Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
189 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What is the function of KDEL?
|
Signal sequence to return proteins from Golgi to RER.
|
|
|
What is the function of mannose 6-phosphate?
|
Signal sequence to direct to lysosomes.
|
|
|
What happens to a lysosome-bound proteins missing mannose 6-phosphate?
|
"""Default"" pathway of exocytosis."
|
|
|
Describe 'Tay-Sach's' disease.
|
Lysosomal storage disorder; specifc enzyme.
|
|
|
Describe 'I-cell disease'.
|
Absence of M6P sequence.
|
|
|
Describe the activity of Rab GTPase.
|
Involved in docking vesicles (w/ v-SNARE, t-SNARE).
|
|
|
Describe receptor-mediated endocytosis.
|
Clathrin-coated pits --> vesicle --> early endosome --> multivesicular body --> late endosome + lysosomal vesicle --> lysosome
|
|
|
What is the name for the group of intermediate filaments responsible keeping the nucleus intact.
|
Lamins (A/B/C)
|
|
|
Describe histones.
|
"Proteins involved in DNA compaction; H1 is the ""linker histone""."
|
|
|
Describe a nucleosome.
|
Smallest unit of chromatin structure; DNA wrapped around a histone.
|
|
|
Which protein's regulate the G1/S and G2/M boundaries?
|
G1/S are mediated by cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdk) and cyclin; they phosphorylate lamins and cause their breakdown. G2/S are mediated by Rb and p53; both are highly associated with tumor development when mutated. Rb works through E2F, when Rb-E2F are complexed the cell cycle doesn't continue. However, when Rb is phosphorylated it is released from E2F and transcription of cell cycle proteins begins.
|
|
|
Describe zonula occludens.
|
Tight junction.
|
|
|
Describe zonula adherens.
|
Actin filaments linking two cells together.
|
|
|
Describe macula adherens.
|
Desmosomes; Intermediate filaments linking two cells together.
|
|
|
What is the function of neutrophils?
|
Involved in phagocytosis; major constituent of pus.
|
|
|
What is the function of basophils?
|
Similar to mast cells; histamine, heparin release.
|
|
|
What is the function of eosinophils?
|
Parasite mediation.
|
|
|
Which collagen is in the majority of connective tissue?
|
Type I
|
|
|
Which collagen is found in hyaline cartilage?
|
Type II
|
|
|
Which collagen is found in reticular networks, supporting organs?
|
Type III
|
|
|
Which collagen is found in basal lamina?
|
Type IV
|
|
|
What collagen connects connects collagen fibrils to EC matrix?
|
Fibril-associated collagens with interrupted triple helices (FACIT)
|
|
|
What is the name of the lacuna that osteoclasts reside in?
|
Howship's lacuna
|
|
|
What are the 5 major effects of increasing PTH concentrations?
|
Increase: bone resorption, osteoclast activity, ruffled borders development on osteoclasts, 1,25-(OH2)-Vitamin D synthesis in the liver, and Ca++ absorption.
|
|
|
What is the chemical pathway for the activation of osteoclasts by PTH?
|
Increased PTH --> stimulate RANK-L and M-CSF --> produces osteoprotegrin (OPG) to bind RANK-L, which normally binds to RANK on osteoblast to inhibit. The result is activation by absence of RANK-L.
|
|
|
Where is tropinin found?
|
Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle. NOT smooth muscle.
|
|
|
What produces myelin in the CNS?
|
Oligodendrocytes
|
|
|
What produces myelin in the PNS?
|
Schwann cells
|
|
|
What are the macrophages in the brain?
|
Microglia
|
|
|
Which cells produce the blood brain barrier and which cells maintain them?
|
Astrocytes and endothelium respectively.
|
|
|
What is the specific name for transport down an axon?
|
Axoplasmic transport.
|
|
|
What is the respective location of gray and white matter in the brain, and in the spinal cord?
|
Brain: gray outside, white inside. Spinal cord: white outside, gray inside.
|
|
|
What two major ways are there for regulating blood vessel flow?
|
(1) Sympathetic NS (2) Humoral factors.
|
|
|
What is a major vasoconstrictor, and a two major vasodilators. Include any relevate details.
|
Vasoconstrictor 1: Endothelin-1; Vasodilator: NO; made from L-arg, induces a cGMP cascade. Vasoconstrictor 2: Prostacyclin; works through cAMP and also inhibits platelet adhesion and clot formation.
|
|
|
What is the function of von Willebrand factor (vWF)?
|
Induces coagulation / thrombus formation.
|
|
|
What is the function of fibrinolytic tissue-type plasminogen activator (tPA)?
|
Breakdown blood clots
|
|
|
What is the function of E-selecting?
|
Expressed on endothelium, assists extravasation of monocytes and neutrophils. Expression induced in chemokines.
|
|
|
What is one of the effects of hypertension on blood vessel smooth muscle?
|
Hyperplasia / hypertension
|
|
|
How can the heart be considered an endocrine gland?
|
Releases ANP, which inhibits vasopression (ADH) release and reduces blood volume.
|
|
|
What are the stages of maturation for an RBC from it's primitive lineage?
|
Proerythroblast --> basophilic erythroblast --> polychromatiophilic erythroblast --> orthochromatic erethroblast --> reticulocyte --> erythrocyte
|
|
|
What cells mediate humoral immunity?
|
B cells and T helper cells.
|
|
|
What cells mediate cell-mediated immunity?
|
T cells.
|
|
|
What cells can function as APC's?
|
B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells
|
|
|
What is the cellular distribution of MHCI, MHCII?
|
MHCI on virtually all cells, MHCII on T cells.
|
|
|
What CD are immunologically relevant, what cells are they on?
|
CD4+ cells are T helper, CD8+ cells are on T cytoxic
|
|
|
What proteins are used by Tc to kill target cells?
|
Perforin, granzyme.
|
|
|
Which critical cytokine activates macrophages, and what cell releases it?
|
Interferon gamma, Th cells.
|
|
|
What are the primary and secondary lymphoid organs?
|
Primary: BM and thymus; Secondary: lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen
|
|
|
What are Hassall's corpuscles?
|
Function unknown, but they're a defining feature of the thymus.
|
|
|
What are characteristic features of lymph nodes and diffuse lymph tissue?
|
Primary and secondary follicles (germinal center)
|
|
|
What are characteristic features of the spleen?
|
Red and white pulp
|
|
|
What is the last portion of the conducting pathway?
|
Terminal bronchiole
|
|
|
What is the first portion of the respiratory portion?
|
Respiratory bronchiole
|
|
|
What is a defining feature of respiratory tissue basal lamina?
|
Thin, joint lamina propria shared by type I pneumocytes and endothelium.
|
|
|
What is a defining feature of type II pneumocytes and what is their function?
|
Lamellar bodies and surfactant.
|
|
|
What are the contents of surfactant?
|
Sphingomyelin, DPPC, and lecithin
|
|
|
"What is the ""rule of thumb"" for cell type throughout the GI?"
|
Simple columnar throughout, and stratified squamous in areas of maximum friction (e.g. esophagus and anus).
|
|
|
What are the products of surface and neck cells?
|
Mucus
|
|
|
What are the products of chief cells?
|
Pepsinogen
|
|
|
What are the products of parietal cells?
|
IF and acid
|
|
|
What is a defining feature of the parietal cells?
|
Intracellular canaliculi.
|
|
|
What are the contents of pancreatic juice?
|
Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, amylase, and lipase.
|
|
|
How are the enzymes of pancreatic juice activated?
|
Enterokinase (of the microvilli) activates trypsinogen to trypsin, which in turn activates the rest.
|
|
|
Describe the process of fat digestion and transport to target tissues.
|
Emuslified in bile --> lipases break down into FA's and glycerol --> transported into cell --> repackaged into chylomicron --> transport across basolateral membrane via exocytosis --> picked up by lacteals --> processed by liver into a new form, VLDL's --> transported to target tissues.
|
|
|
What is the function of enterocytes?
|
Absorption
|
|
|
What is the function of Paneth cells?
|
Lysozyme, defensin, cryptidin production.
|
|
|
What is the function of goblet cells?
|
Mucus
|
|
|
What is the function of enteroendocrine cells?
|
Secretion of peptide hormones.
|
|
|
What is a major histological difference between the small and large intestines?
|
No villi, just crypts.
|
|
|
What is the prominent cell in the colon?
|
Goblet cell
|
|
|
What are the three major salivary glands?
|
Parotid, submandibular, sublingual.
|
|
|
What hormones regulate the exocrine pancreas?
|
CCK, secretin
|
|
|
What is the action of CCK on the pancreas?
|
Stimulates the acinar cells
|
|
|
What is the action of secretin on the pancreas?
|
Stimulates ductal cells
|
|
|
What endocrine proteins does the liver make?
|
Albumin, fibrinogen, and other coagulation proteins.
|
|
|
What are the major enzymes involved in EtOH detoxification in hepatocytes, and where do they originate in the cell?
|
Alcohol dehydrogenase (mitochondria), microsomal ethanol oxidation system (MEOS; mitochondria), and catalase (peroxisome).
|
|
|
Describe the structure of a hepatocyte with relation to the major liver vessels.
|
Bile canaliculus is apical, junctional complex is lateral, and hepatic sinusoids are basal.
|
|
|
What is the space of Disse?
|
A space between the basal portion of a hepatocyte and the liver venous sinusoid.
|
|
|
What cells line the liver sinusoids?
|
Hepatic stellate cells.
|
|
|
What is the effect of cirrhosis on stellate cells?
|
They're converted into myofibroblasts.
|
|
|
What are the APC's of the liver?
|
Kupffer cells
|
|
|
What is the embryological origin of the adenohypophysis?
|
Oral ectoderm; Rathke's pouch.
|
|
|
What is the function of prolactin and what is it's classification?
|
Promote lactation; acidophilic cell of adenohypophysis.
|
|
|
What is the function of growth hormone and what is it's classification?
|
Promote generalized growth; acidophilic cell of adenohypophysis.
|
|
|
What is the function of LH and what is it's classification?
|
Promote steroid production; basophilic cell of adenohypophysis.
|
|
|
What is the function of FSH and what is it's classification?
|
Promote gamete production; basophilic cell of adenohypophysis.
|
|
|
What is the function of TSH and what is it's classification?
|
Promotes stimulation of T3/T4; basophilic cell of adenohypophysis.
|
|
|
What is the function of ACTH and what is it's classification?
|
Promotes stimulation of adrenal cortex; basophilic cell of adenohypophysis.
|
|
|
What is the function of oxytocin and what is it's classification?
|
Promote lacation; neurohypophysis, but synthesized in supraoptic nuclei in hypothalamus.
|
|
|
What is the function of vasopression (ADH) and what is it's classification?
|
Promote water reabsorption and increase blood pressure; neurohypophysis, but made in paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus.
|
|
|
What is the major product of the adult adrenal medulla?
|
Epinephrine (minor norepinephrine).
|
|
|
What is the majorproduct of the adrenal cortex?
|
DHEA(S)
|
|
|
What are the layers of the adrenal cortex and their products?
|
Zona glomerulosa: aldosterone, zona fasciculata: cortisol / DHEA(S), zona reticularis: DHEA(S) / cortisol
|
|
|
What is the embryonic origin of the adrenal cortex?
|
Intermediate mesoderm.
|
|
|
What is the embryonic origin of the adrenal medulla?
|
Neural crest cells
|
|
|
What is the cell producing the major hormones of the adrenal medulla?
|
Chromaffin cells
|
|
|
Describe Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia.
|
Enzyme deficiency leads to hyperplasia of adrenal cortex and elevated ACTH production. Female genitalia will virilize.
|
|
|
Describe Cushing's syndrome.
|
Hypercortisolism due to enzyme deficience. More common in women than men.
|
|
|
Describe Addison's Disease.
|
Primary adrenal insufficiency, often autoimmune in origin.
|
|
|
Which cells produce T3/T4?
|
Follicular cells of thyroid.
|
|
|
Which cells produce calcitonin?
|
C-cells of thyroid aka Parafollicular cells.
|
|
|
Describe Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
|
Autoimmune attack on thyroid --> hypothyroidism
|
|
|
Describe graves disease.
|
Autoimmune attack on TSH receptors --> hyperthyroidism
|
|
|
What gland produces melatonin and what is the stimulus?
|
Pineal gland; stimulated by darkness.
|
|
|
What cells produce insulin?
|
Beta cells of pancreas
|
|
|
What cells produce glucagon?
|
Alpha cells of pancreas
|
|
|
Describe Type I Diabetes.
|
Autoimmune against insulin production.
|
|
|
Describe Type II Diabetes.
|
Desensitized against insulin at target tissues.
|
|
|
"What cells are scattered throughout the body with generalized endocrine function, and at what ""level"" do they operate."
|
Enteroendocrine cells; paracrine / autocrine level.
|
|
|
Detail the stages of sperm maturation.
|
Spermatogonia --> primary spermatocyte --> secondary spermatocyte --> spermatid --> mature sperm
|
|
|
What is the function of the sertoli cell?
|
Blood-testis barrier, nourish speratocytes, produce AMH, ABP, and inhibin.
|
|
|
What type of epithelium is in the epididymis?
|
Psuedostratified with sterocilia.
|
|
|
What are the products of the epididymis?
|
Fructose and spermatazoa-activing proteins.
|
|
|
What are the products of the prostate?
|
Enzymes for liquidification of ejaculate.
|
|
|
Detail the stages of oocyte maturation.
|
Oogonia --> primary oocyte --> secondary oocyte --> ova
|
|
|
Detail the various forms of follicular development.
|
Primordial follicle --> primary follicle --> secondary follicle -> mature (Graafian) follicle
|
|
|
What are the cellular changes that occur after ovulation?
|
Granulosa --> granulosa lutein, lutein cells --> granulosa lutein.
|
|
|
What maintains the corpus luteum upon pregnancy?
|
hCG, the LH-like hormone produced first by the syncitiotrophoblast and then by the placenta.
|
|
|
What are the two phases of the menstrual cycle?
|
(1) follicular phase, (2) proliferative phase
|
|
|
What hormone predominates in the follicular phase?
|
Estrogen; FSH stimulated
|
|
|
What hormone predominates in the proliferative phase?
|
Progesterone, with still reasonable levels of estrogen; LH stimulated.
|
|
|
What are the two major components of the placenta after implantation?
|
Chorion (placental), and decidua basalis(maternal)
|
|
|
Where does the photosensitive layer of the retina originate from?
|
The optic cup
|
|
|
Describe the contents and action of rhodopsin in visual signal transduction.
|
Rhodopsin (retinal + opsin) + UV --> conformational change which leads to dissocation of retinal-opsin complex --> decrease in cGMP levels --> closure of membrane sodium channels --> hyperpolarization of photoreceptor cell.
|
|
|
What is the fovea?
|
Center of the retina; contains all cones.
|
|
|
What is the embryologic origin of the lens?
|
Surface ectoderm.
|
|
|
What may cause cataracts?
|
UV and/or high glucose levels.
|
|
|
Which layer of the eye carries the supportive vasculature?
|
Choriod
|
|
|
Which layer of the eye supports the shape?
|
Sclera
|
|
|
What produces the aqueous humor?
|
Ciliary body
|
|
|
Where do we find teh aqueous humor, in what compartment?
|
Anterior compartment, between the lens and the iris.
|
|
|
What is the name of the angle of the eye?
|
Iridocorneal angle
|
|
|
Where does the aqueous humor drain?
|
canal of Schlemm in the iridocorneal angle.
|
|
|
What causes glaucoma?
|
Intraocular pressure generated by blockage of the canal of Schlemm.
|
|
|
What are the two transduction systems / functions of the ear?
|
Audition and equilibrium
|
|
|
What is the embryonic origin of the external ear?
|
First two branchial arches.
|
|
|
What forms the three bones of teh middle ear?
|
First two arch cartilages.
|
|
|
What are the inner contents of the inner ear?
|
Membranous labyrinth, bony labyrinth
|
|
|
What is the function of the semicircular canal?
|
Provide rotational information to the cristae ampullaris
|
|
|
What structures pick up rotational information in the ear?
|
Cristae ampullaris in the inner ear
|
|
|
What structures pick up horizontal and vertical information in the inner ear?
|
Utricle for horizontal and saccule for vertical motion.
|
|
|
What is the structure in the ear that registers different frequencies?
|
Organ of corti. Stiffer hairs are closer to the tympanic membrane and detect higher frequencies, and softer hairs are further in and detect lower frequencies.
|
|
|
What is an integrin?
|
Connects a cell to the EC matrix around it.
|
|
|
Describe the cytoskeleton of an RBC.
|
Band 3 (an integrin) crosses the membrane, connects to ankyrin, and is stabilized by Band 4.1 which connects Band3 to spectrin.
|
|
|
Describe the cytoskeleton of a non-erythroid cell.
|
Actin serves as the integrin, alphaactinin cross-links actin, vinculin binds alpha-actinin to talin, which attaches integrin to the plasma membran.
|
|
|
Descrbe hereditary spherocytosis.
|
Spectrin deficiency/mutation, leads to misshapen RBC (spherocytes) --> anemia.
|
|
|
What are lipofuscin granules?
|
Residue of undigested matrials present in residual bodies.
|
|
|
Describe Tay-Sachs disease.
|
Common in Jewish children; accumulation of GM2 Gangliosides, due to a lysosomal enzyme deficiency, leads to major neural damage and early death.
|
|
|
Describe Hurler's syndrome.
|
Accumulation of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) in the heart, liver, brain, due to a lysosomal enzyme deficiency. Leads to neural damage, enlarged organs, deafness and early death.
|
|
|
Describe Zellweger syndrome.
|
Peroxisomal disorder which leads to very early death.
|
|
|
Describe adrenoleukodystrophy.
|
Peroxisomes unable to process fatty acids, leading to accumulation in nervous system and adrenal glands, impairing their function.
|
|
|
What is a major function of fibronectin?
|
Mediate cell adhesion via binding to fibronectin receptors (integrins).
|
|
|
What is a major function of laminin?
|
Mediates interactions between epithelial cells and the EC matrix by ahcnoring cell surface to basal lamina.
|
|
|
In the production of collagen, what events take place in the RER and in the Golgi?
|
RER: folding, hydroxylation of proline/lysine residues (require Vit C), triple helix formation. Golgi: addition of carbohydrates, secretory vesicles.
|
|
|
Describe Marfan syndrome.
|
Deficiency/defect in fibrillin, which is an important protein for elastic fibers. May lead to aortic rupturing. Aorta can rupture.
|
|
|
Describe Ehlers-Dnalos Sype IV syndrome.
|
Genetic defect in DNA transcription or mRNA translation for Type III collagen (reticular fibers). Often associated with ruptured bowels/arteries.
|
|
|
Describe immotile cilia syndrome.
|
Associated with dysfucntional dynein arms. Associated with reduced fertility / sterility, and lower respiratory infections.
|
|
|
Describe bullous pemphigoid.
|
Autoimmune; Ab against hemidesmisomes produced. Skin blisters and can cause epithelium to separate from underlying substratum.
|
|
|
What is the name of the protein that anchors Z disks?
|
Desmin
|
|
|
What protein assists in anchoring the thin filament to the Z-disk?
|
Nubulin
|
|
|
What molecules keeps the minus end of the thin filament from degenerating?
|
Tropomodulin
|
|
|
Descirbe Duchenne's muscular dystrophy (DMM).
|
Defect in dystrophin protein, sex linked, death before 20; skeletal muscle cells are replace by fatty cells and fibrous tissue.
|
|
|
Describe Amyotrophyic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
|
Degeneration of spinal cord neurons --> muscle atrophy and death due to respiratory failure.
|
|
|
How does botulism work?
|
Blocks ACh release.
|
|
|
What is the result of "Factor VIII" deficiency?
|
Hemophilia A, can be very dangerous; x-linked.
|
|
|
What is the result of vWF deficiency?
|
Antoher form of hemophilia, sometimes doesn't require treatment.
|
|
|
What differentiates Factor VIII deficience and vWF deficiency?
|
The level of severity. VIII deficiency is more sever with bleeding into joints, and requiring treatment more often.
|
|
|
Describe infectious mononucleosis.
|
Casued by EBV; affects young; kissing disease, can be life-threating in immune compromised individuals.
|
|
|
Describe Burkitt Lymphoma.
|
Caused by EBV; found in Africa, much more serious than mononucleousis.
|
|
|
Differentiate between acute and chronic leukemia.
|
Acute is in immature leukocytes and found more often in children; rapid onset, with anemia, high WBC count, many circulaing immature WBC, low platelet count. Chronic is slow onset, and inovlves relatively mature cells. Can have similar symptoms.
|
|
|
Differentiate between atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis.
|
Atherosclerosis is associated with dangerous plaque formations. Arteriorsclerosis is a hyaline thickening of blood vessels.
|
|
|
Describe rheumatic valve disease?
|
Starts off as rheumatic fever in children, leads to reduced elasticicty of heart valves adn causes either incompetence or stenosis.
|
|
|
What is DiGeorge syndrome?
|
Aka Congenital thymic aplasia. Abnormal cell-mediated immunity; tetany may also occur due to absence of PTH (parathyroid also absent in DiGeorge).
|
|
|
What types of infections characterize AIDS?
|
Kaposi sarcoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, secondary infetions.
|
|
|
What is Hodgkin disease?
|
Neoplastic formation of lymphocytes, mostly in young men.
|
|
|
What forms "Hassal's corpuscles" in the thymus?
|
Epithelial reticular cells.
|
|
|
Describe epidermolysis bullosa.
|
A group of hereditary skin diseases characterized by formation of blisters following minor trauma. Defects in keratinocyte intermediate filaments and in anchoring fibrils that attach the epidermis to the dermis.
|
|
|
What type of cell is associated with malignant melanoma?
|
Melanocytes.
|
|
|
What are keloids?
|
Hyperplastic scar tissue, common in people of african descent.
|
|
|
What is psoriasis?
|
Increased mitotic activity, and shorter than normal cell cycle leading to reddish skin with a whittish flakey layer on top.
|
|
|
Describe infant respiratory distress syndrome.
|
Aka hyaline membrane disease. Type II pneumocytes are not producing mature surfactant. Treat with glucocorticoids.
|
|
|
What is asbestosis?
|
Asbestos fibers deposit in alveolar ducts and alveoli and penetrate lung interstitum. Macrophaes are activated in a inflammatory response with leads to pulmonary fibrosis.
|
|
|
What is gluten enteropathy?
|
Gluten may have a destructive effect on intestinal tissue, reducing surface area. Treat with reduced gluten in diet.
|
|
|
Describe Hepatitis A.
|
Fecal to oral transmission. Usually not fatal, but can cause jaundice.
|
|
|
Describe Hepatitis B.
|
Transmitted by blood. More serious than A, can cause death.
|
|
|
What is a teratoma?
|
Germ cell tumors. There are three types: 1. mature, benign 2. monodermal 3. immature, fast growing and malignant
|
|
|
Describe cryptochordism.
|
Failure of testes to descend.
|
|
|
What is conjunctivitis?
|
Inflammation of conjunctiva, producing red sclera.
|
|
|
What is presbiopia?
|
Inability of eye to accomodate.
|
