Itil Foundations

Front 1

1. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:
A An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
B SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language
C An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that
Service
D An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use

Back 1

D

Front 2

2. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
1 Options
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and3

Back 2

D

Front 3

3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?
A The going rate that is agreed with Customers
B Market rate
C Cost-plus
D Profitable

Back 3

B

Front 4

4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A. Verification
B. Security
C. Reliability
D. Maintainability

Back 4

A

Front 5

5. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money
B Be as high level as possible
C Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held
D Vary according to cost

Back 5

A

Front 6

6. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?
A Service Level Manager
B Capacity Manager
C Change Manager
D Financial Manager

Back 6

C

Front 7

7. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process?
A Improved user satisfaction
B Incident volume reduction
C Elimination of lost incidents
D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users

Back 7

B

Front 8

8. Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
A Change & Release Management
B Service Level Management
C IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.
D Change & Capacity Management

Back 8

A

Front 9

9. Possible problems with Change Management include:
A Lack of ownership of impacted services
B Increased visibility and communication of changes
C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change

Back 9

A

Front 10

10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
B Education and Awareness
C Review, Audit and Assurance
D Ongoing Training and Testing

Back 10

A

Front 11

11. Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB?
1 Problem Manager
2 Customer representatives
3 Change Manager
4 Senior IT technical managers
A 2 and 3 only
B All of them
C 1, 2 &4
D 1, 3 &4

Back 11

B

Front 12

12. Consider the following activities:
1 The analysis of raw data
2 The identification of trends
3 The definition of Service Management processes
4 The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool?
A 1, 2 & 4
B 2 & 3
C All of them
D None of them

Back 12

A

Front 13

13. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
A Root Cause Analysis
B Business Impact Analysis
C Service Outage Analysis
D Component Failure Impact Analysis

Back 13

B

Front 14

14. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8 hours

Back 14

C

Front 15

15. What is SOA within Availability Management?
A System Optimisation Approach
B Systematic Operational Adjustment
C Serviceability of Applications
D Service Outage Analysis

Back 15

D

Front 16

16. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable
B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure

Back 16

D

Front 17

17. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
A Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
B Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
C Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
D Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity

Back 17

D

Front 18

18. Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
A Documentation
B Software
C Purchase order
D Accommodation

Back 18

C

Front 19

19. Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
A DSL
B CMDB
C AMDB
D CDB

Back 19

B

Front 20

20. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
1 Tool selection
2 Tool specification
3 Process design
4 Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities be taken?
A 4 2 1 3
B 4 3 2 1
C 2 1 4 3
D 2 1 3 4

Back 20

B

Front 21

21. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets.
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously
improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cos

Back 21

A

Front 22

22. The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:
A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs
B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs,
negotiate service levels, agree SLAs

Back 22

D

Front 23

23. Which of the following statements is true?
A An urgent release is always a delta release
B A full release may contain package and delta releases
C package release may contain full and delta releases
D A full release may contain several delta releases

Back 23

C

Front 24

24. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
A To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum
B To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer
demands
C To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable
D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels

Back 24

D

Front 25

25. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
A Network Management
B The Service Desk
C Capacity Management
D Problem Management

Back 25

B

Front 26

26. Consider the following:
1 Incident diagnostic scripts
2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported
4 A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
A All four
B 1&2
C 3&4
D 1, 2 &3

Back 26

A

Front 27

27. Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
A Remedial Service Desk
B Virtual Service Desk
C Local Service Desk
D Central Service Desk

Back 27

A

Front 28

28. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone
C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding

Back 28

C

Front 29

29. Consider the following list:
1 Modelling
2 Risk Analysis
3 Application Sizing
4 DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
A 1 & 2
B 1 & 3
C 3 & 4
D 2 & 4

Back 29

B

Front 30

30. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
B When it is a Major Incident
C If the person reporting the incident is very senior
D Never

Back 30

D

Front 31

31. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
1 Incident Management
2 Availability Management
3 Configuration Management
4 IT Service Continuity Management
5 Change Management
A 1, 3 & 5
B 2 & 4
C 2, 3 & 5
D All of them

Back 31

D

Front 32

32. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no
reliable information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information

Back 32

C

Front 33

33. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
A The RFCs that it satisfies
B The number of updates to the OHS
C Service Level metrics
D The DSL configuration

Back 33

A

Front 34

34. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Chairing the CAB
B Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being
raised
C Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs

Back 34

A

Front 35

35. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
2 Recording Change Requests from users
3 Handling complaints and queries
A 1 Only
B 2 Only
C 1 & 3
D 1, 2 & 3

Back 35

C

Front 36

36. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs
B You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
C You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get the database loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff

Back 36

B

Front 37

37. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?
1 One Incident to one Problem
2 One Incident to many Problems
3 Many Incidents to one Problem
A 1 & 2only
B 2 & 3 only
C 1 & 3 only
D All of them

Back 37

C

Front 38

38. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?
A The number of Problems raised
B The number of Known Errors identified
C The number of Problems correctly categorised
D The number of RFCs raised

Back 38

B

Front 39

39. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Customer Service Level Requirements are established
B Changes taking place are properly coordinated
C All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
D Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls

Back 39

D

Front 40

40. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as:
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C An uplift to allocated costs
D A revenue stream

Back 40

C

Front 41

What does OGC stand for?

Back 41

the U.K. Office of Government Commerce

Front 42

What does CCTA stand for?

Back 42

Central Computer and Telecommunications Agency

Front 43

What areas do the 10 core books cover?

Back 43

Service support and service delivery

Front 44

What does itSMF stand for?

Back 44

IT Service Managment Forum

Front 45

What does ISEB stand for?

Back 45

Information Systems Examination Board

Front 46

What are the benefits of implementing ITIL processes?

Back 46

+Improved quality service provision
+Cost-justifiable service
+Services that meet business, customer, and user demands
+Integrated centralized processes
+Defined roles and responsibilities
+Learning from previous experiences
+Demonstrable performance indicators