Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
196 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The HSO's principal means of analyzing the types of tools needed to accomplish the department's tasks are?
|
Risk management and task analysis
|
|
The health and safety officer's primary guidelines for equipment safety are found in?
|
NFPA 1500
|
|
The HSO's most important sources of information on the proper use of specific tools and equipment are?
|
Manufacturer's guidelines
|
|
NFPA 1071
|
Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician Professional Qualifications
|
|
The HSO needs to develop policies that include requirements for?
|
A) Eye and face protection
B) Hearing protection C) Respiratory protection |
|
Noise-level testing must be performed to determine the level of protection necessary based on __?__ exposure limits
|
OSHA
|
|
A hearing conservation program includes?
|
Baseline audiometric testing upon employment with the FD
|
|
This task requires the use of breathing airlines or cartridge-type respirators?
|
Spray Painting
|
|
Personnel engaged in apparatus or equipment maintenance should wear?
|
Steel-toed safety shoes
|
|
Training in the importance of safe work procedures must include?
|
A) Proper storage techniques
B) Proper tool usage C) Procedures for reporting damage to tools and equipment |
|
The preferred method of risk reduction in FD facilities is?
|
Safe engineering and building design
|
|
Recommended safety designs for facilities and equipment include?
|
Designated rooms for the maintenance of SCBA regulators
|
|
All waste should be removed from the work area __?__ and from the site at least __?__
|
Daily, weekly
|
|
Proper care and maintenance of hand tools with blades includes?
|
Replacing the tips of screwdrivers when they become damaged
|
|
Correct procedures for hand tool use include?
|
Placing a thick piece of sponge rubber over the head of shisels to protect the hand in case the hammer slips
|
|
Ground fault interrupter receptacles should be?
|
provided in existing facilities as well as in new construction
|
|
Which type of tool usually used for cleaning SCBA regulators and equipment?
|
Pneumatic
|
|
Proper care and use procedures for air-powered tools include?
|
Monitoring water condensation in the compressor
|
|
Which type of powered tool is usually used for cleaning apparatus and equipment, including fire hose and salvage covers?
|
Hydraulic
|
|
Electrically powered tools that do not have on/off switches should have?
|
Emergency stop switches
|
|
Which NFPA standard provides the design, performance, testing and certification criteria for portable power tools used at emergency incidents?
|
NFPA 1936
|
|
To protect trapped victims from flying hazards caused by power tools, __?__ are recommended
|
Salvage covers
|
|
Wood handles should be?
|
Varnished
|
|
The advantages of fiberglass tool handles include..?
|
1) Less likely to produce splinters than wood
2) More flexible than wood 3) Lighter than wood |
|
Responsibilities of the HSO?
|
1) Recommend the correct type of rope for each task
2) Develop written protocols for testing, inspection and repair of ropes 3) Ensure that all members understand the uses of the various types of ropes |
|
Once life-safety rope has been used in an emergency, it must be?
|
Removed from service, or relegated to use as utility rope
|
|
Rescue ropes, harnesses, and accessories must be inspected?
|
Annually
|
|
Utility rope should be inspected and cleaned?
|
After each use
|
|
Bags in which utility rope is stored must be marked with?
|
1) Length and diameter of the rope
2) Type of construction material 3) Intended use of the rope |
|
NFPA 155 requires that portable equipment be inspected __(1)__ and within __(2)__ after each use
|
1) Weekly
2) 24 hours |
|
How does acceptance testing occur?
|
When the department receives the equipment
|
|
An outside testing laboratory may perform annual testing of?
|
Ground Ladders
|
|
Damage to gasoline-powered equipment must be reported__?__
|
Immediately after it has occured
|
|
Self-contained breathing apparatus shall be inspected, tested and maintained in accordance with NFPA __?__ and __?__
|
NFPA 1500 and NFPA 1981
|
|
How often should SCBA's be inspected and cleaned?
|
Daily
|
|
SCBA cylinders must be retired after __?__ years of service
|
15
|
|
Oxygen cylinders used by the FD must meet the requirements of __?__
|
Title 49 CFR Part 178
|
|
The HSO should be establish procedures for dispensing flammable/combustible liquids based on __?__
|
The local fire prevention code and NFPA standards
|
|
The quantity of flammable and combustible liquids that can be stored at a particular facility is regulated by?
|
Local Fire codes
|
|
Where should a 10 gallon (38L) container of gasoline be stored?
|
UL-listed or FM-approved flammable and combustible liquids storage cabinet
|
|
Health, safety, and injury prevention information must be documented in?
|
Material Safety Data Sheets
|
|
Fire-Extinguisher requirements for flammable and combustible liquids are listed in __?__
|
NFPA 10 and NFPA 30
|
|
Along with the HSO, who is responsible for ensuring that welding and cutting operators have met the required level of training?
|
Training Branch
|
|
Fire extinguishers of the correct type for the hazard must be mounted in?
|
The work area
|
|
Ultraviolent and infrared rays from welding operations can be harmful to human __?__
|
Skin and Eyes
|
|
During emergency operations, welding and cutting operators must wear?
|
Full protective coat and trousers
|
|
The HSO should develop an internal fire prevention program based on?
|
The local fire prevention code or NFPA 101
|
|
Requirements for breathing air compressors include?
|
1) Must meet the operational and design requirements of the Compressed Air Association
2) Operating instructions must be posted near the fill station controls 3) Air cylinders must meet ASME Boilers and Pressure Vessel Code Section VIII requirements 4) Breathing air cascade cylinders must be secured to walls or floors 5) Breathing air systems must be sampled at least quarterly 6) A third-party testing laboratory must be used to test air samples |
|
OSHA regulations regarding personal protective equipment are contained in?
|
Title 29 CFR 1910.132
|
|
OSHA regulations regarding respiratory protection are contained in?
|
Title 29 CFR 1910.134
|
|
Minimum rating requirements for protective clothing are?
|
NFPA standards
|
|
FDs that have low numbers of incidents may?
(Ref: PPE service) |
Keep equipment in service longer than recommended
|
|
The HSO's mandate when selecting protective clothing is __?__
|
Select the minimum level of protection required by federal and state regulations
|
|
NFPA 1971
|
Standard on Protective Ensemble for Structural Fire Fighting
|
|
NFPA 1999
|
Standard on Protective Clothing for Emergency Medical Operations
|
|
NFPA 1982
|
Standard on Personal Alert Safety Systems (PASS)
|
|
Which type of equipment meets the minimum requirements for non emergency respiratory protection necessary in the fire service?
|
NIOSH certified dust or particle mask
|
|
Which type of equipment can provide protection for all fire service tasks?
|
SCBA
|
|
A respiratory protection policy requires?
|
1) Individual fit testing for employees
2) Air-Quality testing program 3) Procedures for regularly evaluating program effectiveness |
|
Which document(s) require a written policy covering the proper use of all respiratory protection equipment?
|
1) NFPA 1582
2) NFPA 1500 3) Title 29 CFR 1910.134 |
|
Which group may establish the selection criteria for the purchase of respiratory protection equipment?
|
Any designated body within the FD
|
|
Monthly inspections of the SCBA equipment should include checks of?
|
1) Deteriorated components
2) Gauge comparison 3) Low-air alarm |
|
Inspection/maintenance personnel must be certified by the __?__ to work on the specific type of SCBA owned by the FD.
|
Manufacturer
|
|
Who should perform the maintenance for respiratory protection equipment?
|
Certified Technicians
|
|
Respiratory protection program database that is confidential?
|
Injury reports that involve respiratory injuries
|
|
Personal protective clothing is tested and certified by?
|
A third-party testing organization
|
|
Which NFPA standard addresses structural firefighting clothing?
|
NFPA 1971
|
|
When the initial inspection of structural FF clothing reveals damaged clothing, it should be?
|
Returned to the vendor
|
|
Most manufacturers recommend keeping structural FF clothing in service no longer than?
|
Ten Years
|
|
Care includes proper storage?
(PPE care) |
Both on the apparatus and at the station
|
|
The NFPA standard on proximity clothing is?
|
NFPA 1976
|
|
Proximity clothing is appropriate for which incidents?
|
1) Aircraft Fire
2) Bulk flammable gas fire 3) Bulk flammable liquid fire |
|
Protection against liquid borne pathogens takes the form of garments, gloves, and face protection that meet the requirements of?
|
NFPA 1999
|
|
Protection against Hazardous Materials includes?
|
1) Proximity clothing if the material is involved in fire
2) Vapor Protection 3) Splash protection |
|
Which EPA level of hazmat protection consists of an air purifying respirator and chemical resistant coverall or splash suit?
|
Level C
|
|
The minimum recommended level of hazmat protection for initial site entries until the HSO defines the hazards are?
|
Level B
|
|
Personal protective clothing for wildland FFing includes?
|
Protective Shelter
(NFPA 1977) |
|
Confined space/structural collapse PPE
|
A lightweight jacket can be used to protect against abrasions
|
|
What is a satisfactory fabric for station/work uniforms?
|
Wool
|
|
NFPA 1975 requirements for the station/work uniform includes?
|
Coveralls
|
|
The longevity of garments with chemically added fire resistant properties is based on?
|
The number of washings
|
|
What class of toe protection under ANSI standard Z41 is recommended for station/work uniforms?
|
Class 75
|
|
PASS devices must be tested?
|
At least weekly and before each use
|
|
Design and testing criteria of PASS devices are found in __?__
|
NFPA 1982
|
|
A PASS device that fails to work properly should be?
|
Placed out of service immediately
|
|
Class I life safety harness must be designed to support?
|
300 LBS
|
|
Class II life safety harness must be designed to support?
|
600 LBS
|
|
Which class(es) of safety harness is (are) designed for use where inverting is possible?
|
Class III
|
|
NFPA 1500 requires eye protection to meet the requirements found in ?
|
ANSI Z87.1
|
|
Which protection component protects the respiratory system, eyes, and mucous membranes?
|
SCBA full facepiece
|
|
Which protection component provides protection for ultraviolent rays?
|
Eye protection for welding/cutting
|
|
NFPA requires that hearing protection be provided anytime the ambient noise level exceeds?
|
90 Decibels
|
|
OSHA requirements for hearing protection are specified in?
|
Title 29 CFR 1910.95
|
|
Who provides inspection requirements and inspector qualifications for life safety rope?
|
Manufacturer
|
|
Requirements for life-safety rope components are provided in?
|
NFPA 1983
|
|
Which agency regulates the type and style of personal floatation devices, rescue rings, and other flotation devices used in water rescue operations?
|
U.S. Coast Guard
|
|
Requirements for highway operations are found in?
|
NFPA 1500
|
|
What percentage of FF fatalities were vehicle/apparatus related in 1999?
|
28 %
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring that apparatus manufacturers are licensed to sell and service in the state?
|
HSO
|
|
Apparatus visibility requirements include?
|
A) Appropriate color scheme
B) Warning Lights C) Reflective trim |
|
The location of audible warning devices must provide the greatest sound coverage to the __?__ of the apparatus
|
Front
|
|
NFPA 1901
|
NFPA standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus
|
|
NFPA Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus covers?
(NFPA 1901) |
1) Pumper Fire Apparatus
2) Aerial Fire Apparatus 3) Quint Fire Apparatus |
|
NFPA 1906 covers apparatus with a maximum pumping capacity of?
|
250 GPM
|
|
Wildland fire apparatus must be able to operate at elevations of __?__ above sea level.
|
2,000 FT
|
|
Wildland fire apparatus must meet all requirements of the NFPA standard while stationary on a grade of __?__ in any direction
|
20 percent
|
|
Most laws and statutes concerning motor vehicle operation are legislated at the __?__ level
|
State or Provincial
|
|
When emergency vehicles are exempt from certain laws or statutes, the driver/operators are allowed to?
|
A) Exceed posted speed limits
B) Disobey posted regulations governing direction of movement C) Pass or overtake another vehicle at an intersection |
|
Apparatus ergonomic condition of concerns to the fire service are?
|
A) Placement of equipment in compartments
B) Engine and drivetrain access C) Height of hose bed |
|
NFPA 1911
|
NFPA Standard for Service Tests of Fire Pump Systems on Fire Apparatus
|
|
NFPA 1914
|
NFPA Standard for testing FD Aerial Devices
|
|
How often should pumpers have regularly scheduled service tests?
|
Every 12 months
|
|
Service tests for pumpers include?
|
1) Tank-to-pump flow rate tests
2) Pressure control test 3) Vacuum Test |
|
Aerial devices must undergo complete inspection and testing, including nondestructive testing, at least once every __?__
|
Five Years
|
|
Who should perform non destructive testing of aerial devices?
|
A third party testing organization
|
|
Who should maintain the FD's records documenting the inspection, maintenance, repair and service or emergency operations vehicles?
|
Personnel who actually perform maintenance and inspections
|
|
A reliable starting point for a vehicle/apparatus maintenance program is?
|
The manufacturer's guidelines
|
|
In addition to requirements specific to the fire service, apparatus inspection requirements are usually based on standards developed in?
|
The trucking industry
|
|
How often should apparatus brakes, windshield wipers, seat belts and fluid levels be inspected?
|
Daily
|
|
How many major mechanical deficiencies must be present to place an apparatus out of service?
|
One
|
|
Which NFPA standard outines qualifications for mechanics who service FD emergency vehicles?
|
1071
|
|
Examples of FD specialty vehicles include?
|
1) Ambulance
2) Canteen/Rehab unit 3) Aircraft rescue and firefighting apparatus |
|
An example of a special rescue apparatus?
|
Hazardous Materials Response Apparatus
|
|
FDs must be especially careful when converting a commercial __?__ to FD service
|
Tanker
|
|
Breathing air cylinders on air supply apparatus must meet __?__ regulations and __?__ specifications
|
DOT, ASME
|
|
The functions of a rehab unit include providing FFs a place to do what?
|
1) Rest
2) Cool Down 3) Replenish Liquids |
|
Apparatus that respond to large-scale operations involving many agencies or jurisdictions are called __?__
|
Command Units
|
|
Which agency mandates the specifications for aircraft firefighting and rescue apparatus?
|
FAA
|
|
Which type of FD vehicle usually is equipped with emergency lighting but not with warning devices?
|
Field Maintenance Vehicle
|
|
Which type of FD vehicle poses the greatest challenge for the HSO?
|
Fuel Truck
|
|
Engineering controls on apparatus and rescue vehicles are designed to aid in?
|
A) Ventilation
B) Decontamination C) Disinfecting |
|
Where should exhaust vents be located on ambulances?
|
Upper Rear
|
|
An appropriate design feature for a rescue vehicle is?
|
Surfaces of container linings and bulkheads inert to detergents, solutions and solvents
|
|
NFPA 1002
|
NFPA Standard on Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications
|
|
Under what circumstances should personnel without a CDL be allowed to operated fuel trucks?
|
Under no circumstances
|
|
Which agency offers both an eight hour defensive driving course and an educational program specifically for fire and EMS driver/operators?
|
National Safety Council
|
|
Depending on its design, a retarder may slow the apparatus by doing what?
|
A) Reducing engine speed
B) Downshifting the transmission C) Applying a magnetic brake on the drivershaft |
|
The medium for certifying or recertifying potential or current driver/operatos is provided by the __?__
|
Emergency Vehicle Operator's Course
|
|
NFPA 1003
|
NFPA Standard for Airport Firefighter Professional Qualifications
|
|
While responding to incidents, the company officer should assist the driver/operator by?
|
Anticipating and Identifying hazards
|
|
Where possible at incidents, driver/operators should position apparatus?
|
At a 45 degree angle to the curb
|
|
Functions of properly placed apparatus include?
|
1) Provide a safety barrier to protect victims
2) Provide a protected work area 3) Allow for parking of additional FD apparatus |
|
If the company receives an alarm while en route from an incident, the driver/operator should?
|
Pull off the road to allow all members to put on the protective equipment needed, then be seated and belted
|
|
If a situation requires backing an apparatus, what is the best course of action?
|
2 FFs equipped with portable radios should direct the driver/operator
|
|
FD policy regarding collisions usually calls for the DO to?
|
1) Tend to injuries
2) Fill out the appropriate incident reporting form 3) Place the company or unit back into service |
|
Operations that allow members to respond to incidents or the fire station in their own vehicles are regulated by __?__ codes and regulations.
|
State or provincial
|
|
Allowing members to respond to emergencies in personal vehicles could affect?
|
The FD's insurance rates
|
|
Who has the ultimate responsibility for safety related issues during an incident?
|
Incident Commander
|
|
Duties of the Incident Safety Officer as outlined in NFPA 1521 include?
|
1) Ensuring that incident scene rehabilitation is established
2) Suggesting safety zones 3) Evaluating hazards associated with helicopter landings |
|
The administration must?
|
Support the decisions of the incident safety officer
|
|
The incident safety officer's credibility is based on?
|
1) Knowledge of safety related issues
2) Knowledge of the incident management system 3) Willingness to enforce safety policy |
|
What are the primary goals of the Incident Management system?
|
to ensure effective service delivery and the safety of personnel.
|
|
Which major operational position within the IMS is responsible for information about the development of an incident and the status of rescources?
|
Planning
|
|
Which major operational position within the IMS is responsible for providing facilities, services, and materials for an incident?
|
Logistics
|
|
The Incident command staff includes who?
|
1) ISO
2) PIO 3) Liasion officer |
|
Which of the following units is responsible for all operations within a defined geographic area?
|
Division
|
|
Which unit is based on the type of task required?
|
Group
|
|
The methods employed in the suppression of all types of fires are?
|
Strategies and tactics
|
|
The primary hazard associated with unsupported exterior walls is that they?
|
Are prone to collapse
|
|
What is the best definition of fire loading?
|
The maximum heat that can be produced if all the combustible materials in a given area burn
|
|
When the air temperature is 85*F and the relative humidity is 60%, the apparent temperature is?
|
90*F
|
|
The heat stress danger category when the apparent temperature is 91*-105*F is?
|
Extreme Caution
|
|
Which heat stress danger category poses the likelihood of heat cramps or exhaustion and the possibility of heat stroke if exposure is prolonged and there is physical activity?
|
Danger
|
|
When the air temperature is 20*F and wind speed is 35 MPH, the wind chill temperature is?
|
-20*F
|
|
When the wind chill temperature is below -75*F, flesh may freeze in?
|
30 seconds
|
|
Which control zone at an incident serves as a forward access point and/or decon station?
|
Warm Zone
|
|
Where should the command post be located during an incident?
|
Cold Zone
|
|
In structural firefighting, the collapse zone should be __?__ the height of the structure?
|
One and one half
|
|
The fire tetrahedron is comprised of oxygen, fuel, heat and?
|
A self-sustained chemical reaction
|
|
Solid ordinary combustibles are __?__ fuels
|
Class A
|
|
The correct order for the phases of fire development is?
|
Ignition, growth, flashover, fully developed, decay
|
|
The event that occurs when the unburned products of combustion expand or flash but are not hot enough to ignite is?
|
Smoke Explosion
|
|
Which sites are high hazard occupancies?
|
A) Multilevel underground parking garage
B) Lumberyard C) School |
|
The incident safety officer can best attain the requisite knowledge of the Incident Management System through?
|
Involvment in its creation, training, review, and revision processes
|
|
The ISO's responsibilities include?
|
1) Monitoring all radio transmissions during an incident
2) Listening for signals of stress in FFs during radio transmissions 3) Working to eliminate bleed-over transmissions |
|
The ISO accomplishes a size-up by?
|
Doing a complete 360* walk around
|
|
After the ISO completes the size-up, his/her report to the IC should include?
|
1) The need for additional safety personnel
2) Solutions for mitigating safety hazards 3) Safety hazard priorities |
|
If the IC has already established the control zones around the scene, the ISO should?
|
Ensure they are in place and clearly marked
|
|
Who is directly responsible for ensuring that rapid intervention crews are in place at structural FF incidents?
|
Incident Safety Officer
|
|
If the IMS expands because of the size of the incident, the ISO coordinates the rehab section with ?
|
Logistics
|
|
Conflicts in jurisdiction over scene safety must be resolved immediately because they can?
|
Lead to unnecessary losses or injuries
|
|
Whenever possible, altering, suspending, or terminating activities should be done?
|
Through the IC
|
|
The steps taken to save lives, reduce property damage, and control the incident are?
|
Strategies
|
|
Which type of strategy focuses on the saving of human life and may result in the violation of safety procedures?
|
Marginal
|
|
To accomplish the objective of controlling an incident, the FD employs?
|
Tactics
|
|
What are examples of tactics?
|
1) Hoseline placement
2) Ventilation 3) Use of master stream devices |
|
When the ISO gives contradictory commands that lead to problems, he/she must rely on his/her __?__ to solve them?
|
Credibility and working relationship with personnel
|
|
Incident safety plans are based on?
|
The risk management model
|
|
The basic factors in emergency incident risk management include?
|
Routine evaluations and modifications
|
|
Examples of logistical support are?
|
1) Additional protective clothing
2) Auxiliary power and lighting 3) Provisions for food, drink and shelter |
|
Who becomes the ISO's sources of data at large scale operations?
|
Additional safety officers
|
|
When multiple safety officers are on scene, who is responsible for coordinating their safety planning?
|
The original ISO
|
|
The ISO must work closely with the triage officer during?
|
Mass Casualty Incidents
|
|
Specialized rescue operations include?
|
1) High-angle rescues
2) Water rescues 3) Structural collapse rescues |
|
To who should the ISO provide his/her written postincident report?
|
Health and safety officer and FD Chief
|
|
What is the best way to employ the information in the ISO's postincident report?
|
Apply a "lessons learned" model
|