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126 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Information and guidance necessary
to manage a uniform policy of maintenance and repair of ships is provided by which of the following programs? 1. 3-M 2. QA 3. PMS 4. PQS |
2. QA
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The QA manual for the surface fleet
describes what level of QA requirements? 1. Maximum 2. Minimum 3. Detailed 4. Basic |
2. Minimum
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The instructions in the basic QA
manual are general in nature for which of the following reasons? 1. Because of the wide range of ship types 2. Because of the wide range of equipment types 3. Because of the number of resources available for repair and maintenance 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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What are the two key elements of the
Navy’s QA program? 1. Administration and job execution 2. Administration and supervision 3. Job execution and supervision 4. Job execution and job training |
1. Administration and job execution
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Which of the following goals are NOT
common to all Navy QA programs? 1. To improve the quality of maintenance 2. To cut unnecessary man-hour and dollar expense 3. To set up realistic material requirements 4. To eliminate the need for technical documentation |
4. To eliminate the need for
technical documentation |
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The QA program for COMNAVSURFLANTincludes a total of how many levels
of responsibility? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
1. Five
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The QA officer (QAO) is responsible
directly to which of the following officials? 1. TYCOM 2. SQCI 3. CO 4. XO |
3. CO
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The QAO has which of the following
responsibilities? 1. Coordinating the ship’s QA training program 2. Conducting QA audits 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Controlling the force QA program |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
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The ship quality control inspector
(SQCI) has all of the following responsibilities EXCEPT which one? 1. Witnessing and documenting all tests 2. Inspecting all work for compliance with specifications 3. Ensuring failed test results are reported and recorded 4. Repairing the failed equipment |
4. Repairing the failed equipment
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Which of the following terms are
often misunderstood in the field of QA? 1. Level of assurance and level of availability 2. Level of assurance and level of essentiality 3. Level of essentiality and level of availability 4. Level of availability and level of nonavailability |
2. Level of assurance and level of
essentiality |
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QA consists of a total of how many
levels of quality verification requirements? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
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What QA level provides the least
amount of quality control? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
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QA covers all events from the start
of a maintenance action to its completion. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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On board ship, what is the primary
vehicle for record keeping? 1. PQS system 2. 3–M systems 3. QA system 4. 2–M system |
2. 3–M systems
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Which of the following engineering
logs are considered to be legal records? 1. Engineering Log and Electrical Log 2. Engineering Log and MRG Log 3. Engineering Log and Engineer’s Bell Book 4. Engineer’s Bell Book and MRG Log |
3. Engineering Log and Engineer’s
Bell Book |
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An error in the Engineering Log is
corrected in what way? 1. The error is erased completely and the correct entry is made 2. The error is overlined and initialed by the person who prepared the original entry 3. The error is overlined and initialed by the chief engineer 4. The error is scratched out and the correct entry is made to the right of the error |
2. The error is overlined and
initialed by the person who prepared the original entry |
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After the CO signs the Engineer’s
Bell Book, no changes can be made to the book without permission from what authority? 1. CO 2. XO 3. Engineer officer 4. Log custodian |
1. CO
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On a gas turbine–powered ship, which
of the following logs are commonly used for recording and maintaining data necessary for proper water conditions in d waste heat steam plant? 1. Cover Sheet and Monthly Boiler Data Log 2. Feedwater Chemistry Worksheet/Log 3. Waste Heat Boiler Water Chemistry Worksheet/Log 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Which of the following boiler water
and feedwater logs should contain the boiler safety valve settings? 1. Cover Sheet and Monthly Boiler Data Log 2. Feedwater Chemistry Worksheet/Log 3. Waste Heat Boiler Water Chemistry Worksheet/Log 4. Reserve and Makeup Feedwater Test Log |
1. Cover Sheet and Monthly Boiler
Data Log |
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For which of the following fuels are
the fuel quality requirements more critical and extensive than for the other fuels? 1. JP–5 2. Naval distillate 3. F–76 4. NATO F–75 |
1. JP–5
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Which of the following activities
must maintain marine gas turbine records? 1. Depots only 2. Ships only 3. All facilities having custody of gas turbine equipment 4. Shipyards only |
3. All facilities having custody of
gas turbine equipment |
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Which of the following NSTM chapters
includes the procedures for maintaining marine gas turbine equipment service records (MGTESRs)? 1. Chapter 220 2. Chapter 234 3. Chapter 244 4. Chapter 262 |
2. Chapter 234
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Which of the following activities
starts the MGTESR? 1. The ship receiving the gas turbine engine 2. The shipyard 3. The manufacturer 4. The squadron receiving the gas turbine engine |
3. The manufacturer
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When a GTE is removed from the ship,
what happens to its associated MGTESR? 1. It is sent to an archives file 2. It is transferred with the GTE 3. It is returned to the manufacturer 4. It is destroyed |
2. It is transferred with the GTE
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A standard MGTESR binder consists of
what total number of separate sections? 1. 5 2. 8 3. 10 4. 12 |
3. 10
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In which of the following sections
of the MGTESR binder can you find a chronological record of nonrepair activities where the GTE was installed? 1. MGTE Operating Record 2. MGTE Inspection Record 3. Cover Sheet 4. MGTE Miscellaneous/History |
3. Cover Sheet
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A GTE start should be recorded on
the MGTE Operating Log for which of the following events? 1. The GTE successfully goes through the start cycle to idle 2. The GTE is motored 3. The GTE has a hung start 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
1. The GTE successfully goes
through the start cycle to idle |
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Which of the following entries are
NOT made on the MGTE Inspection Record? 1. Special inspections made on the gas turbine equipment 2. Conditional inspections made on the gas turbine equipment 3. Conditional inspections made on the gas turbine engine 4. Periodic inspections required by PMS |
4. Periodic inspections required by
PMS |
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In what section of the MGTSR are
engine lay-up procedures recorded? 1. MGTE Technical Directives 2. MGTE Record of Rework 3. MGTE Selected Component Record 4. MGTE Miscellaneous/History |
4. MGTE Miscellaneous/History
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What authority prescribes the
required forms a ship must use to account for the daily fresh water and fuel usage? 1. TYCOM 2. CO 3. XO 4. Chief engineer |
1. TYCOM
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At what interval does the CO receive
a fuel and water report? 1. Monthly 2. Weekly 3. Daily 4. Hourly |
3. Daily
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When verifying operating records,
you should check for all of the following details EXCEPT which one? 1. That records are free from erasures 2. That out–of-limits entries are circled 3. That all readings and entries are legible 4. That out-of–limits entries are lined out |
4. That out-of–limits entries are
lined out |
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What is the quickest form of written
communication used in the Navy? 1. Correspondence 2. Message 3. Tickler 4. Letter |
2. Message
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What method should ships use to
notify the NAVSEACEN or TYCOM of nonurgent matters pertaining to PMS? 1. PMS feedback report 2. Correspondence 3. Naval message 4. OPNAV 4790/2L |
1. PMS feedback report
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The instructions for preparing and
submitting a PMS feedback report (FBR) located in what part of the report? 1. On the front of the first copy 2. On the back of the first copy 3. On the front of the last copy 4. On the back of the last copy |
4. On the back of the last copy
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While performing PMS on a piece Of
equipment, you notice a specific tool is required that is not listed on the PMS card. What category block on the PMS FBR should you use to indicate this discrepancy? 1. A 2. B 3. Either 1 or 2 above, depending on the discrepancy 4. C |
2. B
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The number of entries allowed on a
single EGL page is restricted to the number of work items that can be completed within what maximum number of work days? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
1. 1
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Which of the following diagrams will
show the individual connections within a unit and the physical arrangement of the components? 1. Pictorial wiring diagram 2. Schematic diagram 3. Wiring diagram 4. Block diagram |
3. Wiring diagram
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Which of the following diagrams will
show the outlines of a ship and the location of connection boxes and cable runs? 1. Single line diagram Which of the following diagrams will show the outlines of a ship and the location of connection boxes and cable runs? 1. Single line diagram 2. Isometric wiring diagram 3. Elementary wiring diagram 4. Pictorial wiring diagram 3. Elementary wiring diagram 4. Pictorial wiring diagram |
Which of the following diagrams will
show the outlines of a ship and the location of connection boxes and cable runs? 1. Single line diagram 2. Isometric wiring diagram 3. Elementary wiring diagram 4. Pictorial wiring diagram |
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Because they represent more complex
circuitry and systems than electronic prints, electrical prints are more difficult to read. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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What are the two types of logic
diagrams? 1. Basic and detailed 2. Basic and complex 3. Detailed and complex 4. Detailed and perplex |
1. Basic and detailed
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Which of the following logic
diagrams will show specific pin numbers, socket locations, and test points? 1. Basic 2. Block 3. Schematic 4. Detailed |
4. Detailed
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On gas turbine-powered ships, what
is the purpose of a battery backup system? 1. To provide normal power to vital equipment 2. To provide alternate, long-term power to vital equipment 3. To provide constant ac power to vital equipment when normal power fails 4. To provide alternate, short-term power to vital equipment |
4. To provide alternate, short-term
power to vital equipment |
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How is the rapid method of
transferring the load to the battery backup system accomplished? 1. By manual switching 2. By electronic switching 3. By mechanical switching 4. By electromechanical switching |
2. By electronic switching
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On the CG-47 class ships, the UPS
system can supply a nominal value of (a) how many volts dc for the duration of (b) how many minutes? 1. (a) 130 V (b) 30 min 2. (a) 130 v (b) 40 min 3. (a) 150 V (b) 30 min 4. (a) 150 v (b) 40 min |
3. (a) 150 V (b) 30 min
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On DD-963 class ships, the UPS
system consists of what type of storage batteries? 2. Lead-calcium 3. Nickel-cadmium 4. Silver-zinc |
1. Lead-acid
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On a CG-47 class ship, an alarm will
sound at the EPCC when the UPS battery voltage drops below what minimum value? 1. 112 V dc 2. 122 V dc 3. 133 V dc 4. 145 V dc |
2. 122 V dc
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On a CG-47 class ship, a discharged
UPS battery bank can be recharged within what minimum number of hours? 1. 12 2. 2 3. 8 4. 4 |
3. 8
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On a DD-963 class ship, what is the
input power to the battery charger? 1. 115-V ac, 60-Hz 2. 220-V ac, 60–Hz 3. 240-V ac, 60-Hz 4. 450-V ac, 60-Hz |
4. 450-V ac, 60-Hz
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On the CG–47 and DD–963 class ships,
the UPS batteries are connected in what configuration? 1. 8 batteries in series, 1 spare 2. 8 batteries in parallel, 1 spare 3. 9 batteries in series 4. 9 batteries in parallel |
1. 8 batteries in series, 1 spare
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On a CG-47 ship, noncritical loads
are shed by the internal power supplies after the UPS system has been operating a total of how many minutes? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
3. 3
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On the DDG–993 class ship, the
battery charger circuit is electrically interlocked with the UPS battery room ventilation system for what primary reason? 1. To prevent the buildup of hydrogen when the ventilation is secured 2. To prevent the buildup of heat when the ventilation is secured 3. To prevent the buildup of oxygen when the ventilation is secured 4. To prevent the buildup of nitrogen when the ventilation is secured |
1. To prevent the buildup of
hydrogen when the ventilation is secured |
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The UPS system on which of the
following ship classes contains a 120–V dc to 120–V ac inverter? 1. DD–963 2. DDG-993 3. CG–47 4. FFG–7 |
4. FFG–7
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The UPS system on the FFG–7 class
ships is located in what compartment? 1. MER 2. AMR 2 3. AMR 3 4. CCS |
1. MER
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The UPS system on the FFG–7 class
ships consists of (a) how many storage batteries rated at (b) how many volts each? 1. (a) 20 (b) 6 V 2. (a) 20 (b) 12 V 3. (a) 24 (b) 6 V 4. (a) 24 (b) 12 V |
1. (a) 20 (b) 6 V
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On the FFG–7 class ships, which of
the following modes of the UPS system can be selected by using the mode switch? 1. Normal, alternate, automatic, and off 2. Normal, alternate, automatic, and on 3. Normal, emergency, automatic, and off 4. Normal, emergency, automatic, and on |
1. Normal, alternate, automatic,
and off |
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On the FFG-7 class ships, to prevent
damage to the UPS system inverter, 120 V dc must be applied to the oscillator before the 120 V dc is applied to the inverter. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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On a DDG-51 class ship, which of the
following consoles is NOT protected by the UPS system? 1. SCU–1 2. BCU 3. EPCC 4. PACC |
2. BCU
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On the DDG-51 class ships, the UPS
battery cells will last what maximum period of time? 1. 15 min 2. 30 min 3. 45 min 4. 60 min |
2. 30 min
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On the DDG–51 class ships, what are
the power requirements for the MCS consoles? 1. Single phase, 115 V ac, 60 Hz only 2. 3 phase, 115 V ac, 60 Hz only 3. Single and 3 phase, 115 V ac, 60 Hz 4. Single and 3 phase, 450 V ac, 60 Hz |
3. Single and 3 phase, 115 V ac, 60
Hz |
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On the DDG-5l class ships, the UPS
can supply a nominal value of how many volts? 1. 130 V dc 2. 130 V ac 3. 155 V dc 4. 155 V ac |
3. 155 V dc
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On a DDG-51 class ship’s UPS, the
normal 3–phase voltage is rectified to the proper dc voltage in what component? 1. Power transformer 2. Power conditioner 3. Power rectifier 4. Silicon rectifier |
2. Power conditioner
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Specific gravity of battery
electrolyte increases during discharge and decreases during charging. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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You can determine the state of
charge of a sealed battery by using what method? 1. By measuring the battery’s open–circuit voltage 2. By measuring the battery’s closed–circuit voltage 3. By testing the specific gravity on the of the electrolyte of the battery 4. By checking the battery’s vent indicator |
3. By testing the specific gravity on the
of the electrolyte of the battery |
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What is the proper electrolyte level
of an UPS storage battery? 1. 1/4 in. above the plates 2. 1/2 in. above the plates 3. 3/8 in. above the plates 4. 3/4 in. above the plates |
3. 3/8 in. above the plates
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To remove accumulated battery acid,
you should wipe the case clean with a cloth moistened with which of the following solutions? 1. Diluted amnonia 2. Bicarbonate 3. Either 1 or 2 depending on the availibility of materials 4. Alcohol |
3. Either 1 or 2 depending on the availibility of materials
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Which of the following gas
turbine-powered ships use the machinery control system (MCS) to control and monitor its gas turbine equipment? 1. DD-963 2. DDG-993 3. DDG-51 4. FFG-7 |
3. DDG-51
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The ECSS is found on which of the
following classes of gas turbine-powered ships? 1. DD-963, DDG-993, and FFG-7 2. DD-963, DDG-993, and CG-47 3. DDG-51, DDG-993, and CG-47 4. DDG-51, FFG-7, and CG-47 |
2. DD-963, DDG-993, and CG-47
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Which of the following ECSS
equipment is located in the CCS 1. SCE, PAMCE, and EPCE 2. SCU, PAMCE, and EPCE 3. PAMCE, EPCE, and RCS 4. PAMCE, EPCE, and PAMISE |
4. PAMCE, EPCE, and PAMISE
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A digital computer, signal
conditioning equipment, and two line printers are part of which of the following ECSS equipment? 1. PAMISE 2. EPCE 3. PAMCE 4. SCE |
1. PAMISE
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On a DD-963 class ship, what type of
sensor is used in the engineering plant to read and display a constantly changing value, such as temperature? 1. Discrete 2. Analog 3. Mechanical 4. Photoelectric |
2. Analog
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What is the purpose of an S/CE?
1. To convert all sensory inputs into mechanical movements 2. To convert all sensory inputs into a common electrical range of 0 to 10 volts ac 3. To convert all sensory inputs into a common electrical range of 0 to 10 volts dc 4. To convert all sensory inputs into a common electrical range of 24 to 28 volts dc |
3. To convert all sensory inputs
into a common electrical range of 0 to 10 volts dc |
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Communication between ECSS consoles
is accomplished through what types of signals? 1. Decimal 2. Octagonal 3. Hex 4. Binary |
4. Binary
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The number of data bits contained in
a data word is specifically referred to by what term? 1. Word bit length 2. Data bit content 3. Data bit word 4. Word data length |
1. Word bit length
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In which
of the following formats are data bits sent and received one at a time, using a single data line? 1. Series 2. Parallel 3. Complemented 4. Multiplexed |
1. Series
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On a CG-47 class ship, if the
computer halts because of a test failure, the GSE identifies the failureby using what information? 1. The data tape reader 2. The data display LEDs on the ECU 3. The DDIs on the S/CE 4. The DDIs on the PACC |
2. The data display LEDs on the ECU
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The propulsion control system (PCS)
on the FFG-7 class ships uses what type of sensed output signals? 1. Seasoned and unseasoned 2. Positioned and repositioned 3. Conditioned and unconditioned 4. Calculated and uncalculated |
3. Conditioned and unconditioned
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On the FFG–7 class ship, the
discrete signal conditioner converts its sensed signal to what output signal level? 1. 0 to 10 V ac 2. 0 to l0 V dc 3. 0 to 5 v ac 4. 0 to 5 V dc |
4. 0 to 5 V dc
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Digital computers are divided into
which of the following basic units? 1. Input/output, control, memory, and buffer 2. Input/output, control, memory, and arithmetic 3. Memory, arithmetic, cache, and buffer 4. Memory, arithmetic, control, and cache |
3. Memory, arithmetic, cache, and
buffer |
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What true arithmetic function is
performed by the arithmetic unit of a digital computer? 1. Multiplying two numbers 2. Dividing two numbers 3. Subtracting two numbers 4. Adding two numbers |
4. Adding two numbers
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What part(s) of a digital computer
provide(s) temporary storage for processed data? 1. Control logic cards 2. ROM 3. RAM 4. Arithmetic unit |
3. RAM
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On the FFG–7 class ships, data and
address bits CANNOT be entered at the processor maintenance panel. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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The MCS on a DDG–51 class ship uses
a total of how many AN/UYK-44(V) console computers to comnunicate over the data multiplex system (DMS)? 1. Seven 2. Six 3. Five 4. Four |
2. Six
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All of the following MCS equipment
units are located in the CCS EXCEPT which one? 1. EPCC 2. DCC 3. EOOW/LU 4. RCS |
4. RCS
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Which of the following input signals
can be described as discrete? 1. An ON/OFF signal 2. An OPEN/CLOSE signal 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. A speed signal in rpms |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
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On the DDG-51 class ships, what is
the voltage range of the interim integrated electronic control (IIEC) analog outputs? 1. 0 to 10 V dc 2. 0 to 10 v ac 3. 0 to 24 V dc 4. 0 to 24 V ac |
1. 0 to 10 V dc
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21. On the DDG-51 class ships, what is
the range of the LOCOP analog outputs? 1. 0 to 10 V dc 2. 0 to 10 V ac 3. 4 to 20 milliamps 4. 4 to 20 millivolts |
3. 4 to 20 milliamps
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A computer self–test is performed by
the MCS console computers at all of the following times EXCEPT which one? 1. During unit initialization 2. During not-real operation 3. After a system reset 4. During system shutdown |
4. During system shutdown
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On a DDG-51 class ship, input/output
multiplexer self-tests are NOT performed at which of the following consoles? 1. SCU and EPCC 2. PACC and EOOW/LU 3. EPCC and RSC 4. DCC and RSC |
2. PACC and EOOW/LU
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On the DDG-51 class ships, which of
the following computer self-tests checks the contents of its two RAMs? 1. Input/output multiplexer test 2. Availability test 3. Console status test 4. Panel distribution test |
4. Panel distribution test
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On the DDG-51 class ships, the
console computer tests the analog signal inputs from the engineering plant to determine if these inputs are within what specific percentage of full scale range? 1. 7% 2. 9% 3. 15% 4. 17% |
1. 7%
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The MCS console status tests are
initiated by the computer self–test function. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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On gas turbine-powered ships, what
is the main operating station from which the engineering plant is controlled and monitored? 1. MER 2. Pilothouse 3. CCS 4. AMR |
3. CCS
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On the CG-47 class ships, what are
the two major engineering control consoles located in the CCS? 1. FSCC and PACC 2. FSCC and EPCC 3. EPCC and PCC 4. EPCC and PACC |
4. EPCC and PACC
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On the DD-963 class ships, which of
the following fuel oil service system functions are available at the PACC? 1. Fuel oil transfer system control 2. Fuel oil service control and monitoring 3. GTE fuel oil control and monitoring 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
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On the DDG–993 class ships, which of
the following fuel service functions are available at the PACC and the PLCC simultaneously? 1. Monitoring only 2. Control only 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Defueling control |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
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On the CG-47 class ships, which of
the following methods will cause the GTE fuel purge valve to open? 1. Depressing the FUEL PURGE ON push button at the PACC 2. Depressing the FUEL PURGE ON push button at the PLCC 3. Either 1 or 2 above, depending on the operator 4. Automatic activation of the start/stop sequence control logic |
1. Depressing the FUEL PURGE ON
push button at the PACC |
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On the DD-963 class ships, what are
the two main air systems associated with the GTEs and GTGSs? 1. Bleed air and ship’s service air 2. Bleed air and high–pressure air 3. Ship’s service air and high–pressure air 4. Emergency air and high-pressure air |
2. Bleed air and high–pressure air
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On a DD–963 class ship, when the
start air mode on the PACC is in NORMAL and the motor air regulator valve is in the motoring position, start air pressure is regulated to what specific pressure? 1. 10 psig 2. 19 psig 3. 22 psig 4. 35 psig |
3. 22 psig
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On a DDG-993 class ship, all of the
following GTE start/stop modes are available at the PACC EXCEPT which one? 1. Manual 2. Manual initiate 3. Auto initiate 4. Supervisory control |
4. Supervisory control
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What type of throttle and pitch
control system is used on a CG-47 class ship? 1. Analog 2. Digital 3. Discrete 4. Binary |
1. Analog
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On the CG-47 class ships, GTGS
sensor information is sent to the EPCC in all of the following ways EXCEPT which one? 1. Through the PAMISE via S/CE No. 1 2. Directly from the alarm contact switches 3. Through the alarm detector circuits in the LOCOP 4. Through the alarm generator in the PLCC |
4. Through the alarm generator in
the PLCC |
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On the DD-963 class ships, which of
the following bus tie breakers have “Auto Trip” commands? 1. 1S–2S and 1S-3S 2. 2S–1S and 2S-3S 3. 3S-1S and 3S-2S 4. 3S-1S and 2S-1S |
3. 3S-1S and 3S-2S
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On the EPCC of a DD-963 class ship,
what are the two modes of governor operation? 1. Normal and isochronous 2. Normal and droop 3. Normal and continuous speed 4. Normal and automatic |
2. Normal and droop
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On the CG-47 class ships, the load
shed relay is activated by what control power? 1. +5 v dc 2. -5 V dc 3. +28 V dc 4. -28 V dc |
3. +28 V dc
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The TOPS prevents the loss of a GTGS
resulting from which of the following abnormal conditions? 1. Overtemperature 2. Overspeed 3. Overload 4. Overvoltage |
1. Overtemperature
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The propulsion fuel controls
available at the PACC are limited to all of the following primary functions EXCEPT which one? 1. Fuel cooling 2. Fuel purging 3. Closing the module fuel inlet valve 4. Opening the module fuel inlet valve |
1. Fuel cooling
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The solenoid-operated module fuel
inlet valve assumes what position when it is electrically (a) energized or (b) de–energized? 1. (a) Open (b) open 2. (a) Open (b) closed 3. (a) Closed (b) closed 4. (a) Closed (b) open |
4. (a) Closed (b) open
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The bleed air valve for the SSGTG
can be controlled from which of the following locations? 1. SSGTG LOCOP or EPCC 2. SSGTG LOCOP or PACC 3. EPCC or PACC 4. EPCC or SCU |
1. SSGTG LOCOP or EPCC
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The engine fan control computer
program function automatically operates the module cooling fan and damper in response to all of the following inputs EXCEPT which one? 1. Cooling air outlet temperature transducer 2. GTE start command 3. Halon release command 4. Compressor inlet temperature |
4. Compressor inlet temperature
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What are the five possible engine
states for a GTE? 1. OFF LINE, MOTOR, ON LINE, RUNNING, and SECURED 2. OFF, MOTOR, ON, ON LINE, and COOLDOWN 3. OFF, MOTOR, ON, RUNNING, and COOLDOWN 4. OFF, MOTOR, STANDBY, RUNNING, and COOLDOWN |
OFF, MOTOR, ON, ON LINE, and
COOLDOWN |
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What total number of the nine
automatic GTE shutdowns can be inhibited by placing battle override on? 1. Five 2. Seven 3. Eight 4. Nine |
1. Five
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What is the basic method of
controlling ships’s speed? 1. Manual control mode 2. Lockout manual control mode 3. Normal programmed control mode 4. Automatic control mode |
3. Normal programmed control mode
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The programed control computer
program function of the MCS, is designed for which of the following purposes? 1. Ship maneuverability 2. Fuel economy 3. Speed 4. Flexibility |
2. Fuel economy
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Which of the following independent
auxiliary systems can be controlled from the PACC? 1. Freshwater service 2. Ship’s service air 3. Air conditioning and chill water 4. Seawater cooling |
3. Air conditioning and chill water
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Which of the following equipment
features will allow the electric plant to remain operable if the EPCC computer fails? 1. The DMS signal transfer functions 2. The hardwired switch functions 3. The backup batteries 4. A reserve computer |
2. The hardwired switch functions
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Which of the following EPCC
functions are lost when the EPCC computer fails? 1. Electric plant alarm detection 2. EPCC DMS communications 3. Display at the EPCC plasma display unit 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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The generator field excitation is
regulated by which of the following components? 1. EXCOP 2. LOCOP 3. Switchboard 4. EPCC |
1. EXCOP
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At what specific gas turbine speed
does the LOCOP enable the EXCOP? 1. 2,200 rpm 2. 4,525 rpm 3. 8,455 rpm 4. 12,225 rpm |
4. 12,225 rpm
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The EPCC automatically controls
circuit breakers as a part of the standby generator start function. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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The shore power breaker close
control and phase monitoring devices are operated from what location? 1. Switchboard No. 1 2. Switchboard No. 2 3. Switchboard No. 3 4. EPCC |
2. Switchboard No. 2
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The output frequency of an SSGTG is
controlled by an electronic governor located in which of the following components? 1. EXCOP 2. LOCOP 3. EPCC 4. Switchboard |
2. LOCOP
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All of the following circuit
breakers opened during a load shed operation must be closed locally EXCEPT which ones? 1. Ventilation 2. Anti–icing heaters 3. Air-conditioning plants 4. Engine room nonvital panels |
3. Air-conditioning plants
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The bell log printer is a part of
what MCS console? 1. EPCC 2. PACC 3. SCU 4. EOOW/LU |
4. EOOW/LU
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Which of the following signal data
recorder-reproducer set tape drive units is the “Write Only” drive? 1. Drive 1 2. Drive 2 3. Drive 3 4. Drive 0 |
1. Drive 1
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In the acronym AN/UYK–44(V), what
does the letter “Y” indicate? 1. Computing 2. Data processing 3. General utility 4. Army/Navy |
2. Data processing
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