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252 Cards in this Set

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1) What element makes protein different from carbohydrate and fat?




A) carbon


B) hydrogen


C) oxygen


D) nitrogen

d nitrogen

2) What dictates the structure of a protein molecule synthesized by the body?




A) the body's need for a protein


B) the DNA inside the nucleus of the cell


C) the number of essential amino acids available


D) the combination of proteins consumed in the diet

B) the DNA inside the nucleus of the cell

3) All of the following are parts of an amino acid molecule EXCEPT




A) a central carbon.


B) an amine group.


C) an acid group.


D) a fatty acid group.

D) a fatty acid group.

4) Which part of an individual amino acid distinguishes it from other amino acids?




A) side chain


B) central carbon


C) amine group


D) acid group

A) side chain

5) The part of the protein molecule that carries nitrogen is the ________




A) acid group.


B) amine group.


C) side chain.


D) hydrogen group.

B) amine group.

6) In phenylketonuria (PKU), what amino acid becomes conditionally essential?




A) phenylalanine


B) tyrosine


C) alanine


D) cysteine

B) tyrosine

7) Polypeptides are a string of ________ amino acids.




A) 1-2


B) 3-5


C) 4-9


D) more than 10

D) more than 10

8) A protein's ________ structure refers to the twisting, spiral shape formed by the sequence and chemical propertiesof its amino acids.




A) primary


B) secondary


C) tertiary


D) quaternary

B) secondary

9) A complete protein ________2




A) contains all 20 amino acids.


B) contains all 9 essential amino acids.


C) has not been denatured.


D) is composed of only di- and tripeptides.

B) contains all 9 essential amino acids.

10) The process of transferring the amine group from one amino acid to another is called ________




A) gene expression.


B) alteration.


C) deamination.


D) transamination.

D) transamination.

11) Two amino acids are joined together by a peptide bond to form a dipeptide. What is the by-product of thisprocess?




A) ammonia


B) water


C) carbon dioxide


D) hydrochloric acid

B) water

12) Which of the following foods is a source of complete protein?




A) broccoli


B) apple


C) chicken


D) whole grain bread

C) chicken

13) Egg whites stiffen when they are whipped. The change that occurs in the protein is called ________




A) denaturation.


B) translocation.


C) transcription.


D) deamination.

A) denaturation

14) In what structure of the mammalian cell are proteins synthesized?




A) nucleus


B) ribosome


C) cell membrane


D) mitochondria

B) ribosome

15) How do proteins differ from carbohydrates and fats?




A) Proteins contain nitrogen.


B) Proteins are not synthesized according to instructions from DNA.


C) Proteins do not provide any energy to the body.


D) The building blocks of proteins are fatty acids.

A) Proteins contain nitrogen.

16) The process through which mRNA copies genetic information from DNA and carries it to the ribosome is called________




A) translation.


B) deamination.


C) denaturation.


D) transcription.

D) transcription.

17) Which of the following is the most complete protein from a plant source?




A) green beans


B) soybeans


C) bread


D) apples

B) soybeans

18) Of the 20 amino acids relevant to the human body, how many are considered nonessential?




A) none


B) 9


C) 11


D) 20

C) 11

19) A/n ________ is a body protein that is stored in a gland and secreted to an organ to restore normal bodyconditions or balance.




A) enzyme


B) hormone


C) antibody


D) buffer

B) hormone

20) In the body, buffers are very important in ________




A) defending the body against bacteria and toxins.


B) maintaining acid-base balance in the body.


C) accelerating chemical reactions in the body.


D) maintaining and repairing body tissue.

B) maintaining acid-base balance in the body.

21) Which of the following is NOT a major function of protein in the human body?




A) maintaining fluid balance


B) providing energy to the body


C) growth and maintenance of new tissue


D) synthesis of hormones

B) providing energy to the body

22) All of the following are examples of amino-acid containing hormones EXCEPT




A) insulin.


B) thyroid.


C) glucagon.


D) testosterone.

D) testosterone.

23) Which of the following proteins are fundamental to the immune system?




A) enzymes


B) antibodies


C) buffers


D) transport proteins

B) antibodies

24) Proteases are




A) protein messengers that are released from storage in response to an alteration in the body's homeostasis.


B) transport proteins that move substances throughout the body.


C) defense proteins that attack foreign bacteria, viruses, and toxins.


D) enzymes that break down protein in the small intestine.

D) enzymes that break down protein in the small intestine.

25) Conduction of nerve signals and contraction of muscles depends on the proper balance of ________




A) glucose.


B) electrolytes.


C) buffers.


D) nitrogen

B) electrolytes.

26) Which of the following statements is FALSE?




A) HCl denatures protein to allow digestive enzymes to break down the protein.


B) HCl inhibits the digestion of fat so it does not compete with protein digestion.


C) HCl untangles the strands of protein and breaks the peptide bonds.


D) HCl activates pepsinogen from pepsin.

B) HCl inhibits the digestion of fat so it does not compete with protein digestion.

27) Significant chemical digestion of protein begins in the ________




A) mouth.


B) stomach.


C) gallbladder.


D) pancreas.

B) stomach.

28) The process of combining two incomplete proteins to make a complete protein is called ________




A) the protein combining method.


B) amino acid sequencing method.


C) mutual supplementation.


D) protein.

C) mutual supplementation.

29) Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to be in positive nitrogen balance?




A) a 29-year-old woman who is 6 months pregnant


B) a 20-year-old female who is consuming 500 calories a day


C) a 10-year-old boy recovering from severe burns


D) a 30-year-old man with a temperature of 103.7°F

A) a 29-year-old woman who is 6 months pregnant

30) To conserve body protein for its vital functions and not use it to provide energy, you should ________




A) eat adequate amounts of carbohydrate and fat to conserve protein for other functions.


B) eat at least twice the recommended RDA for protein to ensure adequate protein stores.


C) work out in the gym at least three times a week to store additional protein for later use.


D) eat meat three times a week to ensure adequate protein storage.

A) eat adequate amounts of carbohydrate and fat to conserve protein for other functions.

31) Which of the following is NOT typically a nutrient of concern for vegans?




A) iron


B) vitamin B12


C) vitamin C


D) calcium

C) vitamin C

32) The type of vegetarian who eats vegetables, grains, fruits, eggs, and milk but excludes all other types of animal protein is called a ________




A) vegan.


B) lacto-vegetarian.


C) lacto-ovo vegetarian.


D) pesco-vegetarian.

C) lacto-ovo vegetarian.

33) The type of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by a general lack of protein in the diet is called ________




A) marasmus.


B) sickle cell anemia.


C) cystic fibrosis.


D) kwashiorkor

D) kwashiorkor

34) During the process of protein synthesis, ________ is the step in which messenger RNA is decoded into an aminoacid sequence at the cell's ribosome.




A) transcription


B) translation


C) deamination


D) denaturation

B) translation

35) The absorption of proteins occurs in the ________




A) stomach.


B) small intestine.


C) large intestine.


D) liver.

B) small intestine.

36) An acid-base imbalance can result in ________




A) no change in the pH of the blood.


B) an increased rate of absorption in the stomach.


C) coma and death.


D) digestive problems.

C) coma and death.

37) Which of the following statements is FALSE?




A) The healthy body's primary energy source is carbohydrate and fat.


B) The body stores excess protein primarily for energy reserves.


C) To utilize protein for energy, the amine group is removed.


D) Eating sufficient carbohydrate and fat will spare body protein.

B) The body stores excess protein primarily for energy reserves.

38) Which of the following health problems is NOT associated with high protein intakes?




A) heart disease


B) kidney disease


C) bone loss


D) sickle cell anemia

D) sickle cell anemia

39) Which of the following supplements would you recommend a vegan add to his/her diet?




A) protein


B) fiber


C) vitamin B12


D) vitamin C

C) vitamin B12

40) Well-planned vegetarian diets can reduce the risk of all of the following chronic diseases EXCEPT




A) obesity


.B) heart disease.


C) anemia.


D) cancer.

C) anemia.

41) Which of the following is NOT associated with kwashiorkor?




A) flat belly and abdomenB) enlarged, fatty liverC) loss of hairD) weight loss and muscle wasting

A) flat belly and abdomen

42) Vegetarian diets are associated with increased consumption of ________.




A) carcinogensB) antioxidantsC) prionsD) vitamins B12 and D

B) antioxidants

1) Fifty to ________ percent of an adult's healthy body weight is fluid.




A) 30B) 50C) 70D) 90

C) 70

2) What is the function of synovial fluid?




A) maintains blood volumeB) transports nutrients through the bodyC) lubricates body jointsD) maintains body temperature

C) lubricates body joints

3) Which is NOT a symptom of low blood pressure?




A) strokeB) confusionC) fainting spellsD) lethargy

A) stroke

4) Water has a high heat capacity. What does this term mean?




A) Water is resistant to changes in temperature.B) Water heats up or cools down very quickly.C) Water provides a useful source of stored kilocalories.D) Water transports the energy-yielding nutrients throughout the body

A) Water is resistant to changes in temperature.

5) Water is known as the universal solvent. This means that ________




A) water helps to regulate body temperature.B) water helps to maintain blood volume.C) water works as an excellent cleansing agent to flush toxins out of the body.D) most solutes (particles) will dissolve in water.

D) most solutes (particles) will dissolve in water.

6) Which of the following statements is TRUE?




A) Water freely moves across cell membranes.


B) Water and electrolytes move across the cell membranes only through protein channels.


C) Electrolytes freely move across cell membranes.


D) Water and electrolytes cannot move across cell membranes.

A) Water freely moves across cell membranes.

7) Which of the following will likely result if the concentration of electrolytes outside the cell is higher than in the intracellular environment?




A) The cell will burst.B) The cell will shrink and dry up.C) The cell will undergo mitosis and divide.D) The cell will be unaffected.

B) The cell will shrink and dry up.

8) Ian is hospitalized for dehydration after experiencing severe vomiting and diarrhea. Which of the following is NOT associated with Ian's dehydrated condition?




A) Fluid will be lost from the extracellular fluid compartment.B) The extracellular electrolyte concentration will be very low.C) The intracellular fluid will leave the cells creating a fluid imbalance.D) The fluid imbalance will result in an irregular heartbeat.

B) The extracellular electrolyte concentration will be very low.

9) What is the primary reason we sweat?




A) to maintain blood volumeB) to maintain sodium balanceC) to excrete waste productsD) to regulate body temperature

D) to regulate body temperature

10) Most water is lost daily via the ________.




A) skinB) lungsC) kidneysD) colon

C) kidneys

11) The ability of a muscle to contract and relax is dependent on the flow of ________ in and out of the muscle cell.




A) phosphorusB) calciumC) ironD) chloride

B) calcium

12) The "command center" of fluid intake is located in the ________




A) kidneys.B) adrenal glands.C) skin.D) hypothalamus.

D) hypothalamus.

13) Which of the following stimulates the thirst mechanism?




A) decreased concentration of solutes in the bloodB) elevated blood volume and pressureC) dryness of the mouth and throat tissuesD) eating sweet-tasting foods

A) decreased concentration of solutes in the blood

14) Insensible water loss includes water loss ________




A) during illness or trauma.B) during intense exercise.C) through respiration.D) through urination.

C) through respiration.

15) Which of the following is a major mineral?




A) sodiumB) ironC) zincD) copper

A) sodium

16) Hyponatremia is associated with ________




A) insufficient intake of dietary sodium.B) excessive intake of dietary sodium.C) dehydration.D) overhydration.

D) overhydration.

17) Diets high in sodium are associated with ________




A) breast cancer.B) diabetes mellitus.C) obesity.D) high blood pressure

D) high blood pressure

18) Matt has just been diagnosed with hypertension, and his physician has instructed him to reduce his sodium intake. Which of the following would be good advice for Matt?




A) Snack on fresh fruits and vegetables instead of salty snacks.B) Do not rinse canned beans with cold water before eating.C) Eat a variety of canned and dried soups.8D) Eat canned creamed corn instead of fresh.

A) Snack on fresh fruits and vegetables instead of salty snacks.

19) The water that comes from lakes, rivers, and reservoirs is ________ water.




A) surfaceB) groundC) springD) distilled

A) surface

20) Diets rich in ________ are associated with maintaining healthy blood pressure levels.




A) sodiumB) chlorideC) potassiumD) phosphorus

C) potassium

21) Which of the following individuals is at risk for hyperkalemia?




A) a marathon runnerB) a newbornC) an individual who has a diet rich in processed foodsD) an individual with kidney disease

D) an individual with kidney disease

22) The majority of dietary chloride is consumed from ________




A) animal protein sources.B) alcohol.C) vitamin supplements.D) table salt.

D) table salt.

23) Which is NOT a function of chloride?




A) assists in regulating the body's fluid balanceB) transmits nerve impulsesC) in the form of hydrochloric acid, prepares food for digestionD) used in public water supplies to kill harmful bacteria

D) used in public water supplies to kill harmful bacteria

24) The majority of our body's phosphorus is stored in the ________




A) kidneys.B) bones.C) blood.D) liver.

B) bones

25) Widely distributed in many foods, phosphorous is especially abundant in foods dense in ________




A) carbohydrate.B) protein.C) phytic acid.D) fat.Answer:

B) protein.

26) Mary drinks 600 milliliters of water. How many cups is this equivalent to?




A) 1 cupB) 2 cupsC) 2 1/2 cupsD) 3 cups

C) 2 1/2 cups

27) On average, which of the following individuals would have the highest percentage of body water?




A) 35-year-old overweight manB) 35-year-old overweight womanC) 35-year-old lean man D) 35-year-old lean woman

C) 35-year-old lean man

28) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding phosphorus?




A) Phosphorus from animal sources is more readily absorbed than the phosphorus from plant sources.B) Humans absorb about 50% of the phosphorus from plant sources.C) On average, Americans do not consume enough phosphorus in their diets.D) Bacteria in the large intestine can break down the phosphorus from plant sources.

C) On average, Americans do not consume enough phosphorus in their diets.

29) Which of the following foods contains the lowest amount of sodium?




A) 1 medium fresh orangeB) 1 cup of canned vegetable soupC) 1 large dill pickleD) 1 oz. of potato chips

A) 1 medium fresh orange

30) Which of the following is a diuretic?




A) alcoholB) milkC) waterD) orange juice

A) alcohol

31) All of the following are major functions of sodium EXCEPT




A) assists in muscle contraction.B) maintains fluid balance.C) maintains normal heart rhythm.D) maintains acid-base balance.

C) maintains normal heart rhythm.

32) Which of the following do sodium and potassium NOT have in common?




A) Rich sources of both include fresh foods, such as bananas, cantaloupe, and potatoes.B) Both participate in maintaining fluid balance.C) Both are involved in nerve transmission.D) Both are major electrolytes in the body.

A) Rich sources of both include fresh foods, such as bananas, cantaloupe, and potatoes.

33) All of the following conditions are related to an electrolyte imbalance EXCEPT




A) seizures.B) muscle cramps.C) depression.D) hypoglycemia.

D) hypoglycemia.

34) The fluid that is found in between cells is called ________ fluid.




A) intracellularB) interstitialC) intravascularD) synovial

B) interstitial

35) Which of the following does NOT describe tissue fluid?




A) fluid that flows between cellsB) fluid that is also called interstitial fluidC) fluid that is found in the blood streamD) synovial fluid found within joints

C) fluid that is found in the blood stream

36) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism to maintain the body's internal temperature?




A) Fluid acts as a coolant by increasing the blood flow from the warm body core to the peripheral tissue, thus coolingthe body.10B) Fluid has a high capacity for heat, so it requires a great deal of energy to raise its temperature.C) Fluid is evaporated as sweat from the skin's surface, thus cooling the body.D) Warmed fluids from the body's surface return to the body's core, thus heating the body.

D) Warmed fluids from the body's surface return to the body's core, thus heating the body.

37) The movement of water through a semipermeable membrane toward solutes is called ________




A) osmosis.B) filtration.C) depolarization.D) distillation.

A) osmosis.

38) Which of the following conditions would result in a decreased water loss from the body?




A) pregnancyB) low humidityC) diuretic useD) high sodium intake.

D) high sodium intake.

40) Of the following ethnic groups, which has the highest risk of developing hypertension?




A) CaucasianB) AsianC) HispanicD) African American

D) African American

41) The agency that sets and monitors standards for city water systems is the ________




A) Food and Drug Administration (FDA).B) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).C) Center for Disease Control (CDC).D) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

B) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

1) Which of the following groups are the MOST vulnerable to dehydration?




A) pregnant women and the elderlyB) adolescents and childrenC) infants and pregnant womenD) infants and the elderly

D) infants and the elderly

2) Which of following does NOT explain why infants are at a higher risk of dehydration compared to adults?




A) Infants excrete urine at a higher rate.B) Infants cannot tell parents or caregivers when they are thirsty.C) Infants have a greater ratio of body surface area to body core.D) Infants have a lower total body water percentage.

D) Infants have a lower total body water percentage.

3) After completing a 10K run, Bonita notices that her urine is brown and similar to the color of cola. What does thisindicate about Bonita's hydration status?




A) She is well hydrated.B) She may be inadequately hydrated and needs to replace fluids.C) She is suffering from severe dehydration and needs treatment immediately.11D) The color of urine is not a reliable indicator of hydration status.

C) She is suffering from severe dehydration and needs treatment immediately.

4) A potentially fatal condition characterized by the failure of the body's heat-regulating mechanisms is heat________.A) hypertensionB) feverC) dehydrationD) stroke

D) stroke

5) Bert goes to the gym and works out strenuously for about 45 minutes. After his exercise bout he weighs himselfand notices that he has lost a pound. How much fluid should he drink to rehydrate his body?A) 1 cupB) 2 cupsC) 3 cupsD) 4 cups

B) 2 cups

6) The most serious type of heat illness is heat ________.




A) syncopeB) crampsC) strokeD) exhaustion

C) stroke

7) Which of the following individuals is most likely to suffer dehydration?




A) Bill who has the flu and has been suffering from vomiting and diarrhea for three days.


B) Mario who has diabetes with a blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL.


C) Maria who is a bulimic and vomits after every meal.


D) Julio who never takes diuretics of laxatives.

D) Julio who never takes diuretics of laxatives.

8) A fluid loss of greater than ________ percent of body weight can result in organ failure, coma, and death.




A) 2B) 3C) 5D) 8

D) 8 %

9) Heat cramps that develop during vigorous physical activity in hot temperatures are due to ________




A) a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.B) blood flow being diverted away from the muscles to the heart.C) an internal body temperature exceeding 105°F.D) an elevation in blood pressure.

A) a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

10) Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment of heat exhaustion?




A) Relocate to a cool location and drink a sports beverage.B) Loosen clothing and cool the body with a shower or bath.C) Seek medical attention if symptoms do not subside within an hour.D) Place a heating pad in an area of the body where blood circulates close to the surface.

D) Place a heating pad in an area of the body where blood circulates close to the surface.

11) Guidelines that can prevent heat related deaths in high school and collegiate athletes include all of the following EXCEPT




A) regular fluid breaks for athletes.


B) changing the time of events to avoid periods of high heat and humidly.


C) canceling training and competition during periods of high heat and humidity.


D) attendance of a certified athletic trainer at all sporting events.

D) attendance of a certified athletic trainer at all sporting events.

12) Hyperventilation, core body temperature above 105°F, hot and dry skin, and rapid pulse are all symptoms of whattype of heat illness?




A) heat strokeB) heat exhaustionC) heat syncopeD) heat cramps

A) heat stroke

13) Athletes are more likely to develop a heat illness on hot and humid days. Why?




A) The kidneys do not reabsorb water as well on hot and humid days.B) The thirst mechanism is not as acute on hot and humid days.C) In hot and humid weather the body cannot dissipate heat via evaporation of sweat.D) On hot and humid days, blood flow is diverted away from the extremities, and the body cannot be cooled as fast.

C) In hot and humid weather the body cannot dissipate heat via evaporation of sweat.

1) The smallest physical units of a substance are ________




A) molecules.B) atoms.C) free radicals.D) elements.

A) molecules.

2) Carbon and hydrogen are two examples of ________




A) atoms.B) antioxidants.C) electrons.D) nuclei.

A) atoms.

3) In an atom, the nucleus has a positive charge, and the electrons orbiting around the nucleus have a ________charge.




A) positiveB) negativeC) equalD) neutral

B) negative

4) A chemical reaction in which atoms lose electrons is ________.




A) oxidationB) reductionC) radiationD) mineralization

A) oxidation

5) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding free radicals?




A) Free radicals are formed as a by-product of healthy metabolism.B) Our body has no mechanism to combat free radicals.C) Exposure to pollution increases free radical production.D) Many diseases, such as cancer and heart disease, are linked to free radical damage.

B) Our body has no mechanism to combat free radicals.

6) What is an exchange reaction?




A) a reaction that produces free radicalsB) a two-part metabolic reaction that involves a loss and gain of electronsC) the first stage of cancer development, in which a cell's DNA mutatesD) a reaction that converts a provitamin into the metabolically active form

B) a two-part metabolic reaction that involves a loss and gain of electrons

7) Free radicals13




A) are very stable atoms.B) are rarely formed by the body's fundamental physiological processes.C) damage the cell's mitochondria.D) are formed by exposure to air pollution and tobacco smoke.

D) are formed by exposure to air pollution and tobacco smoke.

8) Which of the following are required components of antioxidant enzyme systems?




A) antioxidant mineralsB) antioxidant vitaminsC) phytochemicalsD) gastrointestinal microflora

A) antioxidant minerals

9) How do antioxidant minerals stabilize free radicals?




A) donate electrons or hydrogensB) enzymatic destructionC) phagocytosisD) break down and convert them to less damaging molecules

D) break down and convert them to less damaging molecules

10) Which of the following diseases has NOT been linked to free radical damage?




A) cancerB) heart diseaseC) arthritisD) type 1 diabetes

D) type 1 diabetes

11) Examples of antioxidant enzyme systems include superoxide dismutase, ________, andglutathione peroxidase.




A) vitamins E B) catalaseC) beta caroteneD) vitamin C

B) catalase

12) The most powerful and abundant form of vitamin E is ________




A) alpha-tocopherol.B) beta-tocopherol.C) gamma-tocopherol.D) delta-tocopherol.

A) alpha-tocopherol

13) Which water-soluble vitamin can regenerate vitamin E after it has been oxidized?




A) vitamin DB) vitamin B12C) vitamin CD) folate

C) vitamin C

14) Grandma Jane takes anticoagulant medication daily to prevent blood clots. Which vitamin must she avoid takingin excess of the RDA, as it could interact with the medication causing uncontrollable bleeding?




A) vitamin EB) vitamin DC) vitamin KD) vitamin C

A) vitamin E

15) About 90% of vitamin E is stored in ________




A) adipose tissue.B) the liver.C) cell membranes.D) the skin.

A) adipose tissue.

16) Which of the following is NOT a function of vitamin E?




A) protecting PUFA (polyunsaturated fatty acids) in cell membranes from oxidationB) enhancing the immune system and protecting white blood cellsC) improving the absorption of vitamin C if dietary intake is lowD) protecting LDLs (low-density lipoproteins) from oxidation

C) improving the absorption of vitamin C if dietary intake is low

17) Which of the following foods are the richest sources of vitamin E?




A) milk and dairy productsB) fruits and vegetablesC) meat, fish, and poultryD) mayonnaise, vegetable oils, nuts, and seeds

D) mayonnaise, vegetable oils, nuts, and seeds

18) Taking vitamin E supplements along with ________ can cause uncontrollable bleeding.




A) antidepressantsB) anticoagulantsC) cholesterol-lowering medicationsD) oral contraceptives

B) anticoagulants

19) A deficiency of ________ can result in erythrocyte hemolysis, leading to anemia.




A) ironB) vitamin EC) vitamin CD) zinc

B) vitamin E

20) Which of the following nutrients requires the most frequent consumption to assure adequate body stores?




A) vitamin AB) vitamin EC) vitamin CD) beta-carotene

C) vitamin C

21) The deficiency disease associated with vitamin C is ________




A) scurvy.B) erythrocyte hemolysis.C) night blindness.D) Keshan disease.

A) scurvy.

22) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning vitamin C?




A) Vitamin C is also known as ascorbic acid.B) Vitamin C acts as an antioxidant that may help to reduce the risk of chronic diseases.C) Vitamin C helps the immune system by enabling the body to make white blood cells.D) Smokers should consume less vitamin C than non-smokers.

D) Smokers should consume less vitamin C than non-smokers.

23) The doctor has recently told Julie that she is anemic. Julie should consume ________ with her iron supplement toincrease its absorption.




A) a tablespoon of castor oilB) a glass of milkC) a glass of orange juiceD) scrambled eggs

C) a glass of orange juice

24) Which of the following increases the RDA for vitamin C?




A) smoking cigarettesB) drinking alcohol15C) being a veganD) taking supplements of vitamin C

A) smoking cigarettes

25) Which of the following cooking methods will likely destroy the most vitamin C in food?




A) stir fryingB) microwavingC) steamingD) boiling

D) boiling

26) Which of the following are rich sources of vitamin C?




A) milk and cheeseB) seafoodC) wheat and oatsD) green and red peppers

D) green and red peppers

27) All of the following are good sources of vitamin C EXCEPT




A) citrus fruits.B) milk.C) strawberries.D) broccoli.

B) milk.

28) Consuming even moderately excessive doses of vitamin C supplements would be most harmful to individuals suffering from ________




A) scurvy.B) diabetes mellitus.C) hemochromatosis.D) Keshan disease.

C) hemochromatosis.

29) Symptoms of a vitamin C deficiency include ________




A) bleeding gums and loose teeth.B) dementia and dermatitis.C) night blindness.D) nosebleeds.

A) bleeding gums and loose teeth.

30) Beta-carotene is a precursor of ________




A) retinol.B) alpha-tocopherol.C) zeaxanthin.D) ascorbic acid.

A) retinol.

31) Which of the following is FALSE concerning carotenoids?




A) Beta-carotene is the only carotenoid that functions as an antioxidant.B) Cooking foods that contain dietary carotenoids enhances their absorption.C) Fruits and vegetables can be rich sources of dietary carotenoids.D) Consuming excess dietary beta-carotene can cause skin discoloration.

A) Beta-carotene is the only carotenoid that functions as an antioxidant.

32) Most of the body's vitamin A is stored in the ________




A) liver.B) pancreas.C) spleen.D) large intestine.

A) liver

33) The most critical role that vitamin A plays in the human body is ________




A) maintaining a healthy reproductive system.B) acting as an antioxidant and scavenging free radicals.C) maintaining a healthy immune system.D) maintaining healthy vision.

D) maintaining healthy vision.

34) The light sensitive pigment found in rod cells formed by retinal and opsin is ________.




A) chlorophyllB) luteinC) rhodopsinD) tocotrienal

C) rhodopsin

35) Which of the following foods would be the best dietary source of preformed vitamin A?




A) carrotsB) eggC) cantaloupeD) rice

B) egg

36) Both Keshan disease and Kashin-Beck disease are associated with a ________ deficiency.




A) vitamin AB) seleniumC) vitamin ED) calcium

B) selenium

37) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the mineral selenium?




A) Most selenium in our bodies is contained within two amino acids.B) Selenium is involved in the maintenance of basal metabolism and body temperature.C) Selenium is present only in foods of animal origin.D) Selenium is a component of the antioxidant glutathione peroxidase enzyme system

C) Selenium is present only in foods of animal origin

38) Which of the following hormones requires selenium for its synthesis?




A) estrogenB) insulinC) cortisolD) thyroxine

D) thyroxine

39) Where does the body store selenium?




A) in the liverB) in adipose tissueC) in the lymph systemD) in amino acids in the body

D) in amino acids in the body

40) Diseases that cause the malabsorption of fat can result in a deficiency of ________




A) vitamin A.B) vitamin D.C) vitamin C.D) vitamin K.

A) vitamin A

41) Which mineral can function as an antioxidant?




A) chromiumB) manganeseC) fluorideD) selenium

D) selenium

1) At what stage in the development of cancer do the cancerous cells grow out of control and invade surroundingtissues?




A) initiationB) promotionC) progressionD) termination

C) progression

2) Which of the following terms is synonymous with the word malignant?




A) tumorB) benignC) undifferentiatedD) cancer

D) cancer

3) The most common form of cancer in the United States is cancer of the ________




A) lung.B) skin.C) colon.D) stomach.

B) skin.

4) Cooking meat at high temperatures can result in the formation of ________




A) nitrates.B) phytoesterogens.C) heterocyclic amines.D) omega-3-fatty acids.

C) heterocyclic amines.

5) Researchers estimate that ________ of cancer deaths are related to overweight or obesity, poor nutrition, andphysical activity.




A) one-quarterB) one-thirdC) one-halfD) three-quarters

B) one-third

6) All of the following are signs and symptoms of cancer EXCEPT




A) unexplained weight gain.B) fever.C) unexplained weight loss.D) nagging cough or hoarseness.

A) unexplained weight gain.

1) The spongy bone that is found within the ends of long bones is called ________




A) cortical.B) osteoblast.C) collagen.D) trabecular.

D) trabecular.

2) Which of the following is FALSE about trabecular bone?




A) very sensitive to changes in hormones and nutritional deficiencies


B) porous and spongy in composition


C) turnover is very rapid


D) comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton

D) comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton

3) When does bone growth and modeling start?




A) during fetal development


B) at birth


C) during infancy


D) during childhood

A) during fetal development

4) Bone ________ refers to the two-step process in which bone tissue is recycled.




A) growthB) modelingC) remodelingD) regeneration

C) remodeling

5) Bone cells that are responsible for bone resorption are called ________




A) osteoclasts.B) cortical.C) osteoblasts.D) trabecular.

A) osteoclasts.

6) In addition to proper growth and development, bone remodeling is critical in maintaining ________




A) blood glucose levels.B) blood calcium levels.C) blood coagulation.D) vitamin D production.

B) blood calcium levels.

7) At what age does bone resorption generally begin to occur more rapidly than bone formation?




A) 10B) 20C) 40D) 60

C) 40

8) A T-score between +1 and —1 on a DXA signifies ________




A) lower than normal bone density.


B) osteoporosis.C) normal bone density


.D) growing bone.

C) normal bone density

9) Marie is 55 years old and just had her first DXA assessment. The results indicated that she has a T-score of —1.5.What does her T-score indicate?


A) Compared to a 30-year-old healthy adult, her bone density is normal.B) Compared to a 30-year-old healthy adult, she has low bone mass.C) Compared to a 30-year-old healthy adult, she has osteoporosis.D) Nothing. DXA is not able to determine bone density in women over 50.

B) Compared to a 30-year-old healthy adult, she has low bone mass.

10) Which of the following techniques can assess the risk of fracture?


A) blood calcium assessmentB) dual energy x-ray absorptiometryC) underwater weighingD) bioelectrical impedance testing

B) dual energy x-ray absorptiometry

11) Which of the following is the most abundant mineral in our body?


A) calciumB) ironC) phosphorus19D) fluoride

A) calcium

12) Which of the following is FALSE concerning calcium?


A) Calcium's alkalinity assists in regulating acid-base balance.B) Ninety-nine percent of calcium is found in the blood and soft tissue.C) When blood calcium falls, osteoclasts will liberate calcium from the skeleton.D) Calcium is a major mineral.

B) Ninety-nine percent of calcium is found in the blood and soft tissue

13) Which of the following is NOT a function of calcium?


A) transmission of nerve impulsesB) muscle contractionC) maintenance of blood pressureD) promotes osteoclasts to break down bone

D) promotes osteoclasts to break down bone

14) The average person will absorb no more than ________ mg of calcium at one time


.A) 200B) 500C) 1000D) 1500

B) 500

15) Assuming equal serving sizes, which of the following foods would be the poorest source of calcium?




A) skim milkB) whole milkC) cheddar cheeseD) cottage cheese

D) cottage cheese

16) The process called bone ________ determines the shape of bones.




A) modelingB) turnoverC) growthD) remodeling

A) modeling

17) Which of the following does NOT describe a role that calcitonin plays when blood calcium levels are elevated?




A) Calcitonin limits calcium absorption from the intestine.B) Calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts from breaking down bone.C) Calcitonin prevents the reabsorption of calcium in the kidney.D) Calcitonin stimulates the action of vitamin D.

D) Calcitonin stimulates the action of vitamin D.

18) If a healthy individual were to consume too much calcium from the diet, which of the following is MOST likely to occur?




A) They would experience hypercalcemia.B) They would begin to produce kidney stones.C) Their gastrointestinal tract would limit the absorption of calcium.D) Calcium deposits would accumulate in the soft tissues of the body.

C) Their gastrointestinal tract would limit the absorption of calcium.

19) Which of the following organs is responsible for the synthesis of vitamin D?




A) skinB) liverC) kidneysD) all of the above

D) all of the above

20) Where do humans obtain vitamin D?




A) moonlight20B) sunlightC) intestinal bacteriaD) stomach bacteria

B) sunlight

21) The primary, active form of vitamin D in the human body is ________.




A) 7-dehydrocholesterolB) calcidiolC) calcitoninD) calcitriol

D) calcitriol

22) Which of the following is our primary dietary source of vitamin D?A) seafoodB) chickenC) green leafy vegetablesD) milk

D) milk

23) Vitamin D toxicity is associated with ________




A) sunburns.B) suntan lotions.C) seafood.D) supplements.

D) supplements.

24) Calcitonin is a hormone secreted by the ________ gland.




A) adrenalB) parathyroidC) pituitaryD) thyroid

D) thyroid

25) Individuals who have diseases that result in the malabsorption of ________ are at risk for a vitamin D deficiency.




A) carbohydrateB) fatC) mineralsD) protein

B) fat

26) Insufficient vitamin D during adulthood is associated with ________




A) rickets.B) osteomalacia.C) kidney stones.D) hypocalcemia.

B) osteomalacia

27) All of the following factors can inhibit the synthesis of vitamin D EXCEPT




A) fair skin.B) obesity.C) advancing age.D) sunscreens with SPF greater than 8.

A) fair skin

28) Vitamin K serves as a(n) ________ to various enzymes involved in the coagulation of blood.




A) inhibitorB) coenzymeC) antagonistD) carrier

B) coenzyme

29) Newborn infants receive a single injection of vitamin K at birth due to the fact that ________21




A) newborns do not have enough bacteria in their small intestine to make vitamin K.B) breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K.C) the trauma of labor and delivery depletes the newborn's vitamin K stores.D) newborns cannot absorb any of the vitamin K from breast milk or formula.

A) newborns do not have enough bacteria in their small intestine to make vitamin K

30) Vitamin K's primary role in the body is ________




A) muscle contraction.B) enzyme action.C) nerve transmission.D) blood clotting.

D) blood clotting.

31) In addition to dietary sources, vitamin K is produced in our ________




A) brain.B) mouth.C) stomach.D) large intestine.

D) large intestine.

32) Formed in our bones, hydroxyapatite crystals are mineral complexes comprised of calcium and ________




A) sodium.B) chloride.C) phosphorus.D) vitamin K.

D) vitamin K

33) Which of the following foods is high in phosphorus?




A) meatB) spinachC) orangesD) table salt

A) meat

34) When blood calcium levels fall, which of the following does NOT occur?




A) PTH is produced and activates vitamin D.B) Vitamin D stimulates the kidney to resorb calcium.C) PTH and vitamin D stimulate osteoblasts to break down bone.D) Vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.

B) Vitamin D stimulates the kidney to resorb calcium

35) Most of the body's phosphorus is stored in ________




A) the liver.B) adipose tissue.C) the skeleton.D) the kidneys.

C) the skeleton

36) Which of the following foods are good sources of magnesium?




A) green leafy vegetablesB) citrus fruitsC) french fries and onion ringsD) soft drinks and fruit juices

A) green leafy vegetables

37) How can we increase our absorption of dietary magnesium?




A) eat a high-fiber dietB) eat a high-carbohydrate dietC) eat a high-protein dietD) eat a high-fat diet

C) eat a high-protein diet

38) The majority of our body's fluoride is stored in ________




A) the liver.B) adipose tissue.C) the skeleton.D) interstitial fluid.

C) the skeleton

39) Fluorosis is associated with ________




A) insufficient intake of fluoride.B) consuming too much fluoride.C) Alzheimer's disease.D) osteoporosis

B) consuming too much fluoride.

40) The individual with the highest risk of developing a vitamin D deficiency is a/n ________




A) exclusively breast fed infant.B) elderly institutionalized adult who consumes no milk and receives little or no sun exposure.C) adult living in the northern United States.D) adolescent female who consumes no milk or dairy products.

B) elderly institutionalized adult who consumes no milk and receives little or no sun exposure

41) The majority of the body's magnesium is found in the ________




A) blood.B) spleen.C) bones.D) liver.

C) bones

42) Which of the following is a poor source of dietary magnesium?




A) green leafy vegetablesB) refined grain productsC) seafoodD) seeds and nuts

B) refined grain

43) The hormone that assists in maintaining blood calcium levels by stimulating the activation of vitamin D is________A) insulin.B) cortisol.C) parathyroid hormone (PTH).D) calcitonin.

C) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

44) Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to low bone density in the adult years?




A) inadequate calcium intake in childhood and adolescenceB) low body weightC) early onset of menarche in femalesD) physical inactivity in adolescence

C) early onset of menarche in females

45) Phosphorus consumption has increased approximately 10-15% over the past 30 years. This is largely due to the increased consumption of ________




A) processed foods.B) meat.C) water.D) milk.

A) processed foods

1) Which of the following does NOT increase the risk of developing osteoporosis?




A) smoking23B) moderate alcohol consumptionC) low dietary intake of calciumD) high caffeine consumption

B) moderate alcohol consumption

2) Which of the following is NOT associated with the female athlete triad?




A) hypertensionB) eating disorderC) osteoporosisD) amenorrhea

) hypertension

3) Dowager's hump is one characteristic of




A) fluorosis.B) osteoporosis.C) rickets.D) the female athlete triad.

B) osteoporosis

4) What is the primary reason osteoporosis incidence in the United States is expected to increase?




A) inadequate treatment optionsB) increased diagnostic toolsC) increased longevity of the populationD) decline in milk consumption

C) increased longevity of the population

5) In which phase of a woman's life cycle is bone loss the greatest?




A) pubertyB) pregnancyC) lactationD) menopause

D) menopause

6) Cindy J. is 63 years old and at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following dietary supplements would be theMOST helpful to minimize bone loss?




A) magnesium and fluorideB) vitamin K and fluorideC) calcium and phosphorusD) calcium and vitamin D

D) calcium and vitamin D

7) The most common site of fracture in an individual suffering from osteoporosis is the




A) hip.B) femur.C) clavicle.D) sternum.

A) hip

8) What medication is effective in treating osteoporosis because of its estrogen-like properties?




A) selective estrogen receptor modulatorsB) calcitoninC) thyroid hormoneD) bisphosphonates

A) selective estrogen receptor modulators

9) Which of the following would NOT be good advice to offer someone who is selecting a calcium supplement?




A) Select a calcium carbonate supplement as it contains the most calcium per dose.B) Your body cannot absorb more than 500 mg at any given time.C) Look for a calcium supplement that is labeled "lead free".."D) Take your calcium supplement on an empty stomach to increase absorption.

D) Take your calcium supplement on an empty stomach to increase absorption.

10) In women, the risk of osteoporosis increases with menopause due to the loss of the hormone ________




A) insulin.B) thyroid.C) estrogen.D) progesterone.

C) estrogen

11) What type of calcium supplement contains the highest amount of calcium per dose?




A) calcium carbonateB) calcium lactateC) calcium citrateD) calcium phosphate

A) calcium

12) One of the side effects of using bisphosphonates is ________




A) leg cramps.B) mood swings.C) abdominal pain.D) heart palpitations.

C) abdominal pain.

1) What is the primary role of the B-vitamins?




A) provide the body with energyB) act as coenzymesC) maintain and repair body tissuesD) maintain acid-base balance

B) act as coenzymes

2) The first B-vitamins discovered was ________




A) thiamin.B) niacin.C) folate.D) vitamin B12.

A) thiamin.

3) Chromium assists in ________ uptake.




A) calciumB) sodiumC) potassiumD) glucose

D) glucose

4) Which statement regarding thiamin is FALSE?




A) It plays a critical role in the breakdown of glucose for energy.B) It plays a role in the synthesis of neurotransmitters.C) It is often toxic when consumed in excess.D) It acts as a coenzyme in the metabolism of branched-chain amino acids.

C) It is often toxic when consumed in excess

5) A person suffering from fatigue, muscle wasting, and nerve damage is likely suffering from which of the followingdeficiency diseases?




A) cretinismB) beriberiC) pellagraD) macrocytic anemia

B) beriberi

6) Which of the following is the BEST source of thiamin?




A) citrus fruits25B) green leafy vegetablesC) milkD) whole and enriched cereals and grains

D) whole and enriched cereals and grains

7) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is associated with the decreased absorption and utilization of ________




A) glucose.B) thiamin.C) riboflavin.D) protein.

B) thiamin

8) Which of these nutrients is destroyed by exposure to light?




A) riboflavinB) ironC) vitamin B12D) vitamin D

A) riboflavin

9) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pellagra?




A) dermatitisB) diarrheaC) dementiaD) dizziness

D) dizziness

10) Which vitamin can be made from the amino acid tryptophan?




A) niacinB) vitamin CC) vitamin KD) vitamin B12

A) niacin

11) What is the primary symptom of niacin toxicity?




A) dizzinessB) diarrheaC) fatigueD) flushing

D) flushing

12) What is transamination?




A) a deficiency of vitamin B6B) a symptom of niacin toxicityC) a key process in the creation of nonessential amino acidsD) vitamin deficiency resulting from inadequate protein intake

B) a symptom of niacin toxicity

13) Pellagra is the deficiency disease associated with ________




A) folate.B) niacin.C) thiamin.D) riboflavin.

B) niacin

14) Pellagra was first seen in populations where the dietary staple was ________




A) white rice.B) unpasteurized milk.C) corn.D) wheat.

C) corn

15) Good sources of riboflavin include ________26A) milk, meats, and green vegetables.B) refined grains and pork.C) citrus fruits and berries.D) potatoes, carrots, and bananas.

A) milk, meats, and green vegetables

16) The primary sources of folate in the American diet are ________




A) milk and dairy products.B) fresh fruits and vegetables.C) meat, fish, and poultry.D) enriched ready-to-eat cereals, bread, and grain products.

D) enriched ready-to-eat cereals, bread, and grain products.

17) Which of the following explains why folate is critical to the health of a newly conceived embryo?




A) Folate is needed for proper cell division.B) Folate is essential for maintaining proper fluid balance.C) Folate regulates bone formation.D) Folate is essential for heart function.

A) Folate is needed for proper cell division

18) Folate deficiency during pregnancy is associated with




A) Down's syndrome.B) gestational diabetes.C) neural tube defects.D) pellagra.

C) neural tube defects.

19) A toxicity of folate can disguise a true deficiency of ________, resulting in nerve damage.




A) niacinB) vitamin B6C) ironD) vitamin B12

D) vitamin B12

20) Vitamin B12 is essential for the proper functioning of ________ cells.




A) epithelial (skin)B) nerveC) gastric (stomach)D) hepatic (liver)

B) nerveC) gastric (stomach)

21) High concentrations of homocysteine in the blood are associated with the development of ________




A) diabetes.B) heart disease.C) neural tube defects.D) osteoporosis.

B) heart disease.

22) A person exhibiting symptoms of impaired work performance, general fatigue, pale skin, depressed immune function, impaired cognitive and nerve function, and impaired memory is likely suffering from ________




A) pernicious anemia.B) neural tube defects.C) microcytic anemia.D) iron-deficiency anemia.

D) iron-deficiency anemia.

23) Consumption of high levels of folate supplements can mask a/n ________ deficiency.




A) niacinB) vitamin B6C) ironD) vitamin B12

D) vitamin B12

24) A deficiency of ________ has been associated with convulsions and dermatitis in infants.A) vitamin B6B) vitamin B12C) folateD) pantothenic acid

A) vitamin B6

25) The chronic overconsumption of ________ can result in a biotin deficiency.




A) herbal teaB) raw egg whitesC) natural licoriceD) grapefruit juice

B) raw egg whites

26) Which of the following is NOT a vitamin?




A) pantothenic acidB) biotinC) cholineD) riboflavin

C) choline

27) A lack of dietary iodine during pregnancy is the primary cause of ________ worldwide.




A) goitersB) neural tube defectsC) anemiaD) cretinism

D) cretinism

28) Iodine is essential for the synthesis of ________ hormones.




A) estrogenB) growthC) thyroidD) androgen

C) thyroid

29) A goiter can result from ________




A) too much or too little iodine in the diet.B) choline supplementation.C) cretinism.D) excess dietary chromium

A) too much or too little iodine in the diet

30) Which component of the blood is essential in transporting oxygen to body cells?




A) leukocytesB) plateletsC) erythrocytesD) plasma

C) erythrocytes

31) Prothrombin and factor VII are ________




A) hormones that regulate the pH of the blood.B) proteins that are involved in the coagulation of blood.C) cofactors of energy metabolism.D) transport proteins that aid in the absorption of iron.

B) proteins that are involved in the coagulation of blood.

32) Which of the following is NOT a good source of vitamin K?




A) exposure to sunlightB) spinachC) soybean oil28D) intestinal bacteria

A) exposure to sunlight

33) Which of the following individuals would be at risk for a vitamin K deficiency?




A) a 55-year-old perimenopausal womanB) a 16-year-old adolescent who drinks 4 to 5 cans of soda each dayC) a 30-year-old with Crohn's diseaseD) a 6-year-old child who does not eat any vegetables

C) a 30-year-old with Crohn's disease

34) Vitamin K deficiencies are rare because




A) absorption of vitamin K from dietary sources is close to 100%.B) most foods contain some vitamin K.C) intestinal bacteria produce vitamin K.D) the majority of people take vitamin K supplements.

C) intestinal bacteria produce vitamin K

35) The iron-carrying protein that assists in the transport of oxygen into muscle cells is




A) myoglobin.B) hemoglobin.C) hematocrit.D) hemosiderin.

A) myoglobin

36) The meat factor is




A) a special quality found in meat, poultry, and fish that enhances iron absorption.B) the protein carrier needed by the body to absorb dietary manganese, folate, or vitamin B6.C) a coenzyme involved in the metabolism of protein and fat.D) the increased absorption of dietary folate by the mother during pregnancy

a) a special quality found in meat, poultry, and fish that enhances iron absorption

37) All of the following are common storage sites for iron EXCEPT the




A) liver.B) spleen.C) bone marrow.D) kidney.

D) kidney.

38) Celine visited her doctor to complain about a cut that bled a lot before it clotted. Which of the followingdeficiencies might cause increased bleeding?




A) vitamin KB) ironC) copperD) zinc

A) vitamin

39) Which of the following will impair iron absorption?A) low amounts of stomach acidB) low dietary intake of ironC) iron-deficiency anemiaD) chronic blood loss

A) low amounts of stomach acid

40) Bob's physician has just diagnosed him with iron-deficiency anemia. All of the following would be good advice forBob to utilize more dietary iron EXCEPT




A) eating meat with beans and vegetables.B) drinking a glass of orange juice with his breakfast cereal.C) drinking a glass of milk with his iron supplement.D) cooking his foods in cast-iron pans.

C) drinking a glass of milk with his iron supplement

41) Insufficient intake of iron will FIRST affect the body's ________ levels.29




A) hemoglobinB) hematocritC) transferrinD) ferritin

C) transferrin

42) Which of the following is associated with increased absorption of zinc?




A) vegetarian dietB) growthC) agingD) illness

B) growth

43) Which mineral's absorption is enhanced greatly by vitamin C?




A) chromiumB) ironC) sulfurD) manganese

B) iron

44) Which mineral increases insulin's effectiveness in cells?




A) seleniumB) chromiumC) fluorideD) copper

C) chromium

45) The MAJOR dietary source of iodine in the typical American's diet is




A) dairy products.B) salt water fish.C) iodized table salt.D) fruits and vegetables.

C) iodized table salt

46) A deficiency of ________ is the most common deficiency worldwide.




A) calciumB) vitamin B12C) folateD) iron

D) iron

1) A dietary supplement would NOT contain




A) vitamins and minerals.B) herbs or other botanicals.C) amino acids.D) soil samples

D) soil samples

2) Who is responsible for determining the safety and efficacy of any dietary supplement?




A) the Food and Drug AdministrationB) the manufacturer of the supplementC) the Attorney GeneralD) the Federal Trade Commission

B) the manufacturer of the supplement

3) All of these will help you avoid purchasing fraudulent or dangerous supplements EXCEPTA) looking for the U.S.P symbol.B) buying nationally recognized brands.C) purchasing products labeled "natural."30D) contacting the company to request additional information.

c

4) The ideal nutritional strategy for optimizing health is to ________




A) eat a healthful diet containing a variety of whole foods.B) eat foods you like and taking a one-a-day supplement.C) eat a healthful diet but take a one-a-day supplement "to be sure."D) eat what you want but take a supplement containing 100% or more of recommended levels

A) eat a healthful diet containing a variety of whole foods.

5) Which of the following individuals may benefit from dietary supplementation?




A) pregnant teenagersB) people with lactose intoleranceC) people who eat a vegan dietD) people who eat a balanced diet

D) people who eat a balanced diet

6) All of the following statements are true EXCEPT




A) Dietary supplements do not need approval from the FDA before they are marketed.


B) All supplements sold in the U.S. must contain a U.S.P. (U.S. Pharmacopoeia) symbol.


C) There are no rules to limit the amount of a nutrient in any dietary supplement.


D) There are no federal guidelines to ensure the purity, safety, and quality of supplements.

B) All supplements sold in the U.S. must contain a U.S.P. (U.S. Pharmacopoeia) symbol.

7) Unless a prescribed by a qualified practitioner, taking a single-nutrient supplement is not recommended because it________




A) may quickly lead to a nutrient toxicity.B) will cost too much money.C) might lead to a nutrient dependency.D) might reduce your appetite.

A) may quickly lead to a nutrient toxicity.