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118 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The most commonly cited function of all managers are:
• Budgeting, organizing, staffing, and controlling • Planning, staffing, leading, and purchasing • Planning, controlling, leading, and organization • Planning, controlling, leading, and organizing |
• Planning, controlling, leading, and organizing |
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Which of the following are true regarding the challenges of maintaining high quality data? • Data can be intentionally or unintentionally entered incorrectly. • Inconsistencies can occur when data are not clearly defined. • Multiple systems that are not well-integrated may cause data to be duplicated across those systems. • Data deteriorates over time. |
• All of the above |
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Which two steps are considered the operational portion of the data lifecycle where data are used to achieve the organizations goals? • Create and Acquire and Maintain and Use • Plan and specify • Enable and create and acquire • Plan and purge |
• Create and Acquire and Maintain and Use |
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Models, policies, rules, or standards that govern the collection, storage, and arrangement of data in a database system or organization defines which of the following? • Data Architecture • Database administration • Data conversion • Business model |
• Data Architecture |
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Data architecture is integral to which stages of the data lifecycle? • Planning • Create and acquire • Specify • Purge |
• Planning • Specify |
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True or false, organizational memory comprises any place in which an organization can store data? |
False. Organization memory comprises any place in which an organization can store knowledge.
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Which data management function involves managing the day-to-day operation of the organizations systems and focuses on database performance, and data integrity and availability? • Metadata management • Master data management • Content management • Data operations management |
• Data operations management |
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Which one of the following statements is NOT true? • Business data owners work with data stewards to ensure that essential data are identified, defined, used, and managed so as to support operational functions. • Business data stewards identify and define data and metadata requirements, draft data model specifications, define business rules and data quality requirements, identify and help resolve data issues, and assist in evaluating and improving the quality of the organizations data. • Executive data stewards exercise stewardship at the most senior level. This is a role held by a senior manager sitting on the data governance council, accountable for the data quality and data practices within a department, for planning and oversight of data management programs, and appointment of other data stewards. • None of the above |
• None of the above |
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Which of the following best describe enterprise data management? • Can help eliminate information silos • Can lead to increased integration and alignment among the functional areas • Can result in enhanced strategic and tactical decision making • Can be inflexible and unable to meet the needs of a rapidly changing environment |
• Can help eliminate information silos • Can lead to increased integration and alignment among the functional areas • Can result in enhanced strategic and tactical decision making |
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Which of the following statements is NOT true? • Data managers help analyze an organizations data and information needs, and assist in the development, implementation, and maintenance of the technical solutions required to meet those needs. • Data managers engage in a variety of activities requiring technical skills such as business process modeling. • Data managers usually do not participate in the development of the enterprise data strategy and enterprise data model that supports the strategy. • Data managers conduct data analysis and work with data stewards and others to enhance and maintain data quality. |
• Data managers usually do not participate in the development of the enterprise data strategy and enterprise data model that supports the strategy. |
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Describing the skills that are critical for a successful data manager, which one of the following statements is NOT true? • Understand the business environment in which the organization operates as well as its strategic and tactical focus. • Keeps current with new technologies and techniques for managing data effectively. • Always able to convince others of the value of data management initiatives and to secure their commitment and participation. • None of the above. |
• None of the above. |
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Which statement best describes how data managers use both their technical and interpersonal skills at each stage in the data lifecycle? • To enhance data quality, security, integrity, integration, and access to information. • To ensure that the organizations requirements for quality data are met, and to review data quality audits. • To ensure that data warehouses and data marts are appropriately integrated and not redundant. • All of the above. |
• To enhance data quality, security, integrity, integration, and access to information. |
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Supporting data management and data quality on an individual as well as an organizational level best describes which data management best practice? • Data and data quality standards • Privacy issues • Individual support • Operations and processes |
• Individual support |
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The process of analyzing an organizations strategy, structures, and processes to identify all of the data it requires and then developing a theoretical framework within which to meet those requirements best describes which of the following? • Data governance • Data architecture management • Data security management • Data Steward |
• Data architecture management |
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Which of the following is NOT considered a function of data development? • Testing of the system • Documentation and training • Monitoring the effectiveness of policies and procedures • Installation and deployment |
• Monitoring the effectiveness of policies and procedures |
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True or false, the data stewardship team is a temporary or permanent focused group of business data stewards collaborating on data modeling, specification and data quality improvement, typically in an assigned subject area, led by a coordinating data steward and facilitated by a data architect. |
• True |
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Which of the following statements is NOT true? • Data architects develop and maintain the enterprise data model and ensure that data warehouses and data marts are appropriately integrated and not redundant. • Business intelligence analysts design and maintain the business intelligence user environment and train users in its application. • Data security administrators select or design the appropriate software, implement the software, and control its use to ensure a proper structure for the data. • Data/reporting analysts document, interpret, and maintain controls on the data, and develop or assist in the development of external and internal reports. |
• Data security administrators select or design the appropriate software, implement the software, and control its use to ensure a proper structure for the data. |
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Which of the following are true regarding how data standards can facilitate the exchange of insurance information? • Increased rating and pricing • Increased profitability • Increased operational efficiency • Increased business processes |
• Increased profitability • Increased operational efficiency |
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Which of the following are true regarding the three common parts of data element names? • Object • Include verbs • Can only be one word • Representation or class term |
• Object • Representation or class term |
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An organization must have which of the following in order for quality standards to be effective? • A system to measure actual performance to the standard • A code of conduct • A common technical vocabulary • Standard, language independent signs |
• A system to measure actual performance to the standard |
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Which of the following statements best describe the role of a Standard Development Organization (SDO)? • Develop new standards • Review underwriting and claims settlement procedures • Maintain current standards • Attempt to coordinate with existing standards |
• Develop new standards • Maintain current standards • Attempt to coordinate with existing standards |
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Which SDO works to create standards that reflect international consensus? • International association of industrial accident boards and commissions (IAIABC) • International organization for standardization (ISO) • Association for cooperative operations research and development (ACORD) • Committee on consumer policy (COPALCO) |
• International organization for standardization (ISO) |
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Other than SDO’s, what organizations or groups, define, develop, and/or impact standards? • Labor unions • Consumer groups • Professional membership groups • All of the above |
• All of the above |
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A specific characteristic of a person, thing, process, transaction, or concept, describes which of the following? • Domain • Data element • Property term • Object |
• Data element |
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Which of the following is NOT a data element rule? • Variable field lengths • Need for flexibility • Conversion and combination of data • Mappability |
• Variable field lengths |
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Which of the following are examples of “representation” or “class words”? • Employee, address, length • Age, insured, date • Year, state, name • Code, factor, rate |
• Code, factor, rate |
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Which of the following are true regarding standard data element rules? • Commonality is a goal to work toward, but should not be a constraint • Coding structures must be rigid and inflexible • Field lengths should be variable • Fields may have multiple definitions |
• Commonality is a goal to work toward, but should not be a constraint |
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Which of the following is NOT a type of data integrity constraint in general use? • Check constraints • Null constraints • Unique constraints • Foreign key constraints |
• Null constraints |
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Which of the following statement, or statements, best describes disparate data? • Data are in different formats, in different systems, implemented in different ways on different platforms. • Data are locked in information silos and are not generally accessible across the organization. • Data are homogeneous across an enterprise. • Existing data may not be trusted so data are created or acquired. |
• Data are in different formats, in different systems, implemented in different ways on different platforms. • Data are locked in information silos and are not generally accessible across the organization. • Existing data may not be trusted so data are created or acquired. |
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Which of the following statements best define data integrity? • The data are trustworthy • The data have not been breached • The data are uncorrupted • The data are inaccessible |
• The data are trustworthy • The data are uncorrupted |
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Accurate, complete, consistent, and valid are characteristics of which of the following: • Data integration • Information integrity • Transaction management • Data validation |
• Information integrity |
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Which of the following issues may occur within an organization due to lack of data integrity? • System crashes • Regulatory intervention • Lost credibility • All of the above |
• All of the above |
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Which of the following costs are more associated with system downtime caused by data integrity issues? • Data restoration • In-force business loss • Hardware upgrade expenses • Software update expenses |
• In-force business loss |
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The properties that every transaction should have in order for systems to automatically manage transactions in a way that helps preserve data integrity are: • Atomicity, consistency, isolation, durability • Atomicity, cognitive, information, detailed • Atomicity, consistency, information, detailed • Atomicity, cognitive, isolation, durability |
• Atomicity, consistency, isolation, durability |
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The objective of data normalization is to: • Limit some particular aspect of the organizations operations • Confirm that something meets requirements, follows rules, and conforms to standards • Limit the values that can be inserted into columns in a table • Store one fact in one place |
• Store one fact in one place |
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The cycle by which data that is not documented or integrated, that cannot be accessed or trusted, resulting in the creation or acquisition of data rather than using the existing data is known as which of the following? • Disparate data cycle • Redundant data cycle • Integrated data cycle • Validated data cycle |
• Disparate data cycle |
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The process that transforms an organizations various disparate data resources into a homogeneous data resource that exists at the operational level rather than simply within a data warehouse or federation is known as which of the following? • Data integration • Enterprise data architecture • Data resource integration • Generation data group |
• Data resource integration |
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Data resource integration results in which of the following? • Disparate data • Data that can be shared and accessed across the enterprise • Data locked in information silos • Data that is scrubbed, transformed, and stored for operational and analytical purposes |
• Data that can be shared and accessed across the enterprise |
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Which of the following is an essential element of data resource integration? • A common, enterprise-wide data architecture • A relational database • A virtual data federation • A physical data warehouse |
• A common, enterprise-wide data architecture |
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Which of the following statements best describe the importance of metadata? • They describe the content, quality, condition, and other attributes of the data • They put data in context, reveal their meaning, and make them accessible and usable • They serve as the foundation for data quality, data profiling, and data use • All of the above |
• All of the above |
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Which of the following statements does NOT describe the importance of metadata? • They classify data in a simple list • They put data in context, reveal their meaning, and make them accessible and usable • They serve as the foundation for data quality, data profiling, and data use • They describe the content, quality, condition, and other attributes of the data |
• They classify data in a simple list |
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Which of the following can be a challenge faced when managing metadata? • There are a variety of tools to capture and store metadata • Metadata can be found in various locations throughout an enterprise • Users access the metadata through a single portal • Most organizations have a sufficient number of individuals with the skill set to manage metadata |
• Metadata can be found in various locations throughout an enterprise |
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Simple lists, hierarchical classification, and faceted classification are all methods of which of the following? • Semantics • Operations metadata • Structural metadata • Taxonomy |
• Taxonomy |
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The date and time a file was last updated is an example of which type of metadata classification? • Business metadata • Process metadata • Operational metadata • All of the above |
• Operational metadata |
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Business, technical, operational, process, and data stewardship metadata are typically associated with which of the following? • Structured data • Unstructured data • Value chain • Authority or responsibility |
• Structured data |
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Metadata about unstructured data are characterized as which of the following? • Descriptive • Technical/structural • Business • Administrative |
• Descriptive • Technical/structural • Administrative |
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Which of the following statements does NOT describe the advantages of having good quality metadata? • The organization understands and has confidence in its data and information • The organizations information is duplicated or reworked • The organization communicates through a common vocabulary • The organization can use and reuse its data |
• The organizations information is duplicated or reworked |
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Which of the following includes the processes, transformations, and validations the data have undergone? • Data standards • Data model • Data retention • Data lineage |
• Data lineage |
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Which of the following statements best describe the usefulness of data lineage? • Organizations can demonstrate the accuracy and integrity of their financial and statutory reporting • Highlights the downstream impact of system or process changes • Organizations are better able to protect sensitive and confidential information • Can reduce data collection, storage, and dispersal costs |
• All of the above |
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Which statement best describes how metadata ensures that actuaries and other analysts have the right data for analysis? • They support compliance with reporting requirements • They reduce the cost of collection, storage, and dispersal • They provide their characteristics, where they came from, and the transformations they have undergone • They identify profitable or unprofitable coverages or lines of business |
• They provide their characteristics, where they came from, and the transformations they have undergone |
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Metadata that links data about prospects and customers across systems internally and externally supports which area of an organization? • Statistical and regulatory compliance • Marketing • Information technology • Claims |
• Marketing |
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Which statement best describes a metadata strategy? • It is formulated at the same organizational level as other strategic plans • It establishes a framework for meeting future information needs • It increases recognition of the importance of data and metadata quality • All of the above |
• All of the above |
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The enhanced ability to derive information from operational data is a benefit of which of the following? • Metadata strategy • Data lineage • Semantics • Metadata repository |
• Metadata strategy |
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Which of the following challenges could an organization face when developing and implementing a metadata strategy? • Lack of executive support • Few resources with the appropriate skills • Business users are engaged in the project • Ongoing maintenance costs are needed |
• Lack of executive support • Few resources with the appropriate skills • Ongoing maintenance costs are needed |
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An index in a table is an example of which of the following? • Centralized repository metadata • Metadata architecture • Metadata classification • Autonomous metadata |
• Autonomous metadata |
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Which of the following statements best describe autonomous metadata? • Data are used locally for a unique purpose with no value to the organization • Data requires standardization • Data are available for general use • Data are integrated |
• Data are used locally for a unique purpose with no value to the organization |
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The three most common architectural approaches to shared metadata are: • Centralized, distributed, integrated • Integrated, hybrid, distributed • Centralized, distributed, hybrid • Centralized, extensible, distributed |
• Centralized, distributed, hybrid |
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Metadata that are always current and valid without the need for replication and synchronization is an advantage of which type of metadata repository architecture? • Centralized • Distributed • Extensible • Integrated |
• Distributed |
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The need for additional software and IT resources to extract metadata from the repository is a disadvantage of which type of metadata repository architecture? • Centralized • Distributed • Hybrid • Integrated |
• Centralized |
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Which of the following is NOT a challenge of implementing and managing a metadata repository? • Requires knowledgeable individuals with specific skill sets • Repository management products typically require customization • Determining which metadata to include and populating the repository • Starting on a smaller scale and growing the repository gradually |
• Starting on a smaller scale and growing the repository gradually |
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True or false, data stewardship metadata provides rules about who has the authority or responsibility for creating, reading, updating, or deleting data? |
• True |
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Which statement best defines reference data? • Data that are not updated or altered by business applications • Data about specific events • Data about those things that are essential to an organization • Data about data |
• Data that are not updated or altered by business applications |
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Data that are commonly stored in look-up or code tables which define the domain, or set of valid values for a data element, best describes which of the following? • Metadata • Master data • Reference data • Transactional data |
• Reference data |
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A table used to determine an employees work status and benefit eligibility falls under which of the following reference table structure categories? • Taxonomy • Mapping table • Code list • Multiple attributes of a single entity type |
• Multiple attributes of a single entity type |
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Which of the following are considered a type of reference data structure? • Taxonomies • Code lists • Mapping tables • General ledger |
• Taxonomies • Code lists • Mapping tables |
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An insurers master data would include data about which of the following? • Products and services • Geographic territories • Codes and descriptions • Competitors |
• Products and services • Geographic territories • Competitors |
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Data in general ledger accounts is an example of which category of master data? • Product master data • Geographic master data • Party master data • Financial master data |
• Financial master data |
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Data about insurance policies and endorsements best describe which category of master data? • Product master data • Financial master data • Party master data • Geographic master data |
• Product master data |
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Which of the following is NOT a master data category? • Party master • Financial master data • Performance master data • Product master data |
• Performance master data |
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Ensuring the accuracy and standardization of information that can be shared among all systems across an organization is a benefit of which of the following? • Controlled vocabulary • Golden record • Master data • System of record |
• Golden record |
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Which of the following is NOT a common driver of reference data and master data management? • Improving data quality and integration across data sources, applications, and technologies • Providing a consolidated 360-degree view of information for more effective reporting so and analytics • Communicating more effectively through a common vocabulary • All of the above |
• Communicating more effectively through a common vocabulary |
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Identifying the records that represent the same entity and integrating them into a single representation of that entity is known as which of the following? • Entity management • Entity matching rules • Entity identification • Entity resolution |
• Entity resolution |
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Which of the following identify the three types of, or approaches to, matching rules? • Duplicate identification, match-merge, match-save • Match-link, duplicate inference, match-merge • Match-merge, duplicate identification, match-link • None of the above |
• Match-merge, duplicate identification, match-link |
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Which of the three types of matching rules runs the risk of unrelated records being inappropriately changed? • Match-merge • Duplicate identification • Match-link • All of the above |
• Match-merge |
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Which of the following is NOT a challenge of implementing reference data? • Mapping different types of externally sourced codes • Different applications often use different reference data internally • Definitions or categorization of externally sourced reference data may differ • Identifying the one golden record among multiple, often conflicting records |
• Identifying the one golden record among multiple, often conflicting records |
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Using the golden record in all systems across the organization, rather than other, less accurate records is a challenge for which of the following? • Master data management • Reference data management • Affiliation management • A and B are correct |
• Master data management |
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A successful MDM/RDM initiative focuses on which of the following? • Products and services • Applications and business processes • Evaluating customers’ needs • Supporting regulatory compliance |
• Applications and business processes |
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Which of the following best describe how RDM and MDM contribute to data integrity and quality? • Ensure accurate data consistent with the organizations business rules • Enhances the quality of the information supporting regulatory compliance • Ensure standardized data • All of the above |
• All of the above |
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Which of the following best describes data governance? • Identifying an organizations information requirements • Planning, monitoring, and enforcement over the management of data assets • Complying with regulatory requirements • Aligning IT strategy with business strategy and optimizing the use of an organizations IT resources. |
• Planning, monitoring, and enforcement over the management of data assets |
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Identifying an organizations information requirements and then planning, defining, organizing, maintaining, and managing the access to the information that meets those requirements is known as which of the following? • Synchronization of data • Data governance • Corporate governance • Information governance |
• Information governance |
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Which of the following is independent of business process or context? • Synchronization of data • Data governance • Corporate governance • Information governance |
• Data governance |
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Information governance is concerned with which of the following? • Complying with regulatory requirements • Sharing and reusing information effectively • Timelines of data • Metadata |
• Complying with regulatory requirements • Sharing and reusing information effectively |
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Which of the following best describe the importance of data governance and information governance to an organization? • They both have a strategic focus • They establish and ensure “one version of the truth” • They involve senior executives who should articulate a goal and guiding principles • All of the above |
• All of the above |
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Ensuring the accuracy and integrity of an organizations financial information is how data and information governance supports which of the following? • Data quality management • IT governance • Corporate governance • Data security management |
• Corporate governance |
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Which of the following is NOT a goal of IT governance? • Meet strategic objectives while minimizing IT risks • Establish metrics for measuring IT performance • Establish principles and policies for managing IT resources • Determine the impact of system changes on data |
• Determine the impact of system changes on data |
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Which of the following are the responsibilities of a data governance council or committee (DGC)? • Approving master data definitions and proposed master data additions or changes • Communicating compliance requirements • Defining data quality standards • Maintaining data models |
• Approving master data definitions and proposed master data additions or changes • Communicating compliance requirements • Defining data quality standards |
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Which of the following positions has the goal of continuously improving data quality and integration across the enterprise? • Chief data officer (CDO) • Information technology (IT) • Chief data steward • Data manager |
• Chief data officer (CDO) |
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Which of the following is NOT performed by information stewards within data governance? • Supporting the preparation of external reports • Translating data into concise, meaningful, readily understandable information • Identifying data governance platforms and solutions to be purchased by the enterprise • Identifying and communicating data quality issues |
• Identifying data governance platforms and solutions to be purchased by the enterprise |
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In the context of data governance, which of the following is NOT a business management decision? • Identifying and recruiting IT leadership • Data integration architecture • Approving capital investments • Developing the organizations data governance model |
• Data integration architecture |
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In the context of data governance, which of the following statements best describe the IT management decisions? • They make decisions about technical issues • They make decisions that directly impact the organizations operations • They make decisions regarding the funding of research and development activities • They make decisions regarding changes to the enterprise’s master data |
• They make decisions about technical issues |
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Which one of the following statements is NOT true? • The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, the Health Insurance Protection and Accountability Act (HIPAA), and the NAIC’s Principles for Effective Cybersecurity: Insurance Regulatory Guidance all outline how insurers are required to protect the security and confidentiality of the data and information they obtain • Information can be categorized in a variety of ways: external public, internal public, confidential, regulated, and restricted • Security audits can help identify exposures to both internal and external risks of data and information loss. They should be undertaken regularly by experience IT professionals who must be directly responsible for the area being audited. • Internal controls can be either administrative or technical. They are primarily designed to prevent loss resulting from internal sources, although they can also help protect an organization from external threats |
• Security audits can help identify exposures to both internal and external risks of data and information loss. They should be undertaken regularly by experience IT professionals who must be directly responsible for the area being audited. |
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True or false, the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) is an organization made up of insurance regulators from all 50 states of the United States? |
• False, the NAIC is an organization made up of insurance regulators from 50 states, Washington DC, Puerto Rico, and four US territories. |
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True or false, privacy laws in the United States generally attempt to balance the need for individual privacy with the need for efficiency in commercial transactions. In the European Union, on the other hand, privacy is considered a fundamental right and personal information protection laws and regulation are more restrictive than they are in the United States? |
• True |
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Which of the following statements is true? • A physical data model (PDM) is a data model depicting relational tables, columns, foreign key relationships and indexes • A logical data model (LDM) is the data model that accurately and completely depicts the realities of an organizations operations • A conceptual data model (CDM) is created in consultation with business subject matter experts • When a combination of fields serves as a primary key, it is referred to as the golden key |
• A physical data model (PDM) is a data model depicting relational tables, columns, foreign key relationships and indexes • A conceptual data model (CDM) is created in consultation with business subject matter experts |
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Which one of the following statements is NOT true? • A particularly well-designed data model is sometimes referred to as “high fidelity” • Another feature of a good data model is sometimes referred to as “elegance”. An elegant data model is one that is as simple and concise as possible, rather than highly complex • Reference data are data in look-up or code entities that are read but not updated by business applications • In a relational database, not every entity has a primary key. The entities that do not have a primary key are assigned a foreign key |
• In a relational database, not every entity has a primary key. The entities that do not have a primary key are assigned a foreign key |
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True or false, a relationship between two instances of the same entity type is called a recursive relationship, or self-referencing relationship or unary relationship? |
• True |
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Which one of the following statements is NOT true when describing the issues related to document and content retention and destruction? • Retention requirements for certain types of documents are established by regulatory bodies. Organizations need to be aware of all applicable records-retention legislation and regulations, and ensure that they are in compliance • All personally identifiable information (PII) and personal health information (PHI), also referred to as Individually Identifiable Heath Information, are subject to 15 years’ retention requirement • Documents that are not subject to regulatory retention requirements and that are no longer of value to an organization should be disposed of in an appropriate manner • None of the above |
• All personally identifiable information (PII) and personal health information (PHI), also referred to as Individually Identifiable Heath Information, are subject to 15 years’ retention requirement |
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Which of the following does document management focus on? • The document as a whole • The data elements within the document • The portions of the document which are textual • The unstructured content of the document |
• The document as a whole |
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Which of the following DOES NOT focus on the document management lifecycle? • Auditing the effectiveness of an organizations policies, procedures, and systems • Implementing document control and retention policies • Allowing access in accordance with policies, standards, and regulations • Archiving and appropriately destroying documents |
• Auditing the effectiveness of an organizations policies, procedures, and systems |
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What type of structured data is a photograph of a time stamp? • Structured • Highly structured • Complex structured • Multi-structured |
• Multi-structured |
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Which type of structured data is more intricately structured than traditional tabular data? • Unstructured • Structured • Highly structured • Multi-structured |
• Highly structured |
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What process involves: planning, establishing responsibility, selecting samples and reporting results? • Quality data management • Content quality management • Audit protocols • Record retention |
• Audit protocols |
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A controlled vocabulary is simply a set of agreed upon terms that are clearly defined, consistently used, and formally managed with rules about how terms are added, modified, or deleted is part of which indexing approach? • Word text indexing • Formula text indexing • Full text indexing • Field text indexing |
• Field text indexing |
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True or false, document management focuses on the document as a whole rather than on the content elements it contains. |
• True |
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Which one of the following statements is NOT true? • Source-to-target mapping is an integral component of data warehouse development • Data warehousing provides access to the information that facilitates business performance management • Typically, the data in a data warehouse or data mart originate from a variety of internal and external sources and systems, and they exist in a variety of sometimes incompatible formats • Tactical planning facilitates completion of the activities identified in operational planning |
• Tactical planning facilitates completion of the activities identified in operational planning |
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True or false, full extraction is more complex to perform than incremental extraction. |
• False, incremental extraction is more complex to perform than full extraction |
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True or false, traditional data warehouses were typically updated on a weekly. |
• False, traditional data warehouses were typically updated daily, in an overnight batch process |
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Which of the following are NOT data management tools? • Data modeling tools • Business intelligence tools • Document management tools • Enterprise data strategy tools |
• Enterprise data strategy tools |
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Which of the following is NOT a principle consideration in determining whether to buy or build a metadata repository? • Cost • Culture • Classification • Capabilities |
• Classification |
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An enterprise data strategy focuses on achieving a number of objectives. Which one of the following is NOT one of those objectives? • Supporting flexibility and agility in a rapidly changing environment • Minimizing usage of external data sources • Consolidating data architecture to optimize information delivery • Increasing integration and alignment among the functional areas |
• Minimizing usage of external data sources |
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Which of the following is NOT true? • Ontology is a semantic data model defining structure and meaning typically used to model non-tabular data • An enterprise data strategy is a plan for improving the way an enterprise leverages its data, allowing the company to turn data into information and knowledge which, in turn, produce measurable improvements in business performance • An organizations culture can have a significant impact on the decision to buy or build a system • None of the above |
• None of the above |
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The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) is designed as a practical approach to developing an enterprise architecture and it includes three elements. Which of the following is not an element of TOGAF? • An Architecture Development Method (ADM) • A Scope Contexts • An Enterprise Continuum • A Resource Base |
• A Scope Contexts |
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True or false, it should be the IT side of the organization that drives its enterprise data strategy, rather than the business side? |
• False, it should be the business side of the organization that drives its enterprise data strategy, rather than the IT side |
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True or false, the Architecture Development Method (ADM) explains how to design an enterprise architecture that best meets an organization’s needs? |
• True |
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True or false, Business Performance Management (BPM) is a set of methodologies and tools that help organizations optimize their performance and make better use of their financial, human, and data resources |
• True |
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Which of the following processes of defining and documenting an organization is helped by Semantics? • Business and technical terms • IT infrastructure • Rules and guidelines • Underwriting policies |
• Business and technical terms |
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Describe the building blocks of a data model |
Data models are illustrated using different notations. The basic building blocks in data modeling begin with boxes and lines. Boxes represent entities and lines represent relationships. Boxes, lines and symbols are used in data modeling to document and define relationships |
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Describe a database model and how relationships among entities are indicated |
Using boxes, lines, and symbols, the appropriate symbol is added to each of the line linking two entity boxes to indicate the type of relationship the entities have. Because there can be more than one relationship between the same two entity types, text is used to clarify the nature of each relationship. |
