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80 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates that


a. 3,000 feet of runway remain.


b. 1,000 feet of runway remain.


c. one-half of the runway remains.

b. 1,000 feet of runway remain.

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately


a. 008° and 026° true.


b. 080° and 260° true.


c. 080° and 260° magnetic.

c. 080° and 260° magnetic.

What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?


a. That area is restricted solely to taxi operations.


b. That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.


c. That portion of the runway is the designated touchdown zone.

b. That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?


a. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.


b. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.


c. Denotes intersecting runways.

c. Denotes intersecting runways.

What is the purpose of the runway hold position sign?


a. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.


b. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.


c. Denotes taxiway location.

a. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.

What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?


a. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.


b. Allows an aircraft permission to taxi onto the runway.


c. Holds aircraft short of the runway.

c. Holds aircraft short of the runway.

What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?


a. Delineates entrance to runway from a taxiway.


b. Delineates beginning of runway available for landing when pavement is aligned with runway on approach side.


c. Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.

c. Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.

An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity?


a. 5 clicks.


b. 3 clicks.


c. None, the MIRL is left on all night.

a. 5 clicks.

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?


a. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.


b. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.


c. Indicates direction to take-off runway.

a. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

What does the outbound destination sign identify?


a. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.


b. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.


c. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

c. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?


a. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.


b. Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.


c. Provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

b. Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.

What is the purpose of No Entry sign?


a. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.


b. Identifies area that does not continue beyond intersection.


c. Identifies the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

a. Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?


a. Indicates direction to take-off runway.


b. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.


c. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

c. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?


a. Provides general taxiing direction to named runway.


b. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.


c. Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

c. Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot


a. may continue taxiing.


b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.


c. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.

What does a destination sign identify?


a. Entrance to the runway from a taxiway.


b. Direction to takeoff runways.


c. Runway on which an aircraft is located.

b. Direction to takeoff runways.

What is the purpose of the hold position markings on a holding bay?


a. Identifies the taxiway on which the aircraft is located.


b. Holds aircraft on the holding bay when there is an operational need.


c. Identifies an area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.

b. Holds aircraft on the holding bay when there is an operational need.

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is


a. 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.


b. to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.


c. to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.

b. to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is
a. left-hand for Rwy 17 and right-hand for Rwy 35.
b. right-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 9.
c. left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.

The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is


a. left-hand for Rwy 17 and right-hand for Rwy 35.


b. right-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 9.


c. left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.

c. left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.

Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
a. Right-hand traffic on Rwy 17.
b. Left-hand traffic on Rwy 27 or Rwy 35.
c. Left-hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right-hand traffic on Rwy 27.

Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?


a. Right-hand traffic on Rwy 17.


b. Left-hand traffic on Rwy 27 or Rwy 35.


c. Left-hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right-hand traffic on Rwy 27.

c. Left-hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right-hand traffic on Rwy 27.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?


a. Inward, upward, and around each tip.


b. Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.


c. Outward, upward, and around each tip.

c. Outward, upward, and around each tip.

What effect would a crosswind of 5 knots or less have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aircraft that had just taken off?


a. A light crosswind would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.


b. The upwind vortex would tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.


c. Both vortices would move downwind at a greater rate than if the surface wind was directly down the landing runway.

b. The upwind vortex would tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

Due to the effects of wake turbulence, what minimum separation does ATC provide for a small aircraft landing behind a heavy jet?


a. 4 miles.


b. 5 miles.


c. 6 miles.

c. 6 miles.

During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by


a. remaining below the jet’s flight path until able to turn clear of its wake.


b. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet’s rotation point.


c. being airborne prior to reaching the jet’s flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

c. being airborne prior to reaching the jet’s flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.

When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?


a. Beyond the jet’s touchdown point.


b. At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point.


c. If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet’s touchdown point.

a. Beyond the jet’s touchdown point.

Which statement is true regarding wingtip vortices?


a. Helicopter rotors generate downwash turbulence only, not vortices.


b. Vortices generated by helicopters in forward flight are similar to those generated by fixed wing aircraft.


c. Vortices tend to remain level for a period of time before sinking below the generating aircraft’s flightpath.

b. Vortices generated by helicopters in forward flight are similar to those generated by fixed wing aircraft.

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of


a. 25 miles.


b. 20 miles.


c. 10 miles.

c. 10 miles.

When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on


a. 122.9 MHz.


b. 123.0 MHz.


c. 123.6 MHz.

a. 122.9 MHz.

The UNICOM frequency at airports with a control tower is


a. 123.0


b. 122.95


c. 122.8

b. 122.95

Local Airport Advisory service is usually available at all airports


a. with operating control towers.


b. where a Flight Service Station is located on the airport.


c. located in Class C airspace and within 10 NM of the primary airport.

b. where a Flight Service Station is located on the airport.

A military airfield can be identified by


a. a white and red rotating beacon.


b. white flashing sequence lights (strobes).


c. a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

c. a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?


a. If below the glidepath, the near bars will be red and the far bars white.


b. If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red and the far bars will appear white.


c. If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white.

c. If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white.

An on-glidepath indication from a tri-color VASI is


a. a green light signal.


b. a white light signal.


c. an amber light signal.

a. a green light signal.

An above-glidepath indication from a tri-color VASI is


a. a pink light signal.


b. a white light signal.


c. an amber light signal.

c. an amber light signal.

When on the upper glidepath of a 3-bar VASI, what would be the colors of the lights?


a. All three sets of lights would be white.


b. The near bar is white and the middle and far bars are red.


c. The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red.

c. The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red.

The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold?


a. 4 NM.


b. 6 NM.


c. 10 NM.

a. 4 NM.

A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by


a. four red lights.


b. one red light and three white lights.


c. one white light and three red lights.

c. one white light and three red lights.

At what time of day does the tower shut down at Dallas Executive?


a. 0330Z.


b. 1400Z.


c. 2100 local.

c. 2100 local.

On what frequency can a pilot activate the approach lights at Dallas Executive when the control tower is not in operation?


a. 120.15


b. 127.25


c. 122.95

b. 127.25

Select the correct statement concerning Dallas Love Field.


a. Right traffic is in effect for all runways.


b. The runway gradient for Rwy 18 is less than .3 percent.


c. The touchdown zone elevation for Rwy 13R is 52 feet.

b. The runway gradient for Rwy 18 is less than .3 percent.

What is the elevation of the Maverick VORTAC?


a. 450 feet MSL.


b. 540 feet MSL.


c. 660 feet MSL.

b. 540 feet MSL.

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the


a. NOTAM’s.


b. Airport/Facility Directory.


c. Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.

b. Airport/Facility Directory.

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?


a. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.


b. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.


c. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

c. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that


a. weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.


b. the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.


c. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

c. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has


A. filed a IFR flight plan.


b. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.


c. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

b. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.

A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions established


a. for training purposes in the vicinity of military bases.


b. from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S.


c. over either domestic or international waters for the purpose of separating military from civilian aircraft.

b. from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S.

When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot


a. must operate only when military activity is not being conducted.


b. should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.


c. must obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.

b. should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

A military operations area (MOA) is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of


a. separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.


b. military services conducting VFR low altitude navigation, tactical training, and flight testing.


c. denoting the existence of unusual hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

a. separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.

If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by


a. VR and a three digit number only.


b. IR or VR and a four digit number.


c. IR or VR and a three digit number.

b. IR or VR and a four digit number.

Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is


a. never permitted.


b. permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity.


c. permitted at certain times, but only with prior permission from the appropriate authority.

b. permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity.

Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including,


a. 3,000 feet MSL.


b. 14,500 feet MSL.


c. the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

c. the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is


a. 14,500 feet MSL.


b. 18,000 feet MSL.


c. 18,000 feet AGL.

b. 18,000 feet MSL.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,


a. 10,000 feet MSL.


b. 14,500 feet MSL.


c. 18,000 feet MSL.

c. 18,000 feet MSL.

The vertical limit of Class D airspace will normally be designated at


a. the base of the Class E airspace.


b. up to, and including, 2,500 feet AGL.


b. up to, but not including, 3,000 feet AGL.

b. up to, and including, 2,500 feet AGL.

When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?


a. The airspace designation normally will not change.


b. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.


c. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

c. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?


a. 2,500 feet.


b. 3,000 feet.


c. 4,000 feet.

a. 2,500 feet.

To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must


a. monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.


b. contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.


c. secure prior approval from ATC before takeoff at the airport.

b. contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

All operations within Class C airspace must be


a. in communications with the responsible ATC facility.


b. on a flight plan filed prior to arrival or departure.


c. in an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

a. in communications with the responsible ATC facility.

What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?


a. Two-way communications.


b. Two-way communications and transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.


c. Two-way communications, transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability, and VOR.

b. Two-way communications and transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas of this Class C airspace?
a. 3,000 feet AGL.
b. 3,000 feet above airport.
c. 4,000 feet above airport.

Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas of this Class C airspace?


a. 3,000 feet AGL.


b. 3,000 feet above airport.


c. 4,000 feet above airport.

c. 4,000 feet above airport.

What is the normal radius of the outer area (area B)?
a. 10 NM.
b. 20 NM.
c. 25 NM.

What is the normal radius of the outer area (area B)?


a. 10 NM.


b. 20 NM.


c. 25 NM.

b. 20 NM.

What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?
a. 5 miles.
b. 10 miles.
c. 15 miles.

What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?


a. 5 miles.


b. 10 miles.


c. 15 miles.

b. 10 miles.

Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the shelf area?
a. 700 feet AGL.
b. 1,200 feet MSL.
c. 1,200 feet AGL.

Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the shelf area?


a. 700 feet AGL.


b. 1,200 feet MSL.


c. 1,200 feet AGL.

c. 1,200 feet AGL.

What is the radius of the surface area (circle C)?
a. 5 miles.
b. 10 miles.
c. 15 miles.

What is the radius of the surface area (circle C)?


a. 5 miles.


b. 10 miles.


c. 15 miles.

a. 5 miles.

If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?


a. Select 7700 on your transponder, fly a normal traffic pattern, and land.


b. Flash your landing lights and make shallow banks in opposite directions while circling the airport.


c. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

c. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

Which transponder code should the pilot of a civilian aircraft never use?


a. 7500


b. 7600


c. 7777

c. 7777

Most midair collision accidents occur during


a. hazy days within the traffic pattern environment.


b. clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids.


c. night conditions during simulated instrument flight.

b. clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids.

Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?


a. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.


b. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.


c. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

c. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to


a. turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region.


b. avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.


c. avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect of ground lights on the eyes.

b. avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.

When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft’s


a. true course.


b. ground track.


c. magnetic heading.

b. ground track.

What is an effective way to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic pattern?


a. Enter the pattern in a descent.


b. Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area.


c. rely on radio reports from other aircraft who may be operating in the traffic pattern.

b. Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area.

Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within


a. Class B airspace.


b. 10 miles of any airport.


c. 5 miles of a controlled airport.

b. 10 miles of any airport.

If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and DME, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is


a. A.


b. R.


c. U.

a. A.

How long will a Flight Service Station hold a VFR flight plan past the proposed departure time?


a. 30 minutes.


b. 1 hour.


c. 2 hours.

b. 1 hour.

If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and RNAV, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is


a. A.


b. R.


c. W.

b. R.

How much time do you have to close a VFR flight plan before search and rescue procedures are initiated?


a. One hour after your ATA.


b. One-half hour after landing.


c. One-half hour after your ETA.

c. One-half hour after your ETA.

When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in


a. FDC NOTAMs.


b. NOTAM (D) distribution.


c. The Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP).

b. NOTAM (D) distribution.

When information is disseminated for a navigational facility, it will be located in


a. FDC NOTAMs.


b. NOTAM (D) distribution.


c. The Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP).

b. NOTAM (D) distribution.

When information is disseminated for a temporary flight restriction (TFR), it will be located in


a. FDC NOTAMs.


b. NOTAM (D) distribution.


c. The Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP).

a. FDC NOTAMs.

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?


a. Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.


b. Military NOTAMs only.


c. Current NOTAM (D), FDC NOTAMs, and military NOTAMs.

a. Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.