Immunology Final

Front 1

1. Which is the best definition of “immunity”?

A. The state of having been exposed to a pathogen repeatedly
B. The state of being resistant to reinfection with a pathogen
C. When an individual has never been exposed to a pathogen
D. When the immune system is activated
E. When physical barriers are not enough to prevent infection

Back 1

B. The state of being resistant to reinfection with a pathogen

Front 2

2. What happens to a pathogen as it becomes attenuated?

A. It becomes more dangerous to the host.
B. It gets smaller.
C. It has weakened virulence.
D. At becomes older.
E. All of the above

Back 2

C. It has weakened virulence.

Front 3

3. Effectors of the humoral immune system are known as:

A. antibodies.
B. immunoglobulin.
C. complement.
D. B cells.
E. All of the above

Back 3

A. antibodies.
C. complement.

Front 4

4. Which of the following cell types are lymphocytes?

A. Macrophages
B. Mast cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Erythrocytes
E. T cells

Back 4

E. T cells

Front 5

5. Which of the following is TRUE about antigens?

A. They are always derived from pathogens.
B. They are always proteins.
C. They are recognized by T cells or B cells.
D. They must be microbial in origin.
E. They usually cause cellular damage

Back 5

C. They are recognized by T cells or B cells.

Front 6

6. Which of the following cell types is MOST commonly associated with recognizing antigens
found inside of cells?

A. Macrophages
B. B cells
C. Th cells
D. CTL
E. Antibodies

Back 6

D. CTL

Front 7

7. Which of the following classes of cell surface receptors are directly encoded in the germline?

A. TCR
B. BCR
C. PRR
D. Antibodies
E. All of the above

Back 7

C. PRR

Front 8

8. Which of the following BEST describes chemokines?

A. Membrane receptors that detect the presence of soluble messengers in the environment
B. Soluble proteins that recruit specific cells to an area
C. Chemical messengers that induce cell differentiation
D. Transcription factors that induce the expression of genes involved in cell adhesion
E. Adhesion molecules that bind to the inside of blood vessels

Back 8

B. Soluble proteins that recruit specific cells to an area

Front 9

9. Which of the following statements BEST differentiates innate and adaptive immune
responses?

A. Innate responses are stronger during the primary and less important during the secondary
response, while adaptive responses are less robust during primary responses and stronger
during secondary responses.
B. Innate responses are weaker during the primary and more robust during the secondary
response, while adaptive responses are stronger during the primary and weaker during
secondary responses.
C. Innate responses are slower and weaker than adaptive responses.
D. Adaptive responses are slower and weaker than innate responses.
E. Adaptive responses are required for effective immune responses, while innate responses
are not required.

Back 9

A. Innate responses are stronger during the primary and less important during the secondary
response, while adaptive responses are less robust during primary responses and stronger
during secondary responses.

Front 10

10. HIV disease is a/an:

A. autoimmune disease.
B. hypersensitivity disease.
C. immunodeficiency.
D. genetic disorder.
E. allergic reaction.

Back 10

C. immunodeficiency.

Front 11

11. Conditions in which the immune system attacks self-antigens are known as:

A. autoimmunity.
B. immune deficiency.
C. hypersensitivities.
D. neuroplasias.
E. None of the above

Back 11

A. autoimmunity.

Front 12

12. All blood cells in an adult human can trace their ancestry to which compartment within the
body?

A. Thymus
B. Bone marrow
C. Lymph node
D. Peyer’s patch
E. None of the above

Back 12

B. Bone marrow

Front 13

13. A pluripotent stem cell can do which of the following?

A. Differentiate into a finite number of different cell types
B. Differentiate into any type of cell found in the adult
C. Divide an infinite number of times
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Back 13

A. Differentiate into a finite number of different cell types

Front 14

14. From which of the following stem cells are NK cells derived?

A. common lymphoid progenitor (CLP)
B. common erythroid progenitor (CEP)
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Back 14

A. common lymphoid progenitor (CLP)

Front 15

15. From which of the following stem cells are platelets derived?
A. common lymphoid progenitor
B. common myeloid progenitor (CMP)
C. common erythroid progenitor
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

Back 15

B. common myeloid progenitor (CMP)

Front 16

16. From which of the following stem cells are eosinophils derived?

A. common lymphoid progenitor
B. common myeloid progenitor
C. common erythroid progenitor
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

Back 16

B. common myeloid progenitor

Front 17

17. From which of the following stem cells are monocytes derived?

A. common lymphoid progenitor
B. common myeloid progenitor
C. common erythroid progenitor
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

Back 17

B. common myeloid progenitor

Front 18

18. Which lineage of immune cells constitutes the first line of defense against an infection?

A. Lymphoid
B. Erythroid
C. Myeloid
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Back 18

C. Myeloid

Front 19

19. Which of the following is NOT descended from the common lymphoid progenitor?

A. T cells
B. NK cells
C. B cells
D. Eosinophils
E. All of the above are descended from the common lymphoid progenitor

Back 19

D. Eosinophils

Front 20

20. Which of the following granulocytes contains histamine within its granules?

A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Both B and C
E. All of the above

Back 20

D. Both B and C

Front 21

21. Which of the following descendants of the CLP act in the innate immune response?

A. T cells
B. NK cells
C. B cells
D. Plasma cells
E. All of the above

Back 21

B. NK cells

Front 22

22. Which of the following is NOT considered primary lymphoid tissue?

A. Draining lymph node
B. Thymus
C. Peyer’s patch
D. Choices A and C are not primary lymphoid tissue.
E. None of the above is primary lymphoid tissue.

Back 22

D. Choices A and C are not primary lymphoid tissue.

Front 23

23. In mammals, T-cell development occurs in the ____________, while B-cell development
occurs predominantly in the ______________.

A. thymus; bursa of Fabricius
B. bone marrow; mesenteric lymph nodes
C. bone marrow; thymus
D. thymus; bone marrow
E. None of the above

Back 23

D. thymus; bone marrow

Front 24

24. Contraction of which of the following types of muscles is responsible for propulsion of
lymph through the lymphatic system?

A. Cardiac
B. Skeletal
C. Smooth
D. Both B and C
E. None of the above

Back 24

D. Both B and C

Front 25

25. Naïve lymphocytes enter secondary lymphoid tissues via which of the following structures?

A. Afferent lymphatics
B. Efferent lymphatics
C. HEVs
D. Marginal sinus
E. None of the above

Back 25

C. HEVs

Front 26

26. Which of the following is NOT entirely a response of the innate immune system?

A. Phagocytosis by macrophages
B. Protection from infection by the skin
C. Low pH in the stomach
D. Antibody mediated complement activation
E. Microbial cell lysis by defensin

Back 26

D. Antibody mediated complement activation

Front 27

27. Which of these characteristics are adaptive?

A. Response takes several days to develop
B. Responds more quickly upon secondary exposure to pathogens
C. Pathogen receptors are extremely varied
D. Recognize broad classes of pathogens
E. A, B, and C

Back 27

E. A, B, and C

Front 28

28. Which of these characteristics are innate?

A. Found in all multicellular plants and animals
B. Receptors are encoded in the germline
C. Recognize broad classes of pathogens
D. Responds more quickly upon secondary exposure to pathogens
E. A, B, and C

Back 28

E. A, B, and C

Front 29

29. Which of the following is the CORRECT relationship? _______________ on
_____________ recognize _________________ on ____________________.

A. PRRs; macrophages; PAMPs; pathogens
B. PRRs; pathogens; PAMPs; macrophages
C. PAMPs; macrophages; PRRs; pathogens
D. PAMPs; neutrophils; PRR; pathogens
E. PRRs; macrophages; PAMPs; neutrophils

Back 29

A. PRRs; macrophages; PAMPs; pathogens

Front 30

30. Match the following toll-like receptors with their ligands.

TLR Ligands
TLR3 Flagellin
TLR4 Zymosan
TLR5 dsRNA
TLR6 CpG unmethylated dinucleotides
TLR9 LPS

A. TLR3/LPS; TLR4/CpG unmethylated dinucleotides; TLR5/dsRNA; TLR6/Zymosan;
TLR9/Flagellin
B. TLR3/dsRNA; TLR4/LPS; TLR5/Flagellin; TLR6/Zymosan; TLR9/CpG unmethylated
dinucleotides
C. TLR3/dsRNA; TLR4/LPS; TLR5/CpG unmethylated dinucleotides; TLR6/Flagellin;
TLR9/Zymosan
D. TLR3/CpG unmethylated dinucleotides; TLR4/Zymosan; TLR5/Flagellin; TLR6/LPS;
TLR9/dsRNA
E. TLR3/Zymosan; TLR4/LPS; TLR5/Flagellin; TLR6/dsRNA; TLR9/CpG unmethylated
dinucleotides

Back 30

B. TLR3/dsRNA; TLR4/LPS; TLR5/Flagellin; TLR6/Zymosan; TLR9/CpG unmethylated
dinucleotides

Front 31

31. Where would you MOST likely find a TLR that recognizes RNA?

A. On the cell surface
B. In the endosome/lysosome
C. In the nucleus
D. In the mitochondria
E. In the endoplasmic reticulum

Back 31

B. In the endosome/lysosome

Front 32

32. Which of the following adaptor proteins activate the NF-B pathway?

A. MyD88
B. IKK 
C. Calmodulin
D. IL-2 receptor
E. SOS

Back 32

A. MyD88

Front 33

33. C-reactive protein is a/an:

A. chemokine.
B. cytokine.
C. acute phase response protein.
D. surfactant.
E. cell-adhesion molecule

Back 33

C. acute phase response protein.

Front 34

34. Dendritic cells present _____________ antigens on class I MHC through a process known as
cross presentation.

A. endogenous
B. exogenous
C. bacterial
D. viral
E. complex

Back 34

B. exogenous

Front 35

35. Which of the following complement fixation pathways can be initiated by a soluble C3
convertase?
A. Alternative
B. Classical
C. Lectin
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Back 35

A. Alternative

Front 36

36. Which of the following provides serine protease activity in the classical complement
activation pathway?

A. MASP-2
B. C1r
C. C1s
D. Both B and C
E. None of the above acts in the classical pathway.

Back 36

D. Both B and C

Front 37

37. To which of the following is MBL most structurally similar?

A. C3b
B. C1q
C. Bb
D. C5b
E. None of the above

Back 37

B. C1q

Front 38

38. Which of the following refers to the complex that provides the enzymatic activity in the
alternative pathway C3 convertase?

A. C3̅b̅B̅b̅
B. C3bBb
C. C4b2a
D. C4͞b2͞a
E. None of the above

Back 38

A. C3̅b̅B̅b̅

Front 39

39. Which of the following is TRUE about the C5 convertase?

A. C5 convertase can consist of the membrane-bound components C3b2Bb.
B. C5 convertase cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b, with the b chain attached to the pathogen
surface and the a chain dissociating away to serve as a potent proinflammatory
chemotactic factor.
C. C5 convertase is an important player in the production of the MAC.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Back 39

D. All of the above

Front 40

40. Which of the following binds to surface-bound C3b during formation of the alternative C3
convertase?

A. Factor Bb
B. Factor B
C. C2a
D. C4b
E. Factor D

Back 40

B. Factor B

Front 41

41. Which of the following can be directly activated as a soluble protein in the microenvironment
surrounding a pathogenic cell?

A. C2
B. C3
C. Factor B
D. Factor D
E. C4

Back 41

A. C2

Front 42

42. Which of the following acts as a protease that is required to generate the alternative pathway
C3 convertase?

A. C2
B. C3
C. Factor B
D. Factor D
E. C4

Back 42

D. Factor D

Front 43

43. Which of the following is the first complement factor to be activated, resulting in insertion of
one of its subunits into the pathogen surface in two of the three complement fixation
pathways?

A. C2
B. C3
C. Factor B
D. Factor D
E. C4

Back 43

E. C4

Front 44

44. Which of the following, when activated itself, acts as a protease that converts soluble C3 into
C3a and C3b in the alternative pathway?

A. C2
B. C3
C. Factor B
D. Factor D
E. C4

Back 44

C. Factor B

Front 45

45. Which of the following, when activated, utilizes its “a” component instead of the “b”
component in the formation of the C3 convertase?

A. C2
B. C3
C. Factor B
D. Factor D
E. C4

Back 45

A. C2

Front 46

46. Which of the following is capable of initiating the alternative pathway of complement
fixation by directly binding to the surfaces of certain cell types?

A. DAF (CD55)
B. Properdin
C. Factor H
D. Factor I
E. MCP (CD46)

Back 46

B. Properdin

Front 47

47. The MAC consists of a multimeric complex of which of the following proteins that, by their
association, forms a pore in the surface of the attacked cell?

A. C3b
B. C5b
C. C6
D. C9
E. C4b

Back 47

D. C9

Front 48

48. How does binding of complement-opsonized microbes to CR1 facilitate clearing of the
microbe from the host?

A. Promotion of phagocytosis of opsonized microbes by leukocytes
B. Secretion of proinflammatory cytokines
C. Mediating phagocytosis of C3b-opsonized pathogen by B cells
D. All of the above occur as a result of CR1 binding of complement-opsonized microbes.
E. None of the above

Back 48

D. All of the above occur as a result of CR1 binding of complement-opsonized microbes.

Front 49

49. Which of the following is TRUE about the binding of C5b to the pathogen surface?

A. C5b binds to the pathogen surface the same way C4b and C3b do.
B. C5b requires C6 binding to stabilize it before it dissociates away.
C. C5b, when complexed to C6 and C7, is capable of forming the MAC on any cell
membrane, pathogen or host.
D. Both B and C
E. All of the above

Back 49

D. Both B and C