rate and manner of heating and manner of
confinement |
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What type of explosive material has its chem-
ical reaction time measured in feet per second? 1. High explosive 2. Low explosive 3. Primer 4. Propellant |
1. High explosive
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What is the most common method of initiating
low explosives? 1. Heat 2. Influence 3. Shock 4. Sympathetic |
1. Heat
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What method of initiation explodes a
small-explosive charge in contact with a larger, less sensitive explosive to cause its initiation? 1. Heat 2. Influence 3. Shock 4. Sympathetic |
3. Shock
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What method of explosive initiation uses a
percussion initiator? 1. Heat 2. Influence 3. Shock 4. Sympathetic |
1. Heat
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What term describes the chain reaction that
leads to the detonation of the main buster charge of a gun projectile? 1. Sympathetic explosion 2. Booster train 3. Explosive train 4. Progressive explosion |
3. Explosive train
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What device is used to increase the shock of
initiating explosives to the level necessary to explode the main charge? 1. A focal cone 2. A lead styphnate igniter 3. An extension tube 4. A booster |
4. A booster
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What is the function of an intermediate charge?
1. To function between the booster and the main charge 2. To detonate the booster 3. To amplify the effect of the booster 4. To cause a time delay in the chain reaction |
3. To amplify the effect of the booster
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What type of explosive is used in the igniter of
a gun-propelling charge? 1. Black powder 2. Intermediate 3. Nitrocellulose 4. Primer |
4. Primer
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What term defines the device used to initiate a
high-explosive bursting charge? 1. Booster 2. Detonator 3. Extension tube 4. Primer |
2. Detonator
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Primers are classified in what manner?
1. By the explosives they contain 2. By the time they take to function 3. By the method of initiation 4. By the length of the primer tube |
3. By the method of initiation
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What is the common ingredient in single-,
double-, and triple-based propellants? 1. Lead styphnate 2. Nitrocellulose 3. Nitroglycerine 4. Nitroguanidine |
2. Nitrocellulose
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The propellant grains in a 5/54 propelling
charge are in which of the following forms? 1. Cylindrical with one perforation 2. Cylindrical with seven perforations 3. Ball 4. Flake |
2. Cylindrical with seven perforations
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Cylindrical propellant grain sizes are normally
stated in which of the following terms? 1. Burning rate 2. Diameter 3. Length 4. Web thickness |
4. Web thickness
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What term defines a propellant grain with a
surface area that increases as the grain burns? 1. Ingressive 2. Neutral 3. Progressive 4. Regressive |
3. Progressive
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What term defines the loading process where
high explosives in liquid form are poured into containers to solidify? 1. Cast-loading 2. Extrusion 3. Pour-casting 4. Press-loading |
1. Cast-loading
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What term defines explosives that easily
absorb moisture? 1. Hydro-absorbent 2. Hydro-sensitive 3. Hygroscopic 4. Water soluble |
3. Hygroscopic
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What is the oldest explosive known?
1. Black powder 2. Calloided cotton 3. Saltpeter 4. Sulfur |
1. Black powder
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What condition(s) speed(s) the deterioration of
smokeless powder? 1. Heat only 2. Moisture only 3. Heat and moisture 4. Heat and age |
3. Heat and moisture
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What propellant designation is used to identify
an SPDF type propellant mixed with potassium sulfate? 1. M-6 2. M-6+2 3. SPCF 4. SPDB |
M-6+2. plus 2% potassium sulfate
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What propellant designation identifies a non-
hygroscopic, diphenylamine-stabilized smoke- less powder? 1. SPDN 2. SPDF 3. SPDX 4. SPWF |
1. SPDN
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SP - Smokeless powder
B - Blended C - Stabilized by ethyl centralite D - Stabilized by diphenylamine F - Flashless powder G - Includes nitroglycerine and nitroguanidine N - Nonhygroscopic W - Reworked by grinding X - Water-drying process |
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What is the most common type of initiating
explosive in use today? 1. DDNP 2. Lead azide 3. Lead styphnate 4. Mercury fulminate |
2. Lead azide
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duh
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Which of the following solvents should NOT
be used to remove exudate? 1. Clean, hot water 2. An alkaline preparation 3. Acetone solvents 4. Alcohol |
2. An alkaline preparation/ will cause explosion when heated to 160f
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What is the primary explosive ingredient in
compositions A-3, B, and C? 1. HMX 2. PBX 3. RDX 4. TNT |
RDX
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What initiator activates the igniter battery of a
Mk 58 marine location marker? 1. Seawater 2. A pull tape 3. A twist key 4. A transfer fuze |
1. Seawater
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A Mk 58 marine location marker should burn
for approximately what maximum number of minutes? 1. 20 to 30 mm 2. 30 to 40 mm only 3. 40 to 60 mm only 4. 30 to 60 mm |
3. 40 to 60 mm only
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The pull ring of a Mk 6 marine location marker
activates what device or solution? 1. Quick match 2. 90-sec delay fuze 3. First candle starting mix 4. The ignition squib |
4. The ignition squib
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When conducting man-overboard drills, you
should use what marine location marker, if available? 1. Mk 58 Mod 0 2. Mk 58 Mod 1 3. Mk 6 4. Mk 2 |
3. Mk 6
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What color smoke is produced by the Mk 13
marine smoke and illumination signal? 1. Yellow 2. Red 3. Orange 4. Green |
3. Orange
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At night, what feature identifies the flame end
of a Mk 13 marine smoke and illumination signal? 1. Three beads on the plastic cap 2. A smooth plastic cap 3. A single protrusion on the plastic cap 4. A ridge cast into the signal body |
1. Three beads on the plastic cap
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The flame end of a The flame end of a Mk 13 marine smoke and
illumination signal is ignited in what manner? 1. By rubbing a scratching surface across an igniting compound 2. With a twist igniter 3. With a pull ring 4. With a saltwater battery |
3. With a pull ring
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What, if anything, should be done with a Mk 1
Navy light that gives off a vinegar smell? 1. It should be used as soon as possible 2. It should be turned in as soon as possible 3. It should be disposed of immediately 4. Nothing |
3. It should be disposed of immediately
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What total number of signals is contained in
the Mk 79 Mod 2 personnel distress kit? 1. 5 2. 7 3. 9 4. 10 |
2. 7
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What color star signal is fired from the Mk 79
Mod 0 personnel distress kit? 1. Green 2. Orange 3. Red 4. White |
3. Red
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If fired, a dented Mk 80 hand-fired signal poses
what danger, if any? 1. It may not shoot straight 2. It may hangfire 3. It may react violently 4. None |
3. It may react violently
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Ordnance handlers should be constantly aware
of which of the following characteristics of pyrotechnics? 1. Some may be activated by exposure to fresh water 2. All are highly unstable 3. All are very stable and require little care in handling 4. Some are intended to burn with intense heat |
3. All are very stable and require little care in
handling |
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Which of the following situations can cause the
accidental activation of a pyrotechnic device during handling? 1. Exposure to fresh water 2. Dents or cracks in the outer body 3. Lack of proper grounding 4. Exposure to nonorganic substances |
2. Dents or cracks in the outer body
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Moisture can have which of the following ef-
fects on pyrotechnic devices? 1. It can make them more sensitive and dan- gerous 2. It can make them less dependable 3. It can make them more difficult to ignite 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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Navy pyrotechnics are designed to withstand
which of the following minimum/maximum temperature ranges? 1. -20°F to 100°F only 2. -65°F to 100°F only 3. -65°F to 160°F only 4. -20°F to 165°F |
3. -65°F to 160°F only
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The smoke and fumes of Navy pyrotechnics
are non-toxic and cause only mild irritation to the eyes and nasal passages of personnel when exposed in any concentration. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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When handled properly, Navy ordnance is
relatively safe. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Ordnance safety regulations may be altered or
waived, but only by area commanders. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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What factor causes the majority of ordnance
safety regulations to be written? 1. Safety inspection results 2. Actual disasters 3. The CNO’s concern for safety 4. Ordnance specialists brainstorming |
2. Actual disasters
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Personnel who routinely handle explosives
must guard against what personal char- acteristic? 1. Familiarity 2. Laziness 3. Forgetfulness 4. Carelessness |
1. Familiarity
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