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322 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When was HIPPA enacted into law?
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1996
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Who supplies a Sexual Assalt Investigation Kit?
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Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NCIS)
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MANMED P-117
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Manual of the Medical Department
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What are the three major categories of primary medical records?
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Health, Records, Outpatient Records, and Inpatient Records
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Three types of secondary records include:
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Convenience records, Temporary Records, and Ancillary Records.
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Purpose of a temporary medical record
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Documents a current course of treatment.
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The temporary dental record must, at a minimum, contain the following forms:
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Privacy Act Statement., DD 2005
Dental Health Questionarre, NAVMED 6600/3 Dental Treatment Form EZ603A |
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What do Ancillary Records consist of?
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Original healthcare documentation withheld from a pt's primary HREC or OREC.
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All treatment records are property of...
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U.S. Government
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Who has ultimate responsibility for all medical records
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The Commanding Officer
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Who is the HREC custodian for inactive reserve personnel and is responsible for records' preparation and maintenance,
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The Naval Reserve Personnel Center (NRPC) New Orleans
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FMP code for- Children
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01-19
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FMP code for-Mother, Stepmother
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40-44
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FMP code for-Father or Stepfather
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45-49
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FMP code for-all Others
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99
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FMP code for-Mother-in-law
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50-54
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FMP code for-Father-in-law
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55-59
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What do you enter as a FMP for foreign military personnel?
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00
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The Navy Medical Department uses what system to file health records?
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Terminal Digit Filing System (TDFS)
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Health Record- 0
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orange
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Health Record-5
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blue
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Health Record-1
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green
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Health Record-9
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red
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Health Record-7
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almond
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Health Record-4
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tan
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Health Record-2
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yellow
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Health Record-8
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pink
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Health Record-3
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grey
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Health Record-6
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white
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Charge /out Form NAVMED 6150/7 is known as :
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"the pink card" Health Record Receipt
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Loose forms can be retained for no longer than
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one year
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Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet
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DD 2766
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Entries made on the SF 600 (Chron. Record of Medical Care) can be typewritten but normally are handwritten with what color ink?
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blue or blue-black
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Emergent admission notes may be made on the SF 600, but what form is PREFERRED?
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SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report
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SF 509 is typically used for what kind of admissions?
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Inpatient admissions.
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Where is the specific protocol for recording anthrax immunizations outlined?
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SECNAVINST 6230.4, Dept of the NAVY Anthrax Vaccination Implementation Program (AVIP)
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Guidance on line-of-duty inquiries is located in the
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Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN)
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Loblolly became an official rate in...
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1814
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First loblolly boy
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John Wall
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First African American loblolly
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Joseph Anderson
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Hospital Corps was established on
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June 17,1898
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First HM Medal of Honor recepient
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Robert Stanley
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When was the first WAVES school in Great Lakes accepted?
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1944
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Dental Tech rating was established....
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December 12,1947
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Dental Techs merged with HM when?
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October 1, 2005
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Key to service with distinction
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professional ethics
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When did the insignia change from the red cross to the caduceus?
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April 2, 1948
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When did Congress mandate sickbay "cockpit" on the first ship?
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March 2, 1799
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Temporary directives cannot be in effect for more than...
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one year
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1000 series
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military personnel
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7000 series
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financial management
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2000 series
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telecommunications
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3000 series
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operations and readiness
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4000 series
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logistics
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5000 series
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general administration and management
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6000 series
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medicine and dentistry
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8000 series
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ordnance material
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9000 series
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ships design and material
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1000 series
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general material
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11000 series
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facilities and activities
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12000 series
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civilian personnel
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13000 series
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aeronautical and astronautical material
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16000 series
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coast guard missions
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The process of determining the correct subject group or name-title codes under which correspondance should be filed
|
Classifying
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Dental Class: Worldwide deployable
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Class 1 & 2
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Any condition that can result in an emergency condition within 12 months
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Class 3
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Overdue for annual exam, unknown oral condition, lost record
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Class Four
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Batallion Aid Station is usually comprised of how many MOs and HMs?
|
2 MOs and 65 HMs
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Majority of FMF medical support comes from the...
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MLG
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Primary mission of a medical battalion is to...
|
casualty collection
temporary hospitalization special surgery emergency tx evac. |
|
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Fleet hospitals meet requirements of whom?
|
COCOM; Combatant Commander
|
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Fleet hospitals are designed to be used for more than how many days?
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60 days
|
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How many beds do fleet hospitals typically have?
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500
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Manual of the Medical Department
|
NAVMED P-117
|
|
|
Admin. management tool used to track medical and dental readiness for every ACTIVE DUTY and RESERVE Sailor and Marine
|
MRRS
|
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What manual reflects the planned maintenance requirements for a particular work center such as medical or dental?
|
PMS Manual
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The Navy organized the Construction Batallion or CBs during the first days of what war?
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WWII
|
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Computer based enrollment and eligibility verification system
|
DEERS
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Family member enrollment for all seven uniformed services is accomplished by completing what form?
|
DD 1172
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If an ID cannot be provided within ____ days, the pt will be billed as a civilian humanitarian nin indigent IAW.
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30
|
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Newborns will not be denied healthcare for how many days?
|
60 days
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On 61st day, newborn will be enrolled in _______ if not enrolled in TRICARE prime
|
TRICARE standard (has to be on page 2 to be enrolled in TRICARE prime and enrolled in DEERS)
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What type of dental category includes restorative, exams, and surgery?
|
Routine
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What type of dental category includes treatment to relieve pain, acute conditions?
|
Emergency
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What type of dental category includes orthodontics and crowns?
|
Elective
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What program uses various sources of data to evaluate the degree of excellence and to make improvements as needed for quality care?
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Quality Assurance Program
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A program that strives to evaluate the channels of communication between the hospital and the patient populations
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Patient Relations Program
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MANED chapter that explains guidance on preparing and maintaining medical records
|
Chapter 16
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Program that identifies and monitors spouse or child abuse/neglect
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Family Advocacy Program
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What instruction contains details on the Family Advocacy Program? (FAP)
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SECNAVINST 1752.3
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Details on DAPA are found where?
|
OPNAVINST 5350.4
|
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Quality Assurance activities are highly valued by whom?
|
The Joint Commission (TJC) and Medical Inspector General (MED IG)
|
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Physical Readiness Instruction
|
OPNAVINST 6110.1 series
|
|
|
Who is responsible for what?
|
To inform and explain info to the patient.
|
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What controls the "substitute consent"?
|
The law of the state in which the hospital is located.
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What Act governs the disclosure of documents maintained by the government agencies?
|
Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
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The official responsible for the records has how many working days to respond to the requester per the FOIA
|
20
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HIPPA was enacted into law in what year
|
1996
|
|
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Instruction for Sexual Assault and Rape Cases
|
NAVMEDCOMINST 6310.3
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Health Records (HREC) are a file of continuous care given to whom?
|
Active Duty Members
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Dental Recods (DREC) are given to whom?
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Active Duty and Reserve Members and their families
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Opening a secondary medical record requires the provider to write a note on what Form in the primary treatment record?
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DD 2766; Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet
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What is the HREC custodian for inactive reserve personnel?
|
Naval Reserve Personnel Center (NRPC) New Orleans
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What info goes on the inside front cover of the medical record (in pencil)
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DOA, PRD, Home address and telephone number, Command UIc and telephone number
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Indicates no middle name on tnhe cover of the jacket.
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NMN
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Always the top form of the medical record.
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Summary of Care form NAVMED 6150/4
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Immunization Record
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SF 601
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DD 771
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Eyewear Prescription
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What is imprinted on part II of the health record (front center page)
|
DD 2005 Privacy Act Statement
|
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Chronological Record of Medical Record
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SF 600
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Certificate of Death
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DD 2064
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Narrative Summary
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SF 502
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SF 509
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Progress Notes
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SF 517
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Anesthesia
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Request for Administration of Anesthesia
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SF 522
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Abstract of Service and Medical History
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NAVMED 6150/4
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Record of Disclosure, Privacy Act 1974
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OPNAV 5211/9
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DD 2005
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Privacy Act Statement
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NAVMED 6150/7 (Charge out form)
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Health Record Receipt "pink card"
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What form should be completed if the record is going to be used for dental care
|
Forensic Examination Form
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SF 545
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Laboratory Report Display
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SF 511
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Vital Signs Record
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How often are medical records verified by medical?
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Annually
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During PCS, if records are unable to be hand carried, they have to be sent via certified mail with copy of what form?
|
DD 877
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When closing records, record a closing entry on which page?
|
Page 4 (NAVMED 6150)
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Where should you document regarding MIA members with circumstances about the presumed diappearance of the individual
|
SF 600
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Where should you document regarding deserters?
|
SF 600, EZ603, and page 4. deliver record to CO!!
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Retired dental records should be forwarded to where?
|
National Personnel Records Center Military Personnel Records ST Louis, Missouri
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|
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SF 600 entries are normally handwritten using what color ink?
|
black or blue-black
|
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What form is preferred for making admission notes?
|
SF 509; Medical Record -Progress Report
|
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International Certificate of Vaccination
|
PHS-731
|
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Unmounted radiographs in envelopes are put in the...
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front
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Sequential bitewing radiographs are found in the..
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middle
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Panographic or full-month radiographs are in the...
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back
|
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NAVMED 6600/3
|
Dental Health Questionarre (HQR)
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Dental Treatment Form
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EZ603A
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What publication is the Naval Supply Procedures
|
NAVSUPP 485
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Requisitions exceeding the competitive threshold of $3,000 must receive quotes from a minimum of how many vendors.
|
3
|
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An order from an activity that's requesting material
|
Requisition
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|
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Toward the end of the body
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Caudal
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Another term for anterior
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ventral
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Another term for posterior
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Dorsal
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Skeletal muscle is called ______ muscle
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Voluntary
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What does skeletal (voluntary) muscle look like?
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Striated, striped
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Involuntary muscle is called ______ How does it look?
|
Smooth.
NONSTRIATED |
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Elongated portion of a bone
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Diaphysis
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Ends of a bone
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Epiphyses
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Small muscle responsible for "goosebumps"
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Arrector
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Modified sweat glands that secrete cerumen
|
Ceruminous glands
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The physical and chemical breakdown of food into its simplest forms
|
Digestion
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The process of absorption, storage, and use of these foods for body growth, maintenance, and repair
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Metabolism
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The body's self-regulated control of its internal environment
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Homeostasis
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The "fabric" of the body
|
Tissues
|
|
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A process during which elements achieve equilibrium by moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
|
Diffusion
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Fatty tissue
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Adipose tissue
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Bone tissue
|
Osseous Tissue
|
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Three types of muscle tissue
|
skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
|
|
|
The skeleton is composed of how many bones?
|
206
|
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The study of the structure of the bone
|
Osteology
|
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What organic substance is found in bone?
|
Ossein
|
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What two INORGANC substances are most prevalent in bone/
|
Calcium and Phosphorus
|
|
|
In the center of the bone is the
|
medullary canal
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Two types of bone marrow
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yellow and red
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Thin, outer membrane surrounding the bone
|
periosteum
|
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3 small bones of the the auditory ossicles
|
malleus, incus, and stapes
|
|
|
A hole directly behind the body of the vertebrae that forms the passage for the spinal cord
|
vertebral foramen
|
|
|
First 7 pairs of ribs are called
|
true ribs
|
|
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remaining 5 pairs of ribs
|
false ribs
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the last two ribs are known as
|
floating ribs
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The glenoid fossa and pectoral girdle join to form the
|
shoulder joint
|
|
|
The hip bone is composed of three parts
|
ilium ischium and pubis
|
|
|
Innominate bone (hip bone) forms a cuplike structure called the
|
acetabulum
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|
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The largest foramen is between the ischium and the pubis and is called the
|
obturator foramen
|
|
|
Thigh bone
|
Femur
|
|
|
Knee Cap
|
Patella
|
|
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Leg bones
|
Tibia and Fibula
|
|
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Ankle Bones
|
Tarsals (seven bones)
|
|
|
Foot bones
|
metatarsals
|
|
|
Toe bones
|
phalanges
|
|
|
The tarsus is formed by how many bones. Which is the strongest?
|
7; Calcaneus
|
|
|
Muscles make up _____ of our total body weight
|
half
|
|
|
Bending the arm or leg
|
Flexion
|
|
|
Straightening or unbending
|
Extension
|
|
|
moving an extremity AWAY from the body
|
abduction
|
|
|
Bringing an extremity TOWARD the body
|
Adduction
|
|
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Movement in which the bone moves around a central point
|
Rotation
|
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|
The movement of the hips and shoulders
|
Circumduction
|
|
|
Turning inward
|
Inversion
|
|
|
Turning outward
|
Eversion
|
|
|
Formed by the articulation of the temporal bone and the mandible
|
Temporal Mandibular Joints (TMJ)
|
|
|
Muscles are held together by sheets of a white fibrous tissue called
|
Fascia
|
|
|
Three main functions of muscles
|
Providing movement
Maintaining body posture Providing heat |
|
|
The chemical action of muscle fibers consists of two stages...
|
Contraction and Recovery
|
|
|
Muscle contraction in which no movement occurs
|
Isometric
|
|
|
Muscle contraction in which movement occurs
|
Isotonic
|
|
|
Area where red mucous membrane of lips end and normal outside skin begins
|
Vermilion Border
|
|
|
The process of chewing food in preparation for swallowing and digestion
|
Mastication
|
|
|
Rough projections on the surface of the tongue that provide friction in handling food and also act as TASTE BUDS
|
Papillae
|
|
|
The salivary glands produce ________ of saliva daily
|
2-3 liters
|
|
|
The swallowing of food
|
Deglutition
|
|
|
Muscles on both sides of neck that rotate the head left and right.
|
Sternocleidomastoid muscles
|
|
|
Primary muscle of respiration
|
Diaphragm
|
|
|
Longest muscle in the body
|
Sartorius (Extends diagonally across the thigh)
|
|
|
Total amount of blood in the body
|
5 to 6 Liters
|
|
|
Worn out cells are removed from the blood stream
called the graveyard |
Spleen
|
|
|
There is 1 white cell to every ____ red cells
|
600
|
|
|
Normal WBC count is
|
4800 to 11,000
|
|
|
Process that engulfs disease bearing bacteria and foreign matter
|
Phagocytosis
|
|
|
Thr right ventricle pumps blood past the pulmonary valve through the ____________ to the lungs where it is oxygenated.
|
pulmonary artery
|
|
|
The left atrium receives the blood from the lungs through four _______________ and pumps it to the left ventricle past the mitral valve
|
pulmonary veins.
|
|
|
What nerve controls the Sense of smell
|
Olfactory
|
|
|
What nerve is responsible for vision
|
Optic
|
|
|
Which nerve is responsible for the movement of the pupils
|
Oculomotor nerve
|
|
|
These 3 nerves control eye movements in the 6 fields and toward the tip of the nose.
|
Oculomotor
Trochlear Abducens |
|
|
Governs the sensation of the forehead and face and clenching of the jaw. Also supplies muscle of the ear, Tensor Tympani, for normal hearing.
|
Trigeminal
|
|
|
What nerve Controls the face muscles
|
Facial
|
|
|
What nerve Controls hearing and balance
|
Acoustic
|
|
|
Transmits sensation from the upper mouth and throat area. Gag reflex.
|
Glossopharyngeal
|
|
|
What nerve Controls the roof of the mouth, vocal cords, and tone of voice.
|
Vagus
|
|
|
What nerve Controls the turning of the head from side to side and shoulder shrug against resistance
|
Spinal Accessory
|
|
|
What verve controls the Muscle activity of the tongue.
|
Hypoglossal
|
|
|
The space which a nerve impulse passes from one neuron to another
|
Synapse
|
|
|
Responsible for coordination, balance, and movement
|
Cerebellum
|
|
|
Helps to give the cornea its curved shape
|
Aqueous humor
|
|
|
Outer layer of the eye
(White of the eye) |
Sclera.
|
|
|
Produces tears that constantly wash the front part of the eye and the conjunctiva
|
Lacrimal glands
|
|
|
Deflection or bending of light rays results when the light passes through substances of varying densities in the eye. Deflection of light in the eye is called _______
|
Reflection
|
|
|
Eardrum
|
Tympanic Memebrane
|
|
|
Homeostasis is maintained by
|
The endocrine system and the nervous system
|
|
|
Diabetes insipidus is characterized by a deficiency of the
|
antidieuretic hormone
|
|
|
Regulates the calcium and phosphorus content of the blood and bones
|
Parathormone (PTH)
|
|
|
The largest gland in the body
|
Liver.
|
|
|
Beta cells secrete
|
insulin
|
|
|
Two main organs of the filtering system are
|
Kidneys and urinary bladder
|
|
|
The gallbladder stores
|
Bile
|
|
|
The functional unit of the kidney
|
Nephron
|
|
|
Average bladder holds up to _____mLs of urine
|
600
|
|
|
Fertilization of an ovum normally takes place in
|
the fallopian tubes
|
|
|
The largest and most superiorly positioned portion of the brain
|
Cerebrum
|
|
|
Large intestine is divided into 3 contiguous parts
|
duodenum
jejunum ileum |
|
|
Odontogenesis phase
|
tooth formation
*remember Genesis=beginning. |
|
|
When teeth are in the odontogenesis phase three developmental periods happen...
|
Growth
Calcification Eruption |
|
|
Dental development usually begins in which weeks of prenatal life?
|
5th-6th weeks
|
|
|
Growth period of development is divided into
|
bud
cap bell |
|
|
Usually how many tooth buds are present in each dental arch which give rise to future primary teeth
|
10 tooth buds
|
|
|
Last period of growth
|
Histodifferntiation or Bell Stage
|
|
|
For permanent teeth, it takes about __ years from crown completion to the time the tooth emerges into the mouth.
|
3
|
|
|
Primary teeth prepare to fall out
|
Exfoliation
|
|
|
Crown is applied what part of the tooth
|
visible in the mouth
|
|
|
When teeth have more than one root, the region where the roots separate is called the
|
furcation
|
|
|
Tip of each root is called
|
apex
|
|
|
Tooth buds for the permanent teeth form between the 17th week of fetal life through the age of ___
|
5
|
|
|
Enamel is formed by what type of cells
|
Epithelial cells (ameloblasts)
|
|
|
Calcified substance that covers the entire anatomic crown of the tooth and protects the dentin.
|
Enamel
|
|
|
Hardest tissue in the human body
|
Enamel
|
|
|
______ and ______ are enamel's main inorganic components as hydroxyapatite
|
Calcium and Phosphorus
|
|
|
Chief function of the pulp is
|
the formation of dentin
|
|
|
The cavity within the alveolar process in which the root of the tooth is held by the periodontal ligament
|
Alveolar Socket
|
|
|
Trabecular bone has what kind of appearance when viewed by radiograph
|
Web-like
|
|
|
Helps prevent food from packing between the teeth
|
Interdental papilla
|
|
|
There are _____ dental quadrants
|
4
|
|
|
# of baby teeth
|
20
|
|
|
# of adult teeth
|
32
|
|
|
Primary teeth are identified by the letters
|
A through T
|
|
|
A tooth has how many proximal surfaces
|
2
|
|
|
The anteroposterior curve is referred to by
|
Curve of Wilson
|
|
|
Salivary glands secrete about _____ mLs of saliva daily
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1500
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An enclosed pouch or sac containing fluid or semi-solid material
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Cyst
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May be caused by biting, denture irritation, toothbrush injury, viruses, or other irritants.
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Ulcers
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A collection of pus often caused by a bacterial infection.
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Abcess
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A small elevation that contains fluid
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Vesicles
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A localized collection of blood that escaped from blood vessels due to trauma
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Hematoma
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Round pin-point, non-raised, purplish-red spots caused by hemorrhage
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Petechiae
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Large purplish-red areas caused by blood under the skin (appears blue or yellow)
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Ecchymosis
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Usually appear first as white, chalky spot on enamel which indicated decalcification process
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Dental caries
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What bacteria is linked to tooth decay
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Streptococci and other acid producing bacteria
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Develop in depressions of teeth surfaces
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Pit and fissure caries
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Refers to pain in the dental pulp and commonly occurs after a restoration has been placed in a tooth.
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Pulpagia
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Inflammation of the dental pulp, caused by a bacterial infection resulting from dental caries or fractured teeth
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Pulpitis
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Most prevalent chronic disease of humankind
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Periodontal disease
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Usually starts in the Sulcus
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Marginal gingivitis
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Disease referred to as "trench mouth" or "Vincent's infection".
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Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)
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|
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When periodontitis progresses the gingival tissues will appear as
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bluish red
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Usually results from long-continued irritation or foreign objects.
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Periodontal abcess
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Another name for Canker sores
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Recurrent apthous stomatitis (RAS)
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|
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Recurrent HSV lesions take about _____ days to resolve
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7-10
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Signs of a HIV infection
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Candidiasis, Hairy leukoplakia, and Kaposi's sarcoma
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|
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A fungal infection of the mouth usually red or white in color
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Candidiasis
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Cancerous, dark purplish-blue lesions that involve blood vessels
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Kaposi's sarcoma
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|
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The loss of substance of a tooth from a wearing away process caused by teeth against teeth
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Attrition
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Erosion can affect pts with
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bulimia
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Pain in the dental pulp
commonly occurs after a restoration has been placed in a tooth |
Pulpagia
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Congenital disorders are present at
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birth
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The absence of single or multiple teeth
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Anodontia
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Development of one or more extra teeth
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Supernumerary teeth
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The maxillary and medial nasal processes fail to fuse
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Cleft lip
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Results when the palate shelves, right and left side do not fuse leaving a space
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Cleft palate
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"Secret of life"
A viscid jellylike substance that composes the cell. |
Protoplasm
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A small dense body that controls the chemical reactions occurring the cell
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Nucleus
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Every human contains _____ chromosomes
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46
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Outer covering of the body
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Epithelial
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Skeleton is composed of ____ bones
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206
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2 types of bone marrow
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yellow and red
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the pain center of the bone
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periosteum
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femur and humerous
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long bone
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What kind of bones are wrist and ankle bones
|
short bones
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skull, sternum, and scapula
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flat bones
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vertebrae, mandible, hynoid and pelvic bones
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irregular bones
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first of the cervical vertebrae that supports the head
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atlas
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second cervical vertebrae and permits head to turn
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axis
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3 parts of the innominate bone
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ischium, ilium, and pubis
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|
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When ligaments are accidentally torn
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Sprain
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When bones are out of place
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Dislocation
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Liquid part of blood
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plasma
|
|
|
he inner heart surface is lined with a delicate serous membrane called the
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endocardium
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contraction of the heart
|
systole
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relaxation of the heart
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diastole
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Largest and most superior portion of the brain
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Cerebrum
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Inferior portion of the brain that controls heart action, breathing, circulation, and blood pressure
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Medulla Oblongata
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|
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Posterior to the brain stem. Brings balance, harmony, and coordination
|
Cerebellum
|
|
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Responsible for daytime vision
|
Cones
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|
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Responsible for nighttime vision
|
Rods
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