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160 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Supervisory duties of a fire officer I would include
Initiating and completing station maintenance requests, preparing budgets, conducting preliminary accident investigations and supervising on fire unit
Would a fire officer I determine the area of origin or preliminary cause of fire
There are approximately how many fire departments in the US?
In 24 BC Augustus Caesar created what was probably the first fire department composed of 600 slaves who were stationed at various locations around the Roman Empire. This group of firefighters were known as -
Familia Publica
Which fire fighter developed the first fire hydrants in New York City in 1817
George Smith
Public call boxes were first introduced in which American city during the 1850s?
Washington DC
Firefighters usually report to -
A supervising officer who is in charge of a single company
According to the principle of Span of Control, how many firefighters can a fire officer effectively control?
Guiding or directing a course of action is -
__ are developed to provide definite guidelines for present and future actions.
Activated fire protection alarms represent the second most common response, and represent __ of the responses.
With activated fire protection system alarms what is the ratio of real fires in relation to false alarms?
Fire codes that are created or amended in reaction to a specific fire disaster are known as the -
Catastrophic theory of reform
Which one of the following would be the authority having jurisdiction for a local fire code?
The local fire chief, local code enforcement officer or local fire marshall
What is meant when states adopt mini/max codes.
The local jurisdiction do not have the option of adopting more restrictive regulations.
The National Building Code was first published by the National Board of Fire Underwriters in -
A complete set of model codes would include which of the following?
(1) Building code. (2) Electrical code. (3) Plumbing code. (4) Mechanical code. (5) Fire prevention code.
All of the Above
The model code process normally updates every -
2 to 5 years.
Normally code regulations that applied to a particular building at the time it was built remain in effect, as long as -
The building is occupied for the same purpose.
Which of the following classes of standpipes provides both 1.5 and 2.5 inch connections with a preconnected 1.5 inch hoseline intended to be used by the occupants until the fire department arrives at the scene?
Class III.
Which of the following classes of standpipes provides a 1.5 inch connection with a preconnected 1.5 inch hoseline intended to be used by the occupants until the fire department arrives at the scene?
Class II.
What is the fire extinguishing system that extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen?
Carbon Dioxide.
Which fire extinguishing system is the preferred system for protecting cooking equipment?
Wet chemical.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Types of Building Construction?
NFPA 220.
What would you expect the fire-resistive rating would be for a Type IIIA building?
1 to 2 hours.
Mill construction would be considered -
Type IV construction or Heavy Timber construction.
The code requirements that are applied to a particular occupancy are determined by its -
Use group.
All of the following would be classified as "Residential" buildings by NFPA
Your home or Super 8 Inn or The local Bed-And-Breakfast.
All of the following would be classified as "Business" buildings by NFPA
Colleges and University buildings or Dentist offices orRadio and television stations.
NFPA 101 is the -
Life Safety code.
NFPA 704 is the -
Standard system for the Identification of the Hazardous Materials for Emergency Response.
What color diamond would you expect to represent a reactivity hazard in the NFPA 704 marking system?
Once the exterior of a building is evaluated, where on the inside of the building should the fire safety inspection continue?
The basement
Less critical issues found during fire safety inspections should be corrected -
Within 30 to 90 days.
What NFPA standard is the Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers?
NFPA 10.
Which organizations should conduct risk assessments?
Public or Not-for-profit or Private.
What is the Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System?
NFPA 1561.
Some fire departments require a set time to pass between a formal disciplinary action and consideration for an officer promotion. Which of the following best represents that time limit?
1 month, 6 months or one full year
A narrative that summarizes the scope of a job and provides examples of the typical tasks that a firefighter holding the job would be expected to perform is called the -
Job description
A technical worksheet to quantify the KSA of every classified municipal job is called the -
Class specification
Which type of examinations are widely used in the promotional process of the fire service?
Multiple-choice exams.
Up to __ of the promotional test will focus on the technical aspects of a supervising fire officer.
A managing fire officer exam usually includes __ technical questions and __ management and administration questions.
Fewer, more.
Which of the following is a common assessment center event, where the fire officer candidate must deal with a stack of correspondences, and related items that have accumulated on a fire officer's desk?
In-basket exercise.
The first key point of an interpersonal interaction assessment is -
Maintain control of the interview.
A valuable tool in studying for a promotional examination is to create a -
Personal study journal.
The most successful candidate in a role-playing exercise is the one who -
Acts naturally
A series of simulated exercises used to evaluate a candidate's competence in performing the actual tasks associated in performing a job best describes which of the following?
Assessment center.
Which of the following would be considered the first step in handling an "In-basket" exercise?
Emergency incident simulations fall into one of four formats. The first format, the fire officer candidate is provided information concerning an emergency incident. The candidate then must explain the actions that would be taken, and also describe what factors would be considered in making those decisions. This is called the -
Data dump question.
An exercise designed to test a candidate's ability to perform effectively as a supervisor is called a -
Interpersonal interaction exercise.
A metropolitan (metro-sized) fire department is a department with more than __ fully paid firefighters.
A group of battalion chiefs in Fairfax, Virginia were asked to derive a list of four basic tasks that they considered vital in order to be a good fire officer. Which of the following were included in their list?
(1) Beginning of shift report. (2) Notifications. (3) Fire fighting knowledge. (4) Decision making. (5) Problem solving.
1, 2, 4, 5.
When should the beginning of shift report be faxed to the battalion chief?
Within 15 minutes of the reporting time.
The first part of a beginning of shift report -
Provides the on-duty staffing information and sick leave list.
Battalion Chief Kevin says that hard decisions regarding issues that arise within a fire company should be made by battalion chiefs.
Battalion Chief Brett says that hard decisions regarding issues that arise within a fire company should be made by the company's fire officer.
Battalion Chief Jim says that company officers often complain about problems without ever offering any solutions.
Who is correct?
Both Battalion Chiefs Brett and Jim
Who is directly responsible for the supervision, performance, and safety of a crew of firefighters?
The Company-level Officer.
The formal fire department organization considers a fire officer to be the -
Fire chief's representative at the work location.
What should the company officer do if he/she is told to issue and enforce an unpopular order or directive?
Carry out the order.
A fire officer can improve his or her effectiveness in handling an unpopular order by -
Determining the story or history behind the order.
At an emergency scene the fire officer -
Must function as a commander and exercise strong direct supervision.
A fire officer establishing command upon arriving at an emergency scene should have -
A detailed knowledge of the responding companies.A mastery of local procedures.The ability to issue clear, direct orders.
Who has the responsibility to ensure that fire fighters working at a fire scene are confident and competent in their skills?
The fire officer.
Fire Officer Brett says that every fire officer has an obligation to keep their supervisor informed and to make appropriate decisions at his level of responsibility.
Fire Officer Liz says that every fire officer should consult with her supervisor before making major disciplinary actions or policy changes.
Who is correct?
Both are correct.
If a fire officer has the authority to solve a problem he/she should -
Solve the problem
Decision making and personal behavior that are consistent with the department's core values, mission statement, and value statements is known as -
Ethical behavior.
The complex system of inherent attributes that determine a person's moral and ethical actions and reactions, including the quality of being honest is known as -
Which NFPA Standard is the Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications?
NFPA 1021
Which piece of legislation provides additional compensatory and punitive damages in cases of intentional discrimination under Title VII?
The Civil Rights Act of 1991.
when applied to fire departments means that the work force should reflect the community it serves
An employee behavior(s) that requires an immediate corrective action by a supervisor is known as an -
Actionable item.
A firefighter's use of derogatory or racist terms about people from other ethnicities or genders -
Requires immediate corrective action by the supervisor.
The unwanted, uninvited, and unwelcome attention and intimacy in a nonreciprocal relationship is known as -
Sexual harrassment
Firefighters who want to initiate a harassment complaint can do so with which 3 levels of government?
Fire department or Federal Government or Local Government
is the most common reason that local governments are found liable during sexual harrassment cases?
Failure to investigate the complaint.
All sexual harassment complains should be -
Kept confidential.
What is meant by "On duty speech?"
To establish a workplace environment where certain behaviors and certain words are not used.
What is the second most important issue noted by administrative fire officers?
The need to make prompt notifications.
How would you characterize a type of sexual harassment in which a supervisor specifically promises a work-related benefit in return for a sexual favor?
Quid pro quo.
The civil rights of Americans are established by the federal government, and are enforced by the -
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
Trauma deaths resulting from motor vehicle collisions make up __ of annual line-of-duty deaths in the U.S. Fire Administration retrospective study.
The most common fatal motor vehicle collision scenario involves -
A fire fighter responding to an emergency incident in a personal vehicle.
Which type of apparatus accounts for more fatal fire department vehicle collisions than the other three put together?
What is the third most frequent category of fire fighter fatalities?
Asphyxiation and burns caused by caught or trapped fire fighters.
Every August, a working group of fire fighters and officers are assembled to analyze fire fighter near-miss reports using a tool modified for the U.S. Navy's Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS). The results of this analysis are provided in an annual report. These are divided into four different levels. What would be considered HFACS Level 1?
Unsafe Acts.
Which NFPA standard establishes Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications?
NFPA 1002.
Requiring fire fighters riding in apparatus to be seated, and wearing seat belts could prevent __ fatalities every year.
10 - 15.
The U.S. Fire Administration retrospect study shows that 82% of the fatal fire suppression incidents involve the death of a -
Single fire fighter.
What was the common scenario involving the death of a single fire fighter as discovered by the NIOSH?
There was a lack of an effective incident management system that included a fire fighter accountability component.
Which federal agency establishes federal workplace safety regulations in the United States?
NFPA 1561 states that there must be a minimum of two fully equipped personnel standing by on-site, in a ready state for immediate rescue of injured or trapped fire fighting personnel. These fire fighters are commonly known as a -
Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC).
A system intended to track the identity, assignment, and location of all fire fighters operating at an incident scene is known as a -
Personnel Accountability System.
Command officers are accountable for the location and function of which of the following?
Full companies working at an emergency scene.
Who should know which fire companies are assigned to each sector or division?
The incident commander.
The rated time of an SCBA bottle is based on a standard consumption rate for an individual -
At rest.
Low-pressure warning devices are only effective if the fire fighter -
Is able to exit to a safe atmosphere in the time provided.
The minimum size of an interior work team is -
2 fire fighters.
One of the primary responsibilities of a fire officer working at an emergency scene is to -
Maintain a continual connection between the functions being performed by the company and the overall situation.
A hazard and situation assessment that weighs the risks involved in a particular course of action against the benefits to be gained for taking those risks is called -
Risk/benefit analysis.
Which of the following situations truly justifies exposing fire fighters to a high level of risk?
When there is a realistic chance of saving a life.
A written document that provides information that can be used by responding personnel to determine the appropriate actions in the event of an emergency at a specific facility is known as a -
Preincident plan.
A plan that incorporates the overall incident strategy, tactics, risk management evaluation, and organization structure for a particular situation is known as a -
Incident action plan.
Who is responsible for formulating the Incident Action Plan?
The incident commander.
The incident safety officer is a designated individual at an emergency scene who performs a set of duties and responsibilities that are specified in -
NFPA 1521.
The incident safety officer reports to the -
Incident commander.
The standard organizational structure that is used to manage assigned resources in order to accomplish stated objectives for an incident is known as the -
Incident command system.
The incident command system begins with the first arriving -
The potential for harm to people, property, or the environment is called a -
Who should be trained to perform the basic duties of an incident safety officer?
Every fire officer.
Emergency incidents that require specific and advanced training and specialized tools and equipment would be considered -
Special operations
What NFPA standard describes the Standard for Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials incidents?
NFPA 472.
Some incidents based on their size, complexity, or duration require more than one safety officer. This group of assistant incident safety officers is called a -
Safety unit.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Station/Work Uniforms for Fire and Emergency Services?
NFPA 1975.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Fire Department Infection Control Program?
NFPA 1581.
What is the first component of NFPA 1581?
A written policy with the goal of identifying and limiting exposures.
How soon after an exposure should the fire department infection control officer be notified?
Within 2 hours.
Who is charged with ensuring that all injuries, illnesses, exposures, and fatalities, or other potentially hazardous conditions and all accidents involving fire department vehicles, fire apparatus, equipment, or fire department facilities are thoroughly investigated?
The health and safety officer.
An unexpected event that interrupts or interferes with the orderly progress of fire department operations is known as a(an) -
Who is charged with the responsibility of conducting an initial investigation and for fully investigating minor accidents?
The fire officer.
The identification and analysis of exposure to hazards, selection of appropriate risk management techniques to handle exposures, implementation of chosen techniques, and monitoring of results, with respect to the health and safety of members is known as -
Risk management
Which of the following statements best describes how a fire officer handles risk management?
Fire officers should focus attention on high-risk activities that are performed relatively infrequently.
Skill-based errors include the factors, attention failure, memory failure, and technical failure. Which type of failure would be due to lack of training?
Technical failure.
Which types of errors are based on visual illusions?
Perception-based errors.
What would be considered HFACS Level 3?
Unsafe Supervision.
What would be considered HFACS Level 4
Organizational Influences.
Which HFACS level analyzes substandard conditions and practices of the individual involved?
HFACS Level 2: Preconditions to Unsafe Acts.
HFACS Level 1
Unsafe Acts.
HFACS Level 2
Preconditions to Unsafe Acts.
HFACS Level 3
Unsafe Supervision.
HFACS Level 4
Organizational Influences.
Data collected by NFPA from 1977 to 2007 shows that __ of the 406 fatalities from collisions were volunteer fire fighters.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Health -Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members?
NFPA 1583.
The OSHA regulation that establishes specific requirements for fire fighters operating in an IDLH environment is known as the -
The Two-In, Two-Out Rule.
A personnel accountability system is required by which NFPA standard?
NFPA 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
description of a yellow-dog contract.
An employer requirement for a job applicant to pledge in writing not to join a union.
yellow-dog contracts?
Contracts upheld and enforced by the courts prior to 1932.
Which of the following laws made yellow-dog contracts unenforceable by any U S court?
Norris-LaGuardia Act
Prior to the Norris-La Guardia Act employers could obtain __ against strikes and picketing.
An injunction
The National Industrial Recovery Act (NIRA) guaranteed unions the right to collective bargaining. Which one of the following actions was taken in 1935 on the Act by the U S Supreme Court?
Found the act unconstitutional and struck it down.
Which one of the following acts established the National Labor Relations Board?
In 1936 the Wagner-Connery Act was upheld by the U S Supreme Court after a strike by which one of the following unions?
United Auto Workers (UAW).
A method whereby representatives of employees and employers determine the conditions of employment through direct negotiations normally resulting in a written contract setting forth the wages, hours, and other conditions to be observed for a stipulated period of time, is called -
Collective bargaining.
Between 1933 and 1934 labor organized against management and conducted citywide strikes and factory takeovers in numerous industrial sectors. This was called the -
Great Strike Wave.
Interfering with employees in a union, not hiring union members, stopping a union from forming and collecting money, firing union members, and refusing to bargain with a union would all be examples of -
Unfair labor practices.
Which one of the following acts prohibited management from interfering with, or coercing employees who tried to organize?
Which one of the following acts established the procedures that are commonly referred to as collective bargaining?
After World War II unions grew substantially stronger due to government protection and favorable court decisions. In an attempt to restore some balance, Congress passed one of the following acts over a presidential veto -
The Taft-Hartley Act gave workers the right to -
Refrain from joining a union.
Which one of the following acts protects employees from being pressured by unions to join and to pay exorbitant union dues or initiation fees?
The Taft-Hartley Act provides for a __ day cooling-off period when negotiations for the renewal of a labor contract fail.
The Landrum-Griffin Act was a reaction to the wide-spread corruption revealed in older union locals. All of the following were included in the act
A requirement that labor unions disclose union assets and the names
and assets of every union officer and employee. A union members' bill of rights.Amended portions of the Taft-Hartley Labor Act.
Which of the following presidents issued an order that gave federal employees the right to bargain collectively for the first time?
Which one of the following was the name of the body created by President Nixon which was similar to the National Labor Relations Board for the private sector unions?
Federal Labor Relations Council.
Which one of the following Acts can the President invoke if a strike affects a key industry or puts the health and safety of the nation in jeopardy?
Strikes by state employees are -
Illegal in all but 10 states.
In 2009 laws were in effect in 22 states that state that a worker cannot be compelled as a condition of employment, to join or not to join, or pay dues to a labor union. These laws are known as -
Right-To-Work laws.
Which of the following cities had the first documented paid fire department in the United States established in 1853?
A union member appointed or elected to be the first line of labor representation at the workplace is called the -
Shop steward
The act of withholding labor for the purpose of effecting a change in wages, hours, or working conditions is known as -
When referring to the fire service, who is the ultimate victim when a fire department goes on strike?
The safety and welfare of the general public.