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50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
At what level are first responders trained to be able to implement the planned response to mitigate or control a release from a safe distance (initiate defensive actions to lessen the harmful incident) and keep it from spreading?

A. Awareness Level
B. Operations Level
C. Hazmat Technician Level
D. Hazmat Specialist Level
B. Operations Level
Pipeline markers in the United States include ______________.

A. Information describing the transported commodity
B. Company nickname
C. Flag of the originating country
D. Location of the SDS
A. Information describing the transported commodity
Which section of the orange pages provides general information regarding immediate isolation of the incident site and recommended type of protective clothing and respiratory protection?

A. Fire section
B. Spill or leak section
C. Public safety section
D. Potential hazards section
C. Public safety section
Which of the following statements regarding detection of reactives is MOST accurate?

A. There is no meter or device designed to detect reactive materials.
B. Responders need to look for oxygen levels that cannot be accounted for.
C. Responders can use infrared cameras to detect the presence of reactives.
D. Chemical reactions of concern to emergency responders will emit extremely low temperatures.
A. There is no meter or device designed to detect reactive materials.
Which of the following involves documenting the incident and using this information to evaluate the response?

A. Analysis
B. Recovery
C. Evaluation
D. Termination
D. Termination
Incident management systems enable emergency personnel to effectively manage:

A. any emergency incident.
B. most emergency incidents
C. most hazardous materials incidents.
D. emergency incidents without injuries.
A. any emergency incident.
Vapor pressure can be viewed as the measure of the tendency of a substance to:

A. boil
B. explode
C. combust
D. evaporate
D. evaporate
Which of the following is TRUE of blood agents?

A. Burn and blister the skin.
B. Temporarily make people unable to function.
C. Interfere with the body’s ability to use oxygen.
D. Attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses.
C. Interfere with the body’s ability to use oxygen.
Which of the following items is LEAST likely to affect rescue and recovery operations?

A. Level of training
B. Type of PPE available
C. Number of available responders
D. Possibility of property damage by rescue operations.
D. Possibility of property damage by rescue operations.
Which of the following is a responder’s responsibility at rescue operations?

A. Designate team assignments
B. Ensure accountability and tracking of personnel
C. Brief unit members of the objective and required tasks
D. Operate within the structure of the incident command system.
D. Operate within the structure of the incident command system.
Which of the following statements regarding pressure tank cars is MOST accurate?

A. Their fittings are visible at the sides of the car.
B. Their fittings are visible at the top and/or bottom of the car.
C. Their fittings are in ground-level cabinets on the sides of the car.
D. Their fittings are out of sight inside protective housings on the top of the tank.
D. Their fittings are out of sight inside protective housings on the top of the tank.
The General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO) explains that all hazardous materials incidents:

A. are the same
B. are very different
C. have common elements
D. require the same mitigation actions
C. have common elements
Which of the following may be used to order an evacuation?

A. Sound audible warning devices
B. Use a bullhorn to broadcast the message
C. Transmit the message by pager or cell phone
D. Transfer the message through the Safety Officer
A. Sound audible warning devices
SOPs for response to illicit labs need to follow rules established by:

A. NFPA 472
B. NFPA 1001
C. OSHA 1910.120
D. OSHA 1920.150
C. OSHA 1910.120
During which response phase are life safety objectives met?

A. Tactical
B. Operational
C. Crime scene
D. Remediation
B. Operational
Which spill control tactic is only used on water-soluble gases?

A. Dispersion
B. Ventilation
C. Dissolution
D. Neutralization
C. Dissolution
Sterilization is an example of:

A. dry decontamination
B. wet decontamination
C. physical decontamination
D. chemical decontamination
D. chemical decontamination
In order to protect the environment, all released materials and runoff need to be confined until:

A. the incident is over
B. their effect can be determined
C. wildlife in the area can be removed
D. at least one week after the initial incident
B. their effect can be determined
Which of the following mechanical hazards is the result of an explosion, bomb, or IED?

A. Striking hazards
B. Friction hazards
C. Trauma hazards
D. Abrasive hazards
A. Striking hazards
Which blood agent dissolves readily in organic solvents?

A. Arsine
B. Hydrogen cyanide
C. Cyanogen chloride
D. Potassium chloride
C. Cyanogen chloride
What common ingredient is found at explosives labs?

A. Acetone
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Anhydrous ammonia
A. Acetone
What is a limitation of oxidizer detectors?

A. High error rate
B. Will NOT detect inorganic compounds
C. Responder must be in close proximity
D. Too much oxygen can damage sensors
C. Responder must be in close proximity
Fluoroprotein foam maintains:

A. low viscosity at low temperatures
B. high viscosity at low temperatures
C. low viscosity at high temperatures
D. high viscosity at high temperatures
A. low viscosity at low temperatures
Which of the following is minimum monitoring and detection equipment for illicit labs?

A. Oxygen meter
B. Multi-gas meter
C. Gas-filled detector
D. Colorimetric indictor tubes
A. Oxygen meter
Chemical Abstract Service® Numbers are assigned to which of the following products?

A. Polymers
B. Flammable liquids
C. Combustible liquids
D. Radioactive materials
A. Polymers
What terms are used to define capacity by the U.S. DOT?

A. Bulk and nonbulk
B. Pressure and nonpressure
C. Bulk-capacity and transportation-capacity
D. Fixed-facility and transportation packaging
A. Bulk and nonbulk
Which of the following statements regarding predetermined procedures is MOST accurate?

A. The principles are similar for every predetermined procedure.
B. The procedures are similar for every predetermined procedure.
C. The principles are exactly the same for every predetermined procedure.
D. The procedures are exactly the same for every predetermined procedure.
A. The principles are similar for every predetermined procedure.
Which type of breach occurs when a crack grows rapidly and breaks the container into 2 or more relatively large pieces?

A. Puncture
B. Split
C. Runaway cracking
D. Disintegration
C. Runaway cracking
Which of the following is a function of the incident commander (IC) at a hazmat incident?

A. Perform decontamination
B. Establish a site safety plan
C. Revise the IAP as necessary
D. Review the IAP for safety issues
B. Establish a site safety plan
Which of the following circumstances calls for defensive operations?

A. Explosions are imminent
B. Serious container damage threatens a massive release
C. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders
D. Responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin
D. Responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin
IEDs are typically categorized by their:

A. container
B. size and shape
C. type of explosive
D. detonating device
A. container
In the event of a _________, isolation and containment issues will primarily deal with managing infected victims.

A. Covert attack
B. Pandemic
C. Radiological attack
D. B & C
A. Covert attack
Which of the following statements regarding high-temperature protective clothing is MOST accurate?

A. It has limited use with biological hazards.
B. It has limited use with radiological hazards.
C. It is designed for long-term, high-temperature exposures.
D. It is designed for short-term, high-temperature exposures.
D. It is designed for short-term, high-temperature exposures.
Which of the following is a duty of law enforcement at illicit labs?

A. Collecting evidence
B. Decontaminating personnel
C. Photographing all evidence at the crime scene
D. Rendering safe all explosive ordnance or booby traps
D. Rendering safe all explosive ordnance or booby traps
Which of the following are gases that displace the oxygen necessary for breathing?

A. Toxic asphyxiants
B. Simple asphyxiants
C. Chronic asphyxiants
D. Chemical asphyxiants
B. Simple asphyxiants
Protection of property and the environment is what type of control tactic?

A. Offensive
B. Defensive
C. Intervention
D. Non-intervention
B. Defensive
Which of the following NRF groups is responsible for coordinating federal assistance and supporting incident management activities locally?

A. Homeland Security Council
B. Unified Coordination Group
C. Regional Response Coordination Center
D. Interagency Incident Management Group
B. Unified Coordination Group
Which of the following chemicals comprise the largest usage class in the industry?

A. Irritants
B. Corrosives
C. Toxic chemicals
D. Poisonous chemicals
B. Corrosives
The Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA) requires the signal word WARNING to indicate which degree of hazard?

A. Minor health effects
B. Highest degree of hazard
C. Moderate hazards such as significant health effects
D. In addition to DANGER on labels of highly toxic materials
C. Moderate hazards such as significant health effects
In which type of technical decontamination does the hazardous material interact with the surface of a sorbent material?

A. Dilution
B. Adsorption
C. Absorption
D. Chemical degradation
B. Adsorption
According to GEBMO, which of the following is a question that should be asked by first responders at hazmat incidents?

A. What resources are nearby?
B. How long will the incident last?
C. What is stressing the container?
D. What type of foam is necessary?
C. What is stressing the container?
Some of the more widely used specialized marking systems for hazardous materials used in North America include?

A. NFPA 704
B. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) safety symbols
C. American Petroleum Institute (API) markings
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following provide full body protection against fragmentation, overpressure, impact, and heat?

A. Body armor
B. Bomb disposal suits
C. Structural firefighting gear
D. Chemical protective clothing (CPC)
B. Bomb disposal suits
What effect does fire control have on the damage, harm, and effect of fire at hazardous materials incidents?

A. Minimizes all aspects
B. Maximizes all aspects
C. Has no effect on any aspects
D. Completely eliminates all aspects
A. Minimizes all aspects
Which of the following statements regarding PAPRs is MOST accurate?

A. They should be used during initial emergency operations.
B. They offer a greater degree of safety than standards APRs.
C. They are only used where at least 20.5 percent oxygen is present.
D. They are safe to wear in atmospheres where potential respiratory hazards are unidentified.
B. They offer a greater degree of safety than standards APRs.
Which of the following is commonly used to chemically degrade a hazardous material?

A. Vinegar
B. Baking powder
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Household oven cleaner
C. Isopropyl alcohol
Which actions should be taken by all agencies that have a jurisdictional responsibility at a multijurisdictional incident?

A. Use only local resources
B. Ensure integrated tactical operations
C. Create contact lists for emergency response centers
D. Determine specific steps for mitigating each type of incident
B. Ensure integrated tactical operations
Initial isolation distances will always be at least ___ feet (m).

A. 50 (15)
B. 100 (30)
C. 150 (45)
D. 200 (60)
B. 100 (30)
Which IMS hazmat position supervises all companies and personnel operating in the hazardous area?

A. Entry leader
B. Assistant Safety Officer
C. Site Access Control Leader
D. Hazardous Materials Branch Director/Group Supervisor
A. Entry leader
Which type of technical decontamination reduces the number of microorganisms to a safe level?

A. Sterilization
B. Sanitization
C. Disinfection
D. Neutralization
B. Sanitization