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208 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
2. What is the number-one killer of American women?
Heart Disease
3. How many chambers does the heart contain?
4
4. The portion of the circulation governed by the right side of the heart is the _______________ circulation.
pulmanary
5. The left side of the heart pumps blood in the _______________ circulation.
se-stemic
6. The two upper chambers of the heart in which blood collects before passing to the lower chambers are called
the atrea
7. The large blood vessel through which waste-laden, oxygen-poor blood travels is called the
venicara
8. The large artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and distributes it to the rest of the body is called the
aorta
9. The largest artery in the body is the
aorta
10. Systole is the
contraction of the heart
11. Diastole is the
relaxation of the heart
11. Diastole is the
relaxation of the heart
12. The arteries that branch from the aorta and provide blood to the heart muscle itself are _______________ arteries.
corinary
13. The small blood vessels that connect the arteries and veins are the
capilarys
17. Blood cell fragments that are necessary for the clotting of blood are called
platelies
22. The form of cholesterol that carries cholesterol out from the liver to other parts of the body and leads to cholesterol deposits on the artery walls is
LDL
23. The form of cholesterol that draws cholesterol out of the walls of the arteries and returns it to the liver for recycling is
HDL
24. The National Cholesterol Education Program recommends that all adults, beginning at age 20, have their lipoproteins measured at least once every
5 years
25. A desirable level of total cholesterol for adults is less than _______________ mg/deciliter.
200
26. Which of the following combinations would place someone at greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
Low HDL
High LDL
27. It is estimated that patients can reduce their risk for heart attack by 2 percent for every _____ percent they reduce their total cholesterol.
1%
28. What is thought to be the closest thing we have to a magic bullet against heart disease?
exercise
30. The recommended level of LDL cholesterol for adults is
less than 100 mg per deciliter
32. Evidence suggests that after a heart attack the risk of _________ rises.
diabietes
34. Which of the following does NOT raise triglyceride levels?
low carbohyrdrate diet
38. The incidence of stroke more than doubles each decade after what age?
55
40. Compared to white Americans, the incidence of cardiovascular disease among African Americans is
higher
43. C-reactive protein is released into the bloodstream in response to
infilmation
44. Which of the following is associated with metabolic syndrome?
inselence reisistence
46. The LDL particle size that poses the greatest risk for CVD is
pattern B
47. Blood viscosity can be reduced by
donating blood regularly
50. According to the National Cholesterol Education Program guidelines’ TLC diet, saturated fat intake should be ___________ of total daily calories.
at 7% of less
51. When the heart contracts, called _____, blood pressure _____; when the heart relaxes, called _____, blood pressure _____.
sistol / increases / disotol / decreases
52. Which one of the following blood pressure readings would be considered optimal for a young adult?
110/70
53. A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to measure
blood pressure
54. The cutoff point for blood pressure at or above which an adult is diagnosed with hypertension is
140/90
56. A blood pressure reading of 121/81 is classified as
prehypertension
59. If an artery in a limb becomes blocked, it causes
PAD / perihitial arterial disease
60. When a coronary artery becomes blocked, the result is
a heart attack
61. Chest pain caused by lack of oxygen to the heart is called
angina
62. Damage to the heart muscle because of lack of blood supply is called
miocardial infaction
63. Symptoms of a myocardial infarction include
difficulty breathing
69. Most deaths from heart attacks occur within ___________ from the onset of symptoms.
2 hours
70. A test that measures the electrical activity of the heart is called a(n)
electro cardiogram
73. Consuming aspirin on a regular basis reduces the risk of
plattits forming cloats
74. Repeat clogging of an artery after balloon angioplasty is called
restenosis
75. Which of the following is a treatment for heart disease?
baloon angeila plastic
76. A cerebrovascular accident is another name for a
stroke
77. The type of stroke that is caused by a rupture of blood vessels is called
hemoragic
78. Atherosclerosis is most closely associated with which type of stroke?
thrombotic
79. A wandering clot that causes a stroke is called a(n)
embolus
81. A hemorrhagic stroke may occur as a result of
an aneurysm
82. A blood-filled pocket bulging out from a weak spot in the artery wall is called a(n)
an aneurysm
84. A test that uses a computer to construct a picture of the brain using X ray images is
a ct scan
92. Rheumatic fever is a disease process that begins with
strepthroat
98. Which of the following fats also contains cholesterol?
butter
99. The National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) recommends that daily cholesterol intake not exceed
300 mg
100. Which of the following is a good source of fiber in the diet?
kidney beans
101. Which of the following is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?
salmon
103. People with no CVD risk factors should have their blood pressure measured by a professional
once every 2 years
105. How often should people over 20 have their cholesterol checked?
every 5 years
1. Which of the following kills more people than cancer does?
none
2. Which of the following factors contributes to about 30 percent of all cancer deaths?
tobacco use
4. A tumor that is NOT cancerous is called
benine
7. When a malignant tumor spreads to sites distant from the primary tumor, the process is known as
motastasis
9. The most common form of cancer is
carisnoma
11. Cancers arising from connective and fibrous tissues such as bone, cartilage, or muscle are called
sarcomas
12. Sarcomas arise from
connection and fibrous tissue
13. Leukemia is cancer of the
blood forming cells
14. A physician who specializes in the study of tumors is known as a(n)
an oncologist
16. The most common cause of cancer death in the United States is
lung cancer
18. Smoking is responsible for what percentage of lung cancer?
87%
19. Which of the following poses the greatest threat for the development of lung cancer among nonsmokers?
exposure to enviorment tobacco smoke
22. A technique that detects lung cancer earlier than X-rays do is
spiral ct scans
23. When there are no symptoms or other evidence of previously diagnosed disease, a cancer patient is said to
be in remission
24. One type of cancer that seems to be linked to a diet high in red meat is
colon cancer
25. After what age should a stool blood test be a standard annual screening test?
50
26. Sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy is recommended to screen for ____________ cancer.
colon and rectile
28. A signal of colon and rectal cancer is
rectal bleeding
29. The most common form of cancer in women is ____________ cancer; the most common cause of cancer death in women is ____________.
breast
33. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for breast cancer?
early motherhood
34. The American Cancer Society recommends routine use of mammography to detect breast cancer for women over age
40
36. Techniques for early detection of prostate cancer include a digital rectal exam and
a prostate spectorila antigen blood test
PSA
38. The infection that puts women at risk for cervical cancer is
HPV
39. Scraping cells from the cervix for examination to screen for cancerous changes is called
pap test
40. It is recommended that girls get an HPV/cervical cancer vaccine at what age?
11-12 years
41. In some cases, cervical dysplasia develops into
cervical cancer
42. Cancer of the lining of the uterus is called ____________ cancer.
indometrial
46. Ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation
can cause immediate sunburns
48. The most dangerous form of skin cancer is
melanoma
49. _____________ are more likely to develop and die from melanoma.
men
55. The most common treatment for skin cancer is
surgical removal
61. Which of the following cancers is significantly more prevalent outside the United States?
stomach cancer
64. A section of DNA that controls the production of a particular protein is a
gene
66. Ultraviolet rays are
cancer initiators
67. Estrogen is an example of a
cancer promoter
68. A diet high in ________ is linked to increased risk of colon, stomach, and prostate cancers.
fat and meat
69. Smoking is responsible for about ____ of ALL cancer deaths.
30%
70. Naturally occurring substances found in plant foods that help prevent chronic diseases are
phyto chemicals
71. Which one of the following is a good source of phytochemicals?
broccali
72. Diets high in which of the following foods are associated with increased risk of cancer?
red meats
74. Obesity increases a persons risk of
breast and colon cancer
75. Fifteen percent of the world’s cancers are caused by
microbes
76. A potentially dangerous additive found in processed meats is
nitrate
79. Methods for precise visualization of tumors do NOT include
conventrioral xray
80. A test using computerized X ray images to detect tumors is called a(n)
ct scan
1. An organism that causes disease is a(n)
pathogen
3. Vessels and organs that pick up excess fluids, filter out disease-causing organisms and other waste products, and return cleansed fluid to the general circulation belong to the _______________ system.
lyphatic
4. An infection that travels throughout the body is called
systemic
6. One of the best ways to break the chain of infection is to
wash hands frequently
7. Tears, saliva, and vaginal secretions are rich in ________ and _________ that break down and destroy many microorganisms.
antibodys / enzymes
8. The body’s first line of defense against invasion of organisms is
skin
10. Microscopic, hairlike structures that sweep mucus and foreign substances out of the lungs are called
a cilia
11. White blood cells are produced in the
bone marrow
12. A type of white blood cell that engulfs foreign organisms and infected, damaged, or aged cells, and that is particularly prevalent during the inflammatory response is a
nuetrophil
13. Macrophages
act as scavengers
14. White blood cells that directly destroy virus-infected and cancerous cells are _________ cells.
natural killer
18. Swollen lymph nodes are an indication of
infection
19. Lymphocytes that stimulate other lymphocytes to increase are called _____________ cells.
helper T
20. Lymphocytes that can get rid of cells of the body that have been invaded by foreign organisms or have turned cancerous are called
killer t cells
21. Chemicals responsible for the dilation and increased permeability of blood vessels in allergic reactions are called
histomines
22. Lymphocytes that produce antibodies are called _______________ cells.
B
23. A marker on the surface of a foreign substance that triggers the immune response is called a(n)
antigen
24. Lymphocytes generated during an initial infection that circulate in the body for years and quickly destroy the specific antigens if they ever appear again are called ____________ cells.
memory t cells
26. The release of histamines does NOT cause _______________ in the affected area.
infection
27. During this type of immune system response, the body’s defense system literally eats invading pathogens.
natural immunity
28. T and B cells change after contact with the pathogen in a(n) _______________ immune response.
aquired
29. Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells are part of the ________ response to invading pathogens
naturaed
30. Antibodies have complementary surface markers that work with _______ like a lock and key.
antigens
34. Cell-mediated immune response
is a function of killer T cells
36. The phase of the immune response in which suppressor T cells halt the immune response and restore the body’s natural balance is called
slow down
37. The ability of memory lymphocytes to remember previous infections is known as
aquired immunituy
39. Lynette has begun feeling feverish and has a sore throat. Which phase of the immune response is she experiencing?
prodromal
41. A preparation of killed or weakened pathogens injected or taken orally to stimulate the body to produce antibodies is called a(n
vaccine
43. Vaccines made from pathogens that have been killed in the laboratory, yet retain their ability to stimulate the production of antibodies, are used to provide protection against
influenza
44. Vaccines confer _______________ immunity.
active
45. A person who is exposed to a disease and who is subsequently injected with antibodies produced by others has been given
passive immunity
46. Serum that contains a variety of antibodies and is injected to provide temporary immunity is called
gamma globulin
47. When the body recognizes a relatively harmless substance as a dangerous antigen and mounts an immune response, this response is called
an allergic reaction
48. Substances that provoke allergies are known as
allergens
49. Which of the following is NOT considered a common allergen?
virus's
50. The substance that increases the inflammatory response and the secretion of mucus following exposure to an allergen is
histimine
52. Key components of a typical asthma attack include all of the following, EXCEPT
anaphylaxis
54. Streptococcus and staphylococcus are examples of
bacteria
56. Johnny has a red, sore throat with white patches on the tonsils, swollen lymph nodes, fever, and a headache. Which of the following bacteria caused Johnny’s symptoms?
stepylococus
57. A common bacterium found on the skin in healthy people, but capable of causing infection if it enters the body, is
staffalococus, staff
60. Lyme disease is transmitted by a
deer tick
62. Tetanus is also known as
lock jaw
64. Generally, antibiotics are useful against
bacteria
65. Viral diseases are the most common form of _______________ disease.
contagious
66. Colds are almost always transmitted by
hand to hand contact
68. Influenza is highly contagious and spread via
respiratory droplets
70. A vaccine is available to prevent infection by
influenza virus
73. Viral encephalitis causes inflammation of the tissue in the
brain
74. The mildest form of hepatitis is hepatitis
a
75. Hepatitis B is transmitted mainly by
intimate sexual contact
76. Yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes associated with hepatitis is called
Jondus
77. Which virus can cause irreversible paralysis and death in some infected individuals?
pollio myolitus
78. Most rabies-related deaths in the United State are traced to bites or scratches from
bats
79. Warts on the hands are caused by infection with a type of
virus
80. Molds, mushrooms, and yeasts belong to which classification?
fungi
83. Microscopic, single-celled organisms that often cause recurrent diseases are called
protozoa
85. The largest organisms that can enter the body to cause infection are
parasitic worms
86. An infectious agent that consists only of protein is a
prion
88. Which of the following infections is transmitted by a mosquito bite?
west nile virus
89. An example of an infection that was spread widely via air travel by infected people is
sars/ sever acute respiratory syndrome
2. Which country has the highest STD rate of any developed nation?
united states
5. The average time span between the initial HIV infection and the onset of disease symptoms in untreated people is _______________ years.
11 years
6. Shortly after HIV infection, about 50 percent of those infected will develop
flu like symptoms
11. Studies have found that women who frequently used _______________ for contraception were at greater risk for HIV transmission.
spermicides with iroxide / non oxyn1-9
14. The transmission of HIV from mother to child is called
paranatal
15. Vertical transmission of HIV is
mother to child
16. Worldwide, the most common route of HIV infection is
heterosexual content
19. The infection most often seen in people with HIV infection is
pnumositis carniphemonaina
21. The initial screening test for HIV antibodies is the
elisa test
23. The status of the immune system in someone with HIV infection can be monitored by checking
CD4 t cell counts
24. In people with HIV infection, the amount of virus in the body can be measured with a(n)
HIV-RNA- assay
25. A test that shows how fast HIV from a patient’s blood sample can reproduce itself is known as
HIV replication capacity
28. A widely used drug in the treatment of HIV infection that inhibits reproduction of the virus is
Zydogats AZT
30. A class of antiviral drugs that block HIV from entering and infecting cells is known as
entry inhibitors
31. All of the following guidelines are important when considering HIV testing, EXCEPT that you should
wait for symptoms to appear
32. Long-term antiviral therapy for HIV infection
very expensive
33. Drugs frequently used to treat opportunistic infections such as pneumonia and tuberculosis are
antibiotics
36. Which of the following will NOT offer a high protection against HIV transmission during oral sex?
oral conriceptives
37. Chlamydia is the most prevalent _______________ STD.
bacterial
38. Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of _______________ in men under age 35.
epididimytus
44. Gonococcal conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the
eye lid
47. An infection that progresses from the vagina and cervix to infect the pelvic cavity and fallopian tubes is called
pelvic inflamatory disease
48. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common complication of
gonorrheu and chalmydia
50. The organism that causes genital warts is
HPV
52. The family of viruses that causes genital warts is
HPV
53. The incubation period of HPV is
1 month to 2 years from contact
54. Which of the following is linked to the development of cervical cancer?
genital HPV infection
55. HPV infection in pregnant women can be transmitted to the newborn, occasionally causing warts to form on the infant’s
vocal chords
58. The herpes virus most often responsible for cold sores is
HSV1
59. Genital herpes is most often caused by
HSV2
63. A drug used to treat herpes is
acyclovir
65. Inflammation of the liver is known as
hepitius
69. The spiral-shaped organism that causes syphilis is a
bacterium
70. A chancre is a sign of
syphilis
75. A common sexually transmitted disease caused by an organism is
trichomoniasis
77. If left untreated, trichomoniasis can increase the risk of
HIV transmission
78. The drug of choice in treating trichomoniasis is
Flagyl
79. The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of reproductive age is
bacterial vaginosis
81. A highly contagious parasitic STD is
pubic lice
82. Which of the following often occurs after a change in sexual partners?
bacterial vaginosis
83. Which of the following has been associated with an increased risk of bacterial vaginosis?
douching
84. Men who have sex with other men should be vaccinated for
hepitidus A
86. The most effective approach to avoiding STDs is
abstinence