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285 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is an ASC? |
Gulfstream uses Aircraft Service Change ASC instead of service bulletins |
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POWERPLANT |
POWERPLANT |
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If a thrust reverser deploys accidentally what would happen to engine thrust? |
It is reduced to idle, by a cable that automatically retards the respective power lever |
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What E.V.M. indications are considered normal in icing conditions and otherwise? |
In icing - 1.25 Not in icing - 0.60 |
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When checking the engine oil what precaution must be observed when reading the sight gage? |
Be sure you are reading the correct gauge. There are two tapes, one on either side of the sight gauge, one for the left engine, and one for the right engine. (Red Left, Green Right) |
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Low oil pressure of _____ PSI illuminates either the the L or R OIL PRESS message on the EICAS. |
16 PSI |
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What 5 indications should be observed prior to opening the HP fuel cock during engine start |
1. Illumination of the SVO light 2. Illumination of the IGN light 3. Positive rotation of the LP spool 4. At least 15% HP RPM (20% preferred) 5. Oil Pressure |
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Which hydraulic systems power the thrust reversers? |
The Left is powered by the Combined system, left engine. The Right is powered by the Flight system, right engine |
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During preflight what should you look for on the thrust reversers? |
1. General condition 2. Doors fully stowed 3. Hydraulic leaks |
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Which type engines are installed on the G-IV? |
Rolls Royce Tay MK 611-8 (Turbo Fan, Axial Flow, High Bypass Engines) |
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How much engine thrust is available? |
12,750 lbs per engine at SLV +20C static thrust |
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How many pints of usable oil? |
10.8 pints |
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When is Engine Sync required to be turned OFF? |
Start, Takeoff, and Landing |
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Pulling the Engine Fire Handle will shut off what items on the associated side? |
1. Fuel SOV 2. Hydraulics SOV 3. Reverser (on affected side) 4. Alternator is Tripped 5. Fire bottles are armed |
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What is the Engine Starter duty cycle? |
3 X 30 second start cycles with 3 minutes between starts. 15 minute delay after 3rd attempt |
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What is the recommended airstart envelope? |
25,000 feet and below, 200-324 Kts. |
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What is the TGT range for takeoff power? |
716C - 800C 5 minutes both engines, 10 minutes single engine |
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What is minimum Ground and Flight idle? |
Ground HP 46.6% Flight/Approach HP 67.0% |
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What is max Reverse Thrust? |
HP 88.0%, TGT 695 initiate cancellation of reverse thrust by 70 KCAS |
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When are Static Operations not permitted? |
LP 60%-80% with more than 15 knots crosswind not permitted |
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Minimum oil temp for engine start? |
-40C |
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Minimum oil temp after engine start for opening power lever? |
-30C |
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Max oil temp? |
105 C (120C for 15 minutes) |
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Minimum oil pressure? |
Idle: 16 PSI Takeoff: 30 PSI |
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If a flameout occurred and you are unable to close the HP fuel cock, what would you suspect has happened? |
Shaft Separation |
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What stages of bleed air are used for the various systems? |
7th and 12th stage bleed air |
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Will the oil filter bypass? |
Yes |
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What do the colors on the engine instruments indicate? |
Red - Maximum and/or Minimum Amber - Takeoff & Caution White - Normal |
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When do the standby engine instruments come on? |
In auto, if a primary engine instrument fails. In manual full time. |
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Auxiliary Power Unit |
Auxiliary Power Unit |
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What type of APU is installed on the G-IV? |
The Honeywell 36-150[G] APU is installed on 1088, 1228,1516
Non G-IVSP: Honeywell 36-100[G] |
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What is the proper precharge pressure for the APU fire extinguisher bottle, and where is this gauge located? |
600-625 PSI, The gauge is located in aft equipment bay on the starboard side. |
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What would you suspect if the APU master switch is turned on the the low oil pressure light did not illuminate? |
The APU inlet door did not open |
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What can be supplied to the airplane's systems from the APU while airborne? |
Electricity only |
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When we shutdown the APU we press the overspeed test switch, what does this actually do? |
It simulates an overspeed of 114%, which causes the ECU to close the APU fuel valve |
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When shutting down the APU by using the overspeed/test switch, when should you turn off the master switch? |
After the RPM reaches 10% or less |
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If an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs where would you look to determine what caused the shutdown? |
On the APU fault indicator panel in the tail compartment |
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Can the APU be operated with an APU alternator bearing fail message on the EICAS? |
Yes, for 15 hours as full load and 50 hours at no load |
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The APU is guaranteed to start at or below what altitude? |
15,000 feet |
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Will the APU shutdown automatically upon detection of a fire? |
Yes |
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After an APU start, when will the APU load control valve allow APU air for engine start and pack operation? |
APU air is available after the APU has reached an operating speed of 95% RPM or better for 4 seconds. |
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After the APU is running, how would you turn on the alternator? |
By selecting the AUX power switch to ON |
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When should APU air be selected on after APU start? |
Wait at least 2 minutes prior to selection |
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Fuel is supplied to the APU from where? |
Fuel is supplied to the APU from the LEFT motive flow line to the left ejector pump fuel hopper. The right main tank and pump may be used if the crossflow is open. |
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What is the APU alternator load of the 36-150G? |
SLV-15,000 feet 100% less than 300 knots 15,000 - 30,000 75% 30,000 - 35,000 50 % |
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When is APU start possible? |
15,000 - 20,000 feet |
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Maximum altitude for APU operation? |
35,000 feet |
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Can the APU be used for pressurization in flight? |
No
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What is the maximum permissible EGT when the APU is running and when APU air is selected on? |
Running 732C Running with APU air on 680C |
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What is the maximum rotor speed of the APU? |
110% |
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What are the starting limits of the APU using aircraft batteries? |
3 X 30 second start attempts then 1 hours off |
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What are the starting limits of the APU using External DC power? |
2 X 15 second start attempts then 20 minutes off, 2 X 15 second start attempts then 1 hour off |
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How many successful APU starts are allowed in 1 hour? |
6 starts at 10 minute intervals |
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APU start in flight between SLV to 15,000 is limited to what KCAS? |
less than 250 KCAS |
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If operating the APU more than 10 hours above FL300 or 5 times above FL350 what must occur? |
APU maintenance inspection |
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If the APU is operating and the AUX power switch is on, when both engine driven alternators are operating will the APU OFF light be on? |
NO |
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What occurs automatically in the pneumatic system when we turn on the APU air? |
The isolation valve opens |
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If a flag is in view on the APU fault indicator panel, what should be done before starting the APU? |
Actuate the reset switch and make note of which flag was in view |
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If the APU is started and for some reason it shuts down, and the decision is made to restart, what must be done with the cockpit controls prior to restart? |
The APU master switch must be turned OFF, then turned back ON |
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Once the APU is operating, how long should we wait before placing electrical loads on the APU? Pneumatic Loads? |
Electricity is available immediately 2 minutes should have elapsed before bleed air is extracted. |
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What is the correct configuration for the APU prior to shutdown? |
Alternator - OFF Air - Unchanged |
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FUEL |
FUEL |
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At what point do the fuel low level warning lights come on? |
650 lbs per hopper |
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If two boost pumps fail on the same side how would you keep the fuel balanced? |
By opening the intertank valve and using a sideslip. |
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Where does the APU receive its fuel? |
From the left hopper, however, fuel from the right hopper can be used by opening the crossflow valve. |
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After engine start we check the fuel and oil temperatures. What are we checking and why? |
Check fuel and oil temperatures to ensure that they are similar, this verifies that the fuel/oil heat exchanger is working. |
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What is the maximum fuel capacity? |
29,500 lbs, Fuel loads above this are permitted |
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Does the fuel filter bypass? |
No |
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What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance? |
It ranges from 400 lbs at an airplane weight of 60,500 lbs to 2,000 lbs at an airplane weight of 55,000 lbs. |
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What are the two methods to balance fuel? |
Intertank valve or Crossflow valve |
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How would you check the fuel tank temperature? |
On the fuel page |
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Explain the fuel quantity test |
Place the toggle switch to D and you will see all 8"s, place the toggle switch to T Left and Right fuel quantity will indicate 7,000 lbs, total will indicate 14,000 lbs, EICAS displays will turn amber, and low fuel lights will flash for 30 seconds |
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What is the low fuel level? |
Low fuel lights on the standby fuel quantity flash for 30 seconds, then remain on steady. Fuel quantity on EICAS will turn amber, and the amber FUEL LEVEL LOW message will be on. This occurs at approx. 650 lbs. |
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What is the intertank valve used for? |
To move fuel from one hopper to the other using a sideslip, and for suction defueling. |
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What is the crossflow valve used for? |
To move fuel from one hopper to the opposite engine by using a boost pump to pump it through the valve |
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What is indicated if a L(R) MAIN or ALT fuel pressure low amber EICAS message is displayed and the "CB" in the switch is illuminated |
The circuit breaker on the power distribution box (PDB) has opened |
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What two devices serve to keep the hoppers full? |
Flapper valves and Fuel Ejector pumps |
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Are all fuel boost pumps required to be operative? |
Yes, except for fuel balancing |
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What altitudes will the engine run on suction feed? |
at or below 20,000 feet |
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What is the minimum and maximum fuel temperature? |
Min: -40C Max: 90C (120C for 15 minutes) |
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Electrical |
Electrical |
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What two items are powered from the battery tie bus? |
1. APU starter 2 Auxiliary hydraulic pump |
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How many alternators are installed on the airplane, and what the rating? |
4 alternators total: 2 engine, 30 KVA (wild AC) 1 APU, 30 KVA 1 Standby (ABEX, 5 KVA) |
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Where do the battery chargers receive power? |
The respective Main AC bus |
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In normal operation how many EPMP switches are in auto? |
6
The airplane is bought, flown, and sold with these 6 switches in Auto |
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If a converter cooling fan fails we will receive a CAS message. What would you expect if the message went away? |
That a second cooling fan has failed, and the converter will soon overheat and fail. |
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What does the E inverter feed? |
The Essential AC bus (Phase A single phase) |
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What is the converter rating? |
23 KVA, 115 VAC, 400 HZ, 3 phase |
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Where do the battery chargers receive power? |
The respective Main AC buses |
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What does the E inverter feed? |
The Essential AC bus (phase A) |
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What does the standby electrical power system supply power to? |
The Essential buses |
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How should you turn on the Standby electric power system? |
Standby Electric Switch E-Inverter TRU
(Remember S. E. T.) |
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If the standby electric system is in use and it comes off line how would you reinstate it? |
By turning on the Standby Electric switch off then back on. |
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How would you read the power on the Essential buses? |
By selecting essential on the volt/freq meter switch (Top row of switched) and read the outputs. |
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How would you read the left converter output? |
By selecting left on the volt/freq. meter switch (Top Row of switches) and read the outputs |
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How would you read the load on the left converter? |
By reading the % of load on the AC & DC loadmeters |
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What is the power source priority for the main busses? |
Respective, Auxiliary, then Opposite |
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What is the power source priority for the essential busses? |
Left, Right, then Battery or E-inverter |
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What drives the ABEX alternator? |
The Combined hydraulic system |
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How many main aircraft batteries are installed and what is their rating? |
Two 24 Volt 40 Amp/hour 20 cell NICAD batteries |
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External AC power is capable of powering what buses? |
Selecting external AC power on with the AUX PWR switch will power all buses of the aircraft electrical system. |
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Can the main batteries be charged using EXT AC or DC power? |
EXT AC power cart will charge the batteries |
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What battery connects to the ground service bus? |
Battery # 2 with standard configuration, powers: 1. Wheel well lights 2. Utility lights 3. Service lights |
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When will you have battery on bus? |
The main batteries are powering the ESS DC Buses, either automatically or manually selected - Starting the APU - AUX Hydraulic pump is operating |
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When the Emergency Power system is armed, when will the E-Batts activate? |
3 ways of turning on E-Batts:
1. Manually selected to ON 2. Loss of power on the ESS DC bus 3. 2.5 G's or greater deceleration |
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Hydraulics |
Hydraulics |
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Name the 4 Hydraulic systems? |
Combined, Flight, Utility, Auxiliary |
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What components can the Auxiliary System operate while airborne? |
Flaps, and brakes (With anti-skid) |
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What hydraulic system operates the Standby Electrical System? |
Combined system |
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What is normal system pressure on all hydraulic systems? |
3,000 PSI |
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Where does the Utility System receive its fluid? |
From the Combined System reservoir |
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Where does the Auxiliary System receive its fluid? |
From a dedicated chamber within the Combined System reservoir |
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What is the PSI of the hydraulic accumulator precharge? |
1000 PSI |
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What type of fluid is used in the hydraulic systems? |
Type IV (Skydrol) |
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What components can the Auxiliary Hydraulic system operate that are useful prior to and during landing? |
Flaps and Brakes with anti-skid protection |
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What drives the Utility system pump |
The Flight system pressure |
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What drives the Auxiliary system pump? |
An electric motor |
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How many hydraulic filters are equipped with differential pressure indicators (DPIs)? |
G-IVSP and G-400 (1228, 1516) DPIs: 11 total (5 combined, 3 flight, 2 right wheel well, 1 left wheel well)
G-IV (1088) DPIs: 10 total (5 combined, 3 flight, 1 right wheel well, 1 left wheel well) |
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How is hydraulic fluid cooled? |
By a heat exchanger in each hopper (Left hopper - combined, Right hopper - flight) |
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What is normal Flight system quantity? |
Full |
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What is normal Combined system fluid quantity? |
If the gear is Down, Full is read at Full If the gear is UP: Full is about 1/2 way between add and full. |
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If the Utility pump is armed when will it come on? |
If Flight system pressure is normal, Flight system fluid is not overheated, and Combined system pressure is low... at approximately 800 PSI |
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When will the Auxiliary pump come on? |
Anytime the following is on: - Ground service valve - Aux pump switch - Brake Application - Inside Door Switch - Outside Door Swiitch |
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When armed what will cause the Auxiliary Hydraulic pump to turn on automatically? |
1. Combined and Utility Hydraulic pressure less that 1500 psi and 2. Toe pedals depressed greater than 10 percent 3. Nutcrackers in ground mode |
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What does and amber "FLT HYD HOT" CAS Message indicate? |
Flight Hydraulic system fluid temperature indicating +220F or greater |
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The Auxiliary Hydraulic pump is capable of powering which components? |
1. Main entrance door 2. Flaps 3. Brakes 4. Parking/Emergency brakes 5. Landing Gear/Doors (ground only) |
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LANDING GEAR and BRAKES |
LANDING GEAR and BRAKES |
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What is the purpose of the Nutcracker system? |
To provide an air/ground signal to various systems within the airplane |
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How would we extend the landing gear manually? |
1. Placing the gear handle down, arms the down and lock indicators 2. Pulling the T-handle, discharges nitrogen into the landing gear lines |
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What does the red light in the landing gear handle indicate? |
1. When the handle is up, it indicates that one or more landing gear doors are not closed 2. When the handle is down, it indicates that one or more landing gear are not down and locked |
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If we press the Nutcracker test switch and both lights come on what does this indicate? |
That both main gear Nutcrackers are in the airborne mode |
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With respect to the landing gear, what four precautions should be taken before towing the airplane? |
1. Nose scissors must be disconnected 2. All three landing gear pins are installed 3. If the Main door is open it its either closed or supported by the jury cable 4. Parking brake off |
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What does pulling the D-Ring handle adjacent to the co-pilot's right leg to? |
Resets the dump valves in the landing gear system so that it can operate normally |
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What is the maximum tire ground speed? |
1088, 1228, 1516: 195 knots
Non G-IVSP / ASC-190: 182 knots |
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What is the maximum altitude for landing gear extension and operation? |
20,000 feet MSL |
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What is maximum speed for flying with the landing gear extended (VLE) ? |
VLE: 250 knots, M0.70 with either gear doors open or closed |
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What is maximum speed for gear retraction or extension (VLO)? |
Normal gear extension: 225 knots Alternate gear extension: 175 knots |
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What four conditions must be met to allow a takoff with Anti-Skid inop? |
Takeoff is permitted with anti-skid inop provided: 1. Rated power (FLEX is not to used ) 2. Flaps 20 3. Ground spoilers are operative 4. Cowl and wing anti-ice is NOT used |
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Is takeoff prohibited with a BRAKE FAIL or BRAKE PEDAL CAS message? |
Takeoff is Prohibited |
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What is emergency landing gear nitrogen blowdown bottle pressure? |
3,000 PSI at 70F |
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Anti-skid braking is available from which hydraulic systems? |
1. Combined hydraulic system 2. Utility hydraulic system 3. Auxiliary hydraulic system |
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What does pulling the Emergency Gear T-Handle do? |
Pulling the T-Handle, positions the dump valves (to port fluid if there is any), and supplies Nitrogen to the landing gear to extend |
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If we do an emergency gear extension and all 3 landing gear come down and lock what will be the indication in the cockpit? |
The three green lights will be illuminated, and the red light in the handle will be extinguished |
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What two methods can we use to steer the nose wheel? |
1. Tiller / handwheel 2. Rudder pedals |
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There is a guarded toggle switch in front of the tiller / handwheel. What does this do? |
Turns off the steering at the rudders and the handwheel. |
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On our airplanes there is a switch located either aft on the handwheel or on the center pedestal labeled "Normal and Handwheel only." If it is in the "Handwheel only" position what has been done? |
The rudder pedal steering has been turned off.
Note: Switch should always be kept in the normal position. |
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If you move the landing gear control handle, you reposition the landing gear control valve. Is this done mechanically or electrically? |
Mechanically |
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What is the proper brake accumulator precharge pressure? |
1,200 PSI |
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If we land the airplane with 1,200 PSI on the brake system pressure gauge and normal brakes fail, will the emergency brakes (through the parking brake) be available? |
No, that is only the pre-charge. No hydraulic fluid no brakes |
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What is the proper procedure to set the parking break? |
1. Pull the handle fully up, and rotate it 1/4 turn. 2. Pressurize the brake system to 3,000 PSI using the Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump |
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If we use the parking brake to stop the airplane during landing will we have anti-skid? |
NO |
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Are brakes automatically applied during gear retraction? |
Yes |
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On a SPZ-8000 airplane that is equipped with Brake Temperature Monitoring System (BTMS), if we move the brake temperature monitor system selector switch to the ALL position what temperature is being displayed? |
The hottest brake
1088. 1228: SPZ-8000 |
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How do we determine the hottest brake on the SPZ-8400 system? |
Pull up the brake page and the hottest brake is displayed at the bottom of the page.
1516: SPZ-8400 |
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When we do a BITE check, 4 messages for brake by wire system, and 3 messages HMAB system are generated, then the brake ECU does the BITE check, what is the indication of a successful check? |
All the CAS messages go away
1088: Brake by Wire BBW 1228, 1516: Hydro-Mechanical Analog Braking HMAB |
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What must be done in order for the brake wear indicator pins to be accurate? |
The parking brake must be set |
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FLIGHT CONTROLS |
FLIGHT CONTROLS |
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Which flight controls have trim tabs? |
Both Elevators, and the Left Aileron |
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What is the maximum speed for operation of the speedbrakes? |
There is not a limitation listed in the AFM |
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What does the rudder limit message indicate? |
That further application of rudder pedal will not displace the rudder |
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What does the NO GROUND SPOILERS light indicate? |
That all conditions for ground spoiler deployment have been met and the the ground spoilers did not deploy |
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What does the Emergency flap handle do? |
It mechanically repositions the flap selector valve, which will move the flaps if hydraulic pressure is available to the valve |
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What feature of the airplane reduces control forces during flap movement? |
Automatic repositioning of the horizontal stabilizer |
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What is the maximum fuel permitted for takeoff if the yaw damper is inop? |
9,000 lbs maximum |
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What is the minimum speed above and below FL180 if the yaw damper is inop? |
Above FL180 220 knots minimum Below FL180 -speed is a function of fuel quantity |
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What is the maximum altitude for flap extension? |
20,000 feet |
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What is VFE for flaps 10, 20, 39? |
10 - 250 knots 20 - 220 knots 39 -170 knots (SN1000-1213 non ASC 190) 39 - 180 knots (1088, 1228, 1516) |
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What is the maximum altitude for a yaw damper failure with mach trim failure? |
Observe speed limitation for both and limit altitude to FL410 |
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What is the maximum speed is both Mach trim compensators are inop or electric trim inop? |
0.75 Mach |
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When must the stall barrier system be operative? |
Stall barrier must be ON and operative for all flight operations |
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When is speed brake extension not permitted? |
Either Flaps 39 or landing gear down |
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What limitations permit takeoff with the ground spoiler system inop? |
Takeoff with ground spoilers inop provided: 1. Flaps 20 used for takeoff 2. Anti-skid is operative |
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When should you never pull the Flight Power Shutoff handle? |
Do NOT pull the Flight Power Shutoff with speed brake extended |
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What does the emergency flap handle do? |
It mechanically repositions the flap selector valve, which will move the flaps if hydraulic pressure is available to the valve |
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What precaution should be observed prior to engaging the gust lock? |
Make sure all hydraulic pressure has been bled from the system |
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How is the rudder trimmed? |
By repositioning the rudder itself |
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If we are in flight with speedbrakes retracted and apply left aileron, which spoilers will come up? |
The outboard two on the left wing |
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Assuming both computers are working normally, how many stall barrier computers are required to give us a stick shaker? Pusher? |
One to Shake... Two to Push |
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What is the purpose of the rudder limiter? |
To limit the amount of rudder deflection available based on airspeed. |
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What does the "Ground Spoiler" message mean? |
The primary control valve has opened and the ground spoilers did not deploy |
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PRESSURIZATION |
PRESSURIZATION |
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What is bleed air used for? |
Engine start Wing anti-ice Cowl anti-ice Air conditioning Pressurization Interior engine cooling Door seals TAT probe Precooler cooling |
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What is the purpose of the isolation valve? |
To separate the left and right sides of the bleed air manifold |
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Name the 3 ways to open the isolation valve? |
1. With the isolation switch 2. Turning on the APU bleed air 3. Selecting the start master or crank master switch (ground only) |
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How are the 2 outflow valves controlled? |
Outflow valve 1. In automatic, is operated by an AC motor 2. In manual, is operated by a DC motor Safety Outflow valve 1. Is self contained, normally closed, however, it will begin to open if pressure reaches 9.8 PSID |
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What function does the FLIGHT/LANDING switch serve? |
- In the FLIGHT position it gives control to the flight tape on the pressurization controller - In the LANDING position it gives control to the landing tape on the pressurization controller |
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What prevents us from using the APU to pressurize the airplane airborne? |
The nutcracker system closes the APU bleed valve when airborne |
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When will a CAS message for cabin pressure low illuminate? |
9,250 +/- 750 feet |
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When will a CAS message for cabin differential illuminate? |
9.6 (Limit for the differential is 9.8) |
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What is the maximum permitted cabin pressure differential in flight? |
9.8 PSID |
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What is the maximum permitted cabin pressure differential for Taxi, Takeoff or Landing? |
0.3 PSI |
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What is the temperature range selection in manual? |
MANUAL Full Cold - Valve is closed MANUAL Full Hot - Valve is fully open |
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OXYGEN
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OXYGEN |
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What is the trip point for the oxygen system pressure relief valve? |
The high pressure burst disc is set for 2775 PSI(temperature of 225F +/-5)
Relief flow is also vented overboard through an overboard discharge line equipped with a green rupture disc. |
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If the passenger oxygen is set to automatic the passenger oxygen should deploy at what cabin altitude? |
13,000 feet +/-500 feet cabin altitude |
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What should be done if the passenger oxygen does not automatically deploy? |
Place the passenger oxygen control to manual |
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How do we shut off the oxygen flow to the crew oxygen masks after it is no longer needed? |
Push the reset/test bar forward? |
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If the oxygen mask flow selector is set to normal what will be delivered to the mask? |
Diluted oxygen in a decreasing ratio to about 35,000 feet. Above 35,000 feet you will receive 100% oxygen |
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When using the crew oxygen mask, what are the two ways to receive oxygen under positive pressure? |
1. By rotating the selector knob to Emergency 2. Automatically between 36,000 feet and 45,000 feet |
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There are two oxygen pressure gages on the oxygen control panel, if both of those gages indicate an adequate supply of oxygen can we expect to receive oxygen if needed? |
Not necessarily, the gages will indicate bottle pressure even if the supply switches are off |
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If the crew oxygen masks are needed how would we verify that we are receiving oxygen? |
By observing the flow indicator in the forward right corner of the stowage box (yellow and black + sign) |
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What is the highest permitted altitude permitted when operating on a single engine bleed or pack? |
Do NOT operate above FL410 without both engine bleeds on and each pack on. |
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FIRE PROTECTION |
FIRE PROTECTION |
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What is the proper precharge pressure for an engine fire bottle? |
600-625 PSI |
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Which bus powered the engine and APU fire extinguishing systems? |
Essential DC power |
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What takes place if a fire handle is pulled? |
1. Fuel shutoff valve closes 2. Hydraulic shutoff valve closes 3. Thrust reverser is disabled 4. The alternator is tripped 5. Both fire bottles are armed |
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Will a fire warning automatically bring up a checklist on the display unit number 5? |
Yes |
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How many fire bottles are installed? |
3 total 2 engine fire bottles and 1 APU fire bottle |
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When performing an engine fire test, how many indications do you receive? |
SPZ 8000 - 10 lights, pop up checklist, 3 aural tone warnings "Bongs" (1088, 1228)
SPZ 8400 - 8 lights, pop up checklist, 3 aural tone warnings "Bongs" (1516) |
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Normally how many fire loops are necessary to trigger an engine fire warning? |
2 loops |
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If a fire loop has a fault, can the engine it is installed on still have a fire warning? |
Yes, when the fault occurs the "ENG FLT LOOP ALERT" CAS message will appear. By pressing the lighted fire warning for that engine, it is configured to produce a warning if only 1 loop registers the fire |
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If there is no fire warning what must be done in order to pull the fire handle? |
Press the button below the handle to release the fire handle |
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COMMUNICATIONS |
COMMUNICATIONS |
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How many VHF radios are there and which on is the primary for communication? |
VHF#1 |
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What communications equipment will be available if the emergency batteries are the only source of power? |
The VHF#1 communications radio |
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What communications equipment will be available if the standby electrical system is used? |
The VHF#1 communications radio |
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On the audio panel what does the "MASK" button do? |
It enables the Oxygen mask microphone |
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On the audio panel what does the HMIKE button do? |
Allows crewmembers to comunicate without using the interphone key |
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On the audio panel what does the PAGE button do? |
It enables a cockpit crew member to speak to all passengers in the cabin through the cabin speakers |
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On the audio panel what does the CABIN button do? |
It enables a cockpit crew member to speak directly to a CSR crew member at a specific location, usually in the galley |
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INSTRUMENTS |
INSTRUMENTS |
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What is the priority for CAS messages of different colors |
Red - Warning Amber - Caution Cyan - Advisory |
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If a red message is flashing, how can it be stopped? |
By pressing either master warning light |
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If a cyan message is flashing, how can it be stopped |
It will stop on it's own after 5 seconds |
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What does a Red X over the CAS display signify? |
Failure of the Fault Warning Computer |
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When will the standby warning lights system be operational? |
- If the Auto-Man switch is in AUTO and the EICAS is failed, or - If the Auto-Man switch is in manual |
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What is the differences between a display unit going blank accompanied by an amber CHECK DU X CAS message, and a display unit going blank with a large red X displayed? |
- If the display unit goes blank, the DU has failed. Note: check rheostat dimmer knob to ensure DU is not full dim - If a red X appears on a blank screen, the symbol generator supplying it has failed
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If all of the right engine instruments show amber dashes what would you suspect is the problem, and how would you correct it? |
DAU#2, Channel B has failed, go to the sensor page on the display controller and select DAU#2 Channel A |
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Why do we not use the Runway Position feature? |
If the runway update feature is used it will realign the IRS position. However the GPS will correct this entry the next time the GPS update is done. |
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How do you create a place/bearing/distance waypoint? |
By line selecting a waypoint into the scratch pad, typing in the desired bearing, then typing in the distance. Line select it in the appropriate place in the flight plan. |
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If you shoot an NDB approach we must identify the navaid prior to starting the approach. However it is not necessary to monitor is continuously during the approach. Why? |
The NDB pointer will disappear if the signal is lost |
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What is the priority for navigation sensor use by the FMS? |
GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, LRN Blending |
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What two conditions must be met in order to use the FMS for an "overlay" approach? |
1. The approach must be contained in the data base (cannot build an approach) 2. Raw data must be monitored by at least one of the pilots
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AUTOPILOT |
AUTOPILOT |
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In which axis does the autopilot have authority? |
Roll and Pitch |
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What does the BC button do on the flight guidance panel? |
It enables the flight director to track a back course |
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If the yaw damper fails will the autopilot work? |
No |
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What takes place when the TOGA is selected in flight? |
1. Autopilot disconnects 2. The EPR bugs move to the go around setting 3. If the auto throttles are engaged they will move to follow the EPR bugs 4. The flight director issues a pitch command of +12 degrees (or speed command SPZ-8400) 5. The flight director issues a roll command of wings level 6. The missed approach procedure is displayed
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What five conditions must be met to engage the autothrottles on the ground |
1. Takeoff mode must be on the flight director (TOGA) 2. EPR must be at least 1.17 3. Isolation valve must be closed 4. LP RPM must be within 20% of each other 5. At least 1 engine must be at least 41% HP |
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What are the Auto Speeds for flaps 10, 20, 39? |
Flaps 10 - 180 knots Flaps 20 - 160 knots Flaps 39 - VREF + 10 |
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EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT |
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT |
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Which exterior lights are powered from the emergency batteries |
The emergency exit lights located above and forward of the overwing exits |
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Where are the shoulder harness locks? |
On the inboard side of each pilot's seat toward the bottom, and aft |
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How do you open the overwing emergency exits? |
Pull the handle up and pull the window inboard |
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There is a ring on the upper surface of the wing approximately 10-12 feet from the fuselage mid-chord. What is it for? |
So that a mooring line / rope can be attached from the emergency exit to the ring to be used as a hand rail and to attached the life raft |
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Where are the crew life jackets stowed? |
In a pouch at the bottom of the seat toward the bottom |
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When doing the cabin preflight, shat should be checked on the hand held fire extinguishers? |
1. Pressure gage in the green arc 2. Current inspection |
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LIGHTING |
LIGHTING |
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What is the power source for the cabin emergency lights? |
"E Batts" Aprox D size flashlight battery output |
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How would you turn all the cockpit lights to full bright? |
By turning on the floodlight override switch |
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If the passenger oxygen shutoff valve is opened what cabin sign will come on automatically> |
The no smoking sign |
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If the taxi lights are on when the landing gear is retracted will the lights go out? |
No, except for SN 1000-1155 with ASC 131 or SN 1156 and subsequent |
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What are the pulselights? |
Turning on the pulselights causes the landing lights to illuminate alternately, making the airplane easier to see |
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The utility lights are contained in the tail compartment. Can these be turned on in flight? |
Yes, there is a switch labeled tail compartment lights on the right side of the baggage compartment, that controls these lights. |
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LIMITATIONS |
LIMITATIONS |
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What is the maximum operating altitude? |
45,000 feet |
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What is the maximum altitude with landing gear extended? |
20,000 feet |
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What is the maximum altitude with flaps 39 extended? |
20,000 feet |
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What is the maximum altitude permitted for takeoff and landing? |
15,000 feet |
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What is the maximum tailwind componet |
10 knots |
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What is the maximum runway slope? |
+/- 2% |
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What are the maximum cabin pressure differentials? |
Airborne 9.8 PSID Durring taxi, take off and landing 0.3 PSID |
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What bleed air considerations must be observed when operating above 41,000 feet? |
Do not operate above 41,000 feet without both engine bleeds on and each engine being bled by either the air conditioning system or engine cowl anti-ice |
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What is MMO with mach trim inoperative? |
0.75 Mach |
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When are we required to use cowl anti-ice? |
When the SAT is below 10C and visible moisture, precipitation, or wet runway are present |
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What must we do prior to takeoff if cowl anti-ice is on for takeoff? |
Engine operation of 85% LP for one minute is recommended just prior to takeoff and at intervals of not more than sixty minutes |
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When is wing anti-icing required? |
If icing conditions are imminent, or immediately upon detection of ice formation |
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When are we not allowed to use speed brakes? |
1. With flaps at 39, or 2. With landing gear extended |
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What speed brake consideration must be observed prior to pulling the flight power shutoff handle? |
Speed brakes must be retracted |
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What limitation must be observed if a brake message is displayed? |
Brake Fail or Brake Pedal message must be cleared prior to takeoff |
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When must we cancel reverse thrust? |
Cancelation of reverse thrust should be initiated by 70 KCAS so as to be at idle reverse thrust by normal taxi speed |
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What are the autothrottle limitations? |
It is not permitted for takeoffakeofor go-around when wing anti-ice is used It must be disengaged by 50 feet AGL on approach |
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What are the autopilot limitations? |
- DO not engage below 200 feet AGL on takeoff - It must be disengaged on ILS approach by 50 feet AGL
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What limitations apply to the standby electrical system? |
- Minimum HP RPM is 67% - Speed brakes may be used, however, operation should be slow (approximately five seconds for full range of movement) - Landing is approved provided auto ground spoilers and thrust reversers are not used for landing |
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What are the values for maximum takeoff power? |
LP 95.5% HP 99.7% TGT 716-800C, 5 minutes with both engines running, 10 minutes with one engine running |
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What are the values for maximum continuous power? |
LP 95.5% HP 97.5% TGT 715C |
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What is the minimum temperature for engine start? |
-40C |
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What is the minimum temperature for opening the power lever? |
-30C |
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What is the maximum APU RPM? |
110% |
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What is the maximum APU electrical load? |
From SLV-30,000 feet - 100% Above 30,000 feet maintain loads within the green arc on the APU loadmeter |
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What is maximum VMO/MMO? |
340 KCAS, 0.88 Mach |
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What is turbulence penetration speed? |
270 KCAS/0.75 Mach |
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What are the VLO speeds? |
225 KCAS with the normal system 175 KCAS with the emergency system |
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What is VLE? |
250 KCAS, gear doors opened or closed |
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What is the landing light limitation? |
Do not operate more than 5 minutes on the ground |
