Immuno Comp

Front 1

A 3-year-old male child presents with a history of recurring bacterial pneumonia. A test for T-cell function gives a normal result, lymphocyte counts are normal, and a CH50 test is normal. You would expect the child to have ___________

Back 1

Patient has lack of functional B cells

Front 2

A woman exposed to rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy gave birth to an infant that was normal in appearance. Testing of the mother's and infant's serum yielded the following results:
Mother Rubella IgG 1:512
Baby Rubella IgG 1:512
Baby Rubella IgM 1:128

What can you conclude ?

Back 2

the mother was exposed and the baby has congenital rubella

Front 3

The autoantibody present in high titers in biliary cirrhosisis ____ and in chronic active hepatitis is _____.

Back 3

anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA); anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)

Front 4

Although Rh system antibodies are usually IgG, any in vivo red cell destruction caused by these antibodies is usually [intravascular/extravascular] because Rh system antibodies [do/do not bind complement]

Back 4

extravascular; do not bind complement

Front 5

The classical pathway of completment activation is described in a textbook as:
C1q + 2 C1r + 2C1s in the presence of Ca++ combine to form C1qr2s2
C1s cleaves C4 into C4a and C4b
C4b binds to the cell membrane and C2 binds to C4
C1s cleaves C2 into C2a and C2b
C2a remains with C4b to form C4b2a
C1s cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b
C3b binds to C4b2a to form C5 convertase

What is wrong with this listing?

Back 5

C1s does not cleave C3

Front 6

A polymerase chain reaction is to be performed to amplify Borrelia burgdorferi DNA in a sample. The CLS adds the DNA polymerase, ATP, GTP, CTP, and TTP to the test system and begins the cycling. When the sample is analyzed, no B. burgdorferi DNA is found. This can be explained by the fact that

Back 6

no DNA primers were added to the test system

Front 7

An HIV patient is to be tested for total T cells, CD4 cells and CD8 cells by flow cytometry. The gating tube would be prepared by staing cells with fluorescent-labelled antibodies detecting

Back 7

CD14 and CD45

Front 8

A patient serum was tested for HBsAg, anti-HBc, and anti-HBs. The tests for HBsAg and anti-HBc were negative, but the patient was repeatedly positive for anti-HBs. These results indicate that the patient is

Back 8

immune to HBV

Front 9

In an immunoassay, serum is added to a microtiter well coated with specific antibody. After incubation and washing, enzyme-labelled specific antibody is added. This procedure is a/an

Back 9

Sandwich assay

Front 10

A 32 year oild female presents with signs suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The antinuclear antibody (ANA) screen by indirect immunofluorescence shows many evenly distributed spots of fluorescence over the entire nucleus. Which antibodies are most likely to be present in the patient's serum?

Back 10

anti-Sm

Front 11

A heterophile absorption test was performed. The patient's serum reacted with horse RBCs initially and after absorption with beef erythrocytes, but not after absorption with guinea pig kidney cells.

This result is consistent with the presence of ____________

Back 11

infectious mononucleosis antibodies

Front 12

A beta-subunit RIA test for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) yields a result of 615 mIU/mL. The patient's last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago. This result is indicative of

Back 12

ectopic pregnancy

Front 13

The results of a quantitative VDRL are reprted to the physician as non-reactive. The results were recorded in the laboratory as follows:
1:1 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32
NR NR WR R R NR
The supervisor checking the day's results should

Back 13

change the report to reactive, 16 dils

Front 14

A 25 year old female suffering from systemic lupus eryhtematosus (SLE) and an ear infection is tested for syphilis suedin the RPR card test. The result is reactive; however, the patient denies any sexual activity. A repeat test 8 months later is still reactive. Her ear infection has resolved. The most likely explanation for these results is _____________

Back 14

chronic biological false positive due to SLE

Front 15

A Western blot assay to detect HIV antibodies is performed according to the established laboratory procedure. Alll controls are acceptable. The patient sample exhibits a p24 band only. The results should be reported as

Back 15

indeterminate results; repeat assay

Front 16

The choice of substrate determines which antibodies in the patient serum are detected. HEp-2 cell substrate is used to detect _______

Back 16

Antibodies to nuclear antigens

Front 17

In a typical ELISA (enyme linked immunosorbant assay) method, the steps of the procedure are

Back 17

add sample, wash, add conjugate, wash, add substrate, stop

Front 18

Immunogen

Back 18

a substance capable of inducing an immune response

Front 19

What is the difference between active and passive immunity

Back 19

In active immunity, the host is exposed to foreign immunogen as a result of infection, and the host's cells produce specific antibodies to eliminate foreign immunogen.

Passive immunity is due to antibodies not produced by host, e.g. maternal antibody crossing placenta or artificial IV-Ig

Front 20

What factors make an antigen immunogenic?

Back 20

- foreignness, i.e. "non-self"
- size (greater than 10 kD)
- Complexity (more complex = more immunogenic)
- degradability (ag must be degraded for presentation via APCs)

Front 21

define: hapten

Back 21

A molecule to small to elicit an immune response on its own, but can elicit one if combined with other molecules

Front 22

define: adjuvant

Back 22

Compound that is not immunogenic but enhances immune response (i.e. PEG)

Front 23

Multiple monomers of IgM and IgA are linked by _______

Back 23

a J chain

Front 24

IgG represents about ___% of total immunoglobulin

Back 24

75%

Front 25

IgM represents __% of total immunoglobulin

Back 25

10%

Front 26

IgA represents __% of total immunoglobulin

Back 26

15-20%

Front 27

Which antibody class is the best activator of the classical complement pathway?

Back 27

IgM

Front 28

Function of IgA

Back 28

Antigen clearance, immune regulation and blockage of pathogen attachment in mucous secretions

Front 29

The Fc portion of IgE binds _________

Back 29

surface of mast cells and basophils

Front 30

MHC II is present on the surface of monocytes/macrophages (T/F)

Back 30

True

Front 31

CD markers present on all B lymphocytes

Back 31

CD19 and CD20

Front 32

__% of circulating lymphocytes are B cells
__% of circulating lymphocytes are T cells

Back 32

20% B cells, 80% T cells

Front 33

CD markers present on all T lymphocytes

Back 33

CD2 and CD3

Front 34

Function of INF-alpha and -beta

Back 34

Antiviral proteins that inhibit viral replication and activate NK cells; produced by virally infected cells

Front 35

INF-gamma is produced mainly by _____ cells and its function is ______

Back 35

Produced by T-helper 1 cells, and it activates macrophages and NK cells. It also stimulates B cells to produce antibodies.

Front 36

Tissue necrosis factor alpha

Back 36

Produced by macrophages, lymphocytes and NK cells in response to bacteria, viruses, tumor cells, toxins and C5a. Causes apoptosis and inflammatory effects.

Front 37

IL-1

Back 37

produced by macrophages, B cells and other cell types. IL-1 activates T helper cells, increases B cell proliferation, activates vascular endothelium, causes fever and acute phase protein synthesis and induces T cells to produce lymphokines.

Front 38

IL-2

Back 38

Produced by T-helper cells, causes proliferation of activated T and B cells

Front 39

IL-3

Back 39

produced by activated T cells. IL-3 increases number of mast cells in skin, spleen and liver.

Front 40

IL-4

Back 40

Produced by activated T cells. IL-4 induces proliferation of T cells and class switching from IgM to IgG and IgE

Front 41

Define: MALT

Back 41

mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue
- found in GI tract, resp. tract and urogenital tract
- Peyer's patches are a specialized type of MALT

Front 42

Antigen-presenting cells with MHC-I present antigens to _____ cells

Back 42

CD8+ (cytotoxic) T cells

Front 43

antigen presenting cells with MHC-II present antigens to ____ cells

Back 43

CD4+ (helper) T cells

Front 44

________ is associated with ankylosing spondylitis

Back 44

HLA B-27

Front 45

PMNs move between the endothelial cells to the site of tissue damage by a process called ________

Back 45

diapedesis

Front 46

All complement components are synthesized by ______, except for ______

Back 46

The liver; C1 is synthesized by intestinal epithelial cells

Front 47

Hereditary angioedma is a condition caused by ____________

Back 47

C1 inhibitor deficiency