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35 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Early stage of glaucoma causes loss of :
a. peripheral vision
b. central vision
c. homogenous loss across the entire field of vision

(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
a. peripheral vision
The principle cause of glaucoma is:
a. increased production of aqueous humor
b. obstruction of outflow of aqueous humor
c. increased production of vitreous humor
d. a and b
e. all of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
b. obstruction of outflow of aqueous humor
Normal intraocular pressure is:
a. < or = 21 mm Hg
b. 11 mm Hg
c. 11 to 21 mm Hg
d. 21 to 31 mm Hg


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
a. < or = 21 mm Hg
Current therapies used to treat glaucoma have a mechanism of action that affects:
a. production of aqueous humor
b. outflow of aqueous humor
c. both a and b
d. none of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
c. both a and b
Of the drug classes listed below, the first line agents for treatment of glaucoma are now considered to be:
a. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
b. beta blockers
c. direct acting cholinergic agonists
d. indirect acting cholinergic agonists
e. prostaglandin analogs


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
e. prostaglandin analogs
The highest percent reduction in IOP that can generally be expected with medication is:
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
e. 50%


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
c. 30%
Dipivefrin is a prodrug of:
a. betaxolol
b. latanoprost
c. pilocarpine
d. epinephrine


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
d. epinephrine
Of the drugs listed below, the first line agent for treatment of glaucoma is:
a. apraclonidine
b. dorzolamide
c. latanoprost
d. pilocarpine
e. timolol


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
c. latanoprost
Direct acting cholinergic agonists include:
a. carbachol
b. pilocarpine
c. echothiaphate
d. both a and b
e. all of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
d. both a and b
This medication produces the fewest side effects because it is bioactivated in the cornea and bioinactivated when absorbed systemically:
a. dorzolamide
b. apraclonidine
c. timolol
d. pilocarpine
e. latanoprost


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
e. latanoprost
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (CAIs) work by:
a. inhibiting the conversion of CO2 and H20 to bicarbonate
b. increasing renal excretion of NaHCO3
c. increasing outflow of aqueous humor
d. both a and b
e. all of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
a. inhibiting the conversion of CO2 and H20 to bicarbonate
The prostaglandin analogs lower IOP by:
a. inhibiting synthesis of thromboxane
b. inhibiting thromboxane receptors
c. increasing the trabecular and uveoscleral outflow
d. maintaining normal degree of pupillary miosis
e. all of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
c. increasing the trabecular and uveoscleral outflow
One drop of 0.5% timolol instilled in each eye is equivalent to an oral dose of:
a. 1 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 10 mg
d. 20 mg
e. 40 mg


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
c. 10 mg
A possible adverse effect of latanoprost is that it can:
a. cause orthopnea
b. cause gynecomastia
c. induce tachycardia
d. increase iris pigmentation with chronic use
e. all of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
d. increase iris pigmentation with chronic use
Apraclonidine is not approved by the FDA for chronic use because it produces:
a. allergic reactions
b. tachyphylaxis
c. hypotension leading to renal ischemia
d. a and b
e. all of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
d. a and b
The rationale for use of alpha2 agonists in treatment of glaucoma is that the alpha2 receptor:
a. mediates vasoconstriction in the ciliary body to decrease ultrafiltrate formation
b. is negatively coupled to adenylyl cyclase which is stimulated by beta2 receptors
c. is negatively coupled to IP3/DAG formation to decrease production of aqueous humor
d. a and b
e. none of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
b. is negatively coupled to adenylyl cyclase which is stimulated by beta2 receptors
If one drug fails to produce a desired reduction in IOP and tolerance is suspected, the following action should be taken:
a. increase the dose of the drug currently used
b. add a second drug to the current regimen
c. change choice of therapy to a different agent
d. consider surgery


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
c. change choice of therapy to a different agent
The rational for the use of beta2 receptor antagonists in treatment of glaucoma is to:
a. prevent mydriatic effects of SNS stimulation on the pupillary sphincter
b. promote ciliary body contraction by blocking NE effects on smooth muscle
c. block beta2/adenylyl cyclase/ cAMP coupling to activation of carbonic anhydrase
d. a and b
e. all of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
c. block beta2/adenylyl cyclase/ cAMP coupling to activation of carbonic anhydrase
Since only small amounts of medication are instilled in the eye, systematic side effects from absorbed drug are of little or no concern:
a. true
b. false


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
b. false
The principal effect of alpha1 receptor agonists to reduce IOP is:
a. vasoconstriction of local capillaries supplying the ciliary body to decrease ultrafiltration
b. stimulation of the alpha1 receptor which is negatively coupled to the beta2 receptor
c. negative feedback on tyrosine hydroxylase to decrease local synthesis of NE
d. a and b
e. all of the above


(2006 glaucoma quiz from US Pharmacist)
b. stimulation of the alpha1 receptor which is negatively coupled to the beta2 receptor
The current therapies used to treat glaucoma focus on:
a. decreasing production of aqueous humor
b. increasing outflow of aqueous humor
c. decreasing production of aqueous and vitreous humor
d. decreasing pain associated with elevated IOP
e. a and b
e. a and b
Even when CAIs are applied topically, patients may still experience serious systemic side effects such as:
a. blood dyscrasias
b. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
c. exfoliative dermatitis
d. a and b
e. all of the above
a. blood dyscrasias
The following medications should be avoided in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma:
a. ipratropium for asthma
b. first generation antihistaminics for seasonal allergies
c. anti-motion sickness meds
d. a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above (DOUBLE-CHECK)
Select the drug that is considered the "first line" agent for treatment of glaucoma:
a. pilocarpine
b. timolol
c. latanoprost
d. echothiophate
e. apraclonidine
c. latanoprost
Identify the prodrug:
a. dipivefrin
b. latanoprost
c. apraclonidine
d. a and b
e. all of the above
d. a and b
Match each drug with one action in the treatment of glaucoma.

Drugs: brimonidine, pilocarpine, dipivefrin, metipranolol, travoprost

actions:
a. prostaglandin receptor agonist
b. direct acting muscarinic receptor agonist
c. alpha-1 receptor agonist
d. alpha-2 receptor agonist
e. beta-2 receptor blocker
a. prostaglandin receptor agonist: travoprost
b. direct acting muscarinic receptor agonist: pilocarpine
c. alpha-1 receptor agonist: dipivefrin
d. alpha-2 receptor agonist: brimonidine
e. beta-2 receptor blocker: metipranolol
Bronchial asthma is a contraindication for the use of which of the following drugs:
a. travoprost
b. ipratropium
c. dipivefrin
d. timolol
e. a and b
d. timolol
Allergy to sulfa drugs is a contraindication for the use of which of the following drugs:
a. dorzolamide
b. echothiophate
c. pilocarpine
d. timolol
e. a and b
a. dorzolamide
The major risk factor for the development of glaucoma is currently identified as:
a. advanced age
b. family history
c. asian ethnicity
d. IOP > or = 21 mm Hg


(2002 exam 3)
d. IOP > or = 21 mm Hg
Medications that should be avoided in narrow-angle glaucoma include:
a. anticholinergics
b. sympathomimetics
c. ipratropium
d. all of the above


(2002 exam 3)
d. all of the above
Topical CAIs work by:
a. inhibiting the conversion of CO2 and water to HCO3-
b. decreasing aqueous humor formation
c. increasing outflow of aqueous humor
d. both a and b
e. all of the above


(2002 exam 3)
d. both a and b
In the treatment of open-angle glaucoma, the prostaglandin analogs lower IOP by:
a. increasing uveoscleral outflow
b. decreasing aqueous humor production
c. producing miotic action
d. a and b
e. all of the above


(2002 exam 3)
a. increasing uveoscleral outflow
A possible adverse effect of latanoprost is that it can:
a. cause orthopnea
b. cause gynecomastia
c. induce tachycardia
d. increase iris pigmentation


(2002 exam 3)
d. increase iris pigmentation
If one ophthalmic agent fails to produce a desired reduction in IOP and tolerance is suspected, the following action should be taken:
a. increase the dose of the drug currently used
b. add a second drug to the current regimen
c. change choice of therapy to a different agent
d. may employ unlimited number of agents provided they work by different pharmacologic mechanisms


(2002 exam 3)
c. change choice of therapy to a different agent
The following are contraindications to the use of beta blockers in treatment of glaucoma:
a. bronchial asthma
b. AV conduction block
c. hyperlipidemia
d. a and b
e. all of the above


(2002 exam 3)
d. a and b