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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Which strategy is typically selected when property is not salvageable? |
A. Direct |
D. Defensive |
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Which strategic transition may be necessary when the situation rapidly changes? |
A. Indirect to direct |
C. Offensive to defensive |
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Which of the following guidelines should be used when switching strategies? |
A. Turn off radios in order to maintain radio silence |
D. Maintain situational awareness to recognize changes in fire behavior |
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Hoseline selection should be based on which of the following factors? |
A. Potential fire spread |
C. Water pressure available |
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Nozzle selection is based upon which of the following factors? |
A. Size of building |
C. Available water supply |
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Who makes the decision to make entry? |
A. Safety officer |
B. Incident commander |
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Which of the following pre-entry considerations is critical to firefighter safety and effectiveness? |
A. Identifying exposures |
C. Reading fire behavior indicators |
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If a fire is ventilation controlled, what will happen if a door is opened? |
A. Fire will self-extinguish |
C. Heat release rate will significantly increase |
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In which type of fire attack is water applied directly onto burning fuels until the fire is extinguished? |
A. Gas cooling |
B. Direct attack |
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Which type of fire attack is made through a window or other opening, directing the stream toward the ceiling to cool the room? |
A. Gas cooling |
C. Indirect attack |
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Which of the following slows the transfer of heat to other combustibles and reduces the chances of overhead gases igniting? |
A. Gas cooling |
A. Gas cooling |
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In fires in the upper levels of structures, which of the following determines the method of fire attack? |
A. Available hoselines |
D. Location of the standpipe |
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How may elevators be used at fires in upper levels of structures? |
A. To transport equipment to the fire floor |
B. To transport personnel to the staging area |
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Which of the following should be used to ensure that floor assemblies over basement fires are safe for personnel to work? |
A. Thermal imager |
C. Visual inspection of floor joist |
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Which of the following may provide firefighters the BEST access to a basement fire? |
A. A window well |
A. A window well |
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Which of the following statements regarding commercial basements and subfloors is MOST accurate? |
A. They are only comprised of steel girders |
D. They may have similar construction to those in residential structures |
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Which of the following may be used as interior exposure protection? |
A. Proper use of forced ventilation |
B. Use of fire-rated walls and doors |
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Which of the following is the primary location for shutting off power? |
A. Power line |
C. Electric meter |
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Which alternative energy source will include a shutoff switch on the electric meter? |
A. Solar panels |
A. Solar panels |
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In its pure form, natural gas is: |
A. butane. |
D. methane. |
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Liquefied petroleum gas is stored: |
A. as a solid. |
C. in a liquid state under pressure. |
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The shutoff valves for water are located: |
A. underground. |
A. underground. |
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Which of the following is one of the FIRST priorities at a fire in a protected structure? |
A. Shutting a control valve |
D. Connecting to a fire department connection (FDC)
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Which of the following is used to shut down the water supply to the entire fire protection system? |
A. FDC
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B. Control valve |
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. Which type of control valve extends horizontally through the wall with a target and valve operating nut on the outside of building? |
A. Post indicator valve |
C. Wall post indicator valve |
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A master stream device should enter a structure: |
A. in a straight line. |
B. at an upward angle. |
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The deployment of a master stream device requires a minimum of: |
A. one firefighter. |
B. two firefighters. |
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Class C fires are those involving: |
A. combustible metals. |
D. energized electrical equipment. |
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If a ground cover fire starts near transmission lines: |
A. extinguish the fire immediately. |
D. wait for the fire to burn away from the point of contact. |
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At fires in electrical transformers, which type of extinguisher should be used? |
A. Water |
D. Dry chemical extinguisher |
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Firefighters and the public should stay at least ___ from underground transmission lines during a fire. |
A. 100 feet (30 m) |
C. 300 feet (91 m) |
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At fires at commercial high-voltage installations, the entry team must wear: |
A. full PPE, including SCBA. |
A. full PPE, including SCBA. |
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Which of the following is a guideline for electrical emergencies? |
A. Cut power lines upon arrival |
D. Use lockout/tagout devices when working on electrical equipment |
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If a firefighter is inside the gradient field of a grounded power line or feels a tingling in the legs, they should ___ away from the area. |
A. run |
B. hop |
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Class D fires involve: |
A. combustible metals. |
A. combustible metals. |
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How should a Class D fire be extinguished? |
A. By dousing it with water |
D. By shoveling Class D extinguishing agents onto it |
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Which of the following should be determined during vehicle incident size-up? |
A. Type of fuel |
A. Type of fuel |
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Which of the following is a guideline for vehicle fire attacks? |
A. Rescue vehicle occupants first |
D. Deploy hoseline that will provide a minimum of 95 gpm (360 L/min) |
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Which of the following should be done once the fire has been controlled? |
A. Remove air bags |
C. Disconnect the battery |
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In passenger compartment fires, what nozzle pattern should be used through a broken window? |
A. Narrow fog pattern |
B. Medium fog pattern |
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Which of the following is a visual indicator of an alternative fuel vehicle? |
A. Vehicle size |
D. Vehicle profile |
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Fuel tanks on a natural gas vehicle are often located: |
A. under the hood. |
B. in the trunk area. |
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What tactics should be used at incidents involving liquefied petroleum gas vehicles? |
A. Extinguish fire immediately |
C. Use gas detectors to determine leaks |
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What should be done if smoke is visible at an electrical vehicle incident? ( |
A. Chock wheels |
D. Wear full PPE and SCBA |
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If a vehicle using ethanol or methanol is on fire, use only ___ to extinguish. |
A. water |
D. Alcohol Resistant Class B foam |
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What should be done for a fire involving a hydrogen-fueled vehicle? |
A. Extinguish the fire immediately |
D. Protect exposures and allow fuel to burn off |
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At fires involving stacked and piled materials, fire streams should be directed at the: |
A. middle of the fire. |
B. extreme edge of the fire. |
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What fire streams are most effective at fires involving small unattached structures? |
A. Fog streams |
D. Straight streams |
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Which of the following statements regarding ground cover fires is MOST accurate? |
A. They are very slow moving. |
D. Their characteristics are very different from fires in burning buildings. |
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Which of the following is an influence on ground cover fires? |
A. Weather |
A. Weather |
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Which kind of ground cover fire is slow moving and smoldering? |
A. Crown fire |
C. Ground fire |
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Which kind of ground cover fire burns on the soil surface, consuming low-lying grass, shrubs, and other vegetation? |
A. Crown fire |
D. Surface fire |
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Which kind of fuels include grass, field crops, and downed limbs? |
A. Aerial fuels |
C. Surface fuels |
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Which of the following statements regarding burning characteristics of ground cover fires is MOST accurate? |
A. Heavy fuels burn faster than lighter fuels. |
B. Fires spread faster when fuels are close together. |
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which topography features may alter air flow and cause turbulence? |
A. Aspect |
D. Local terrain |
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Which of the following is a long narrow strip of fire extending from the main fire? |
A. Head |
D. Finger |
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Which of the following is the side of the fire opposite the head? |
A. Heel |
A. Heel |
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Which of the following is the area of unburned fuel next to the involved area? |
A. Spot |
B. Green |
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Protective clothing used for ground cover fires should meet the requirements for NFPA®: |
A. 1001. |
D. 1977. |
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Which of the following is required for firefighters participating in ground cover fire fighting? |
A. Web belt |
D. Protective footwear |
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Which method for attacking ground cover fires is action taken against flames at its edge or closely parallel to it? |
A. Direct attack |
A. Direct attack |
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Which method for attacking ground cover fires is used at varying distances from the advancing fire? |
A. Direct attack |
B. Indirect attack |
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Which of the following techniques are the MOST essential part of any ground cover operation? ( |
A. Lookouts |
D. Communications |
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Which of the following is one of the ten standard fire fighting orders? |
A. Post lookouts when there is possible danger |
A. Post lookouts when there is possible danger |
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Which nonfire hazard may be found around military training areas? |
A. Explosives |
A. Explosives |
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Which of the following BEST describes emergency incident priorities? |
A. Extinguishment, overhaul, ventilation |
C. Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation |
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A Firefighter II should use additional training to: |
A. predict victim responses to on-scene hazards. |
D. recognize and predict the effects of changes on surroundings. |
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Which of the following BEST describes open communication? |
A. It is a step taken to prepare for a blitz attack. |
B. It is not meant as an opportunity for a debate or vote. |
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Which of the following defines the actions taken by the first-arriving engine company? |
A. Chief officer |
B. Department SOPs |
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What rule can be amended if a life safety hazard to a victim that can be saved without undue risk to firefighters is present on scene? |
A. SAR rule |
C. Two-in, two-out rule |
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What fireground role is MOST likely to finish hose lays begun by the first-arriving company? |
A. Incident Commander |
D. Second-arriving engine company |
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Which of the following BEST describes what the size and quantity of hoselines can impact on-scene? |
A. The need for other resources. |
D. The need to pump hoselines from a hydrant. |
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When is simultaneous entry performed by a fireground support company? |
A. When the first-arriving company has too many personnel on-scene. |
B. When search and rescue operations must be done at the same time as fire attack. |
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Which of the following BEST describes where search patterns are started? |
A. In areas where other exposures are at risk. |
D. In the area closest to the fire if it will not put firefighters at risk of severe injury. |
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Which of the following BEST describes safety considerations during a blitz attack? |
A. Steam can assist in suppression efforts. |
C. Poorly directed streams can force teams to retreat. |
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What fireground role is defined as the one that works to locate and assist firefighters trapped during operations? |
A. Incident Commander |
C. Rapid intervention crew/team |
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What fireground role should be two or more members wearing complete PPE and respiratory protection, with the purpose of locating firefighters incapacitated during operations? |
A. Incident Commander |
C. Rapid intervention crew/team |
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Which of the following BEST describes when a chief officer may assume a role other than Incident Commander (IC) on-scene? |
A. When a fast-attack suppression operation is needed. |
D. When the original IC has made reasonable progress toward stabilization. |
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What Command approach is used when the problem is not obvious to the first-arriving unit? |
A. Formal |
D. Nothing showing |
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Which of the following BEST describes when to withdraw when using the fast-attack command approach? |
A. When formal command ends. |
D. When the incident is not stabilized, but but the establishment of an ICP outside of the hazardous area is required. |
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What BEST describes the preferred method of transferring Command? |
A. Face-to-face |
A. Face-to-face |
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Which of the following is an atmospheric hazard that can be expected at a fire in an underground space? |
A. Toxic gases |
A. Toxic gases |
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Which of the following is a physical hazard that can be expected at a fire in an underground space? |
A. Toxic gases |
D. Cave-ins or unstable support members |
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Which of the following BEST describes where the Command Post is established at in an underground fire? |
A. Near the hot zone, limiting entrance pathways |
D. Outside of the hot zone, near but not obstructing the entrance |
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Which of the following BEST describes the flash point of flammable liquids? |
A. Less than 100°F (38°C) |
A. Less than 100°F (38°C) |
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Which of the following BEST describes ignition of combustible liquids? |
A. These can be ignited without pre-heating. |
D. These must be heated above the flash point before igniting. |
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Where should apparatus be located at a Class B fire? |
A. Upwind and uphill of the incident |
A. Upwind and uphill of the incident |
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Increased intensity of sound or fire from a relief valve indicates that the: |
A. valve is safely relieving excess pressure. |
C. vessel is overheating and a rupture is imminent. |
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Which of the following BEST describes a hazard particular to carbon dioxide fixed suppression systems? |
A. Skin irritation |
B. Oxygen depletion |
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Which of the following BEST describes how operating pressure can be maintained for water-based suppression systems? |
A. Using the lowest possible pressure for all attack lines |
D. Deploying supply hoses from hydrant to fire department connection (FDC) |
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Which of the following occupancies are non-water-based systems MOST likely to be found? |
A. Covered malls |
D. Industrial occupancies |
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When activated clean agent systems suppress the fire by: |
A. blanketing the fire. |
D. filling the compartment with extinguishing agent. |
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What type of fixed system can allow deployment of attack hoselines in large area structures or industrial sites? |
A. Foam system |
B. Standpipe system |
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Water as a cooling agent must be combined with ___ to be effective on lighter petroleum distillates. |
A. chemicals |
D. foam additives |
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Water as a mechanical tool can move ___ to where they can burn safely. |
A. Class A fuels |
B. Class B fuels |
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When pressure vessels are exposed to flame impingement, a minimum of ___ must be applied at each point of flame impingement. |
A. 500 gpm (2 000 L/min) |
A. 500 gpm (2 000 L/min) |
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Techniques for extinguishment at bulk transport vehicle fires are similar to fires in: |
A. high-rise structures. |
D. flammable fuel storage facilities. |
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Which of the following BEST describes a way to determine the nature of cargo at a bulk transport vehicle fire? |
A. Use past experience to predict |
B. Use bills of lading or placards |
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Which of the following BEST describes approach and staging techniques used at flammable gas incidents? |
A. Approach from and stage on the upwind side |
A. Approach from and stage on the upwind side |
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Which of the following BEST describes the process taken at flammable gas incidents if gas is burning? |
A. Extinguish burning flame |
C. Use hose streams to protect exposures if needed |
