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88 Cards in this Set

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101. When shadow banks engage in maturity transformation, they raise funds by ___________ and invest in _________.
A) issuing stock; stock of other companies
B) selling bonds; Treasury bills
C) borrowing in short-term credit markets; longer-term speculative investments
D) borrowing in long-term credit markets; short-term speculative investments
C) borrowing in short-term credit markets; longer-term speculative investments
102. Shadow banks offer their customers a higher rate of return than commercial banks because:
A) shadow banks can pay interest on deposits, but commercial banks cannot pay interest on deposits.
B) shadow banks are allowed to invest in stocks of foreign corporations, while commercial banks can invest only in stocks of American corporations.
C) shadow banks must hold more reserves and capital than commercial banks,
D) shadow banks are not subject to reserve and capital requirements, but commercial banks must hold reserves and meet capital requirements.
D) shadow banks are not subject to reserve and capital requirements, but commercial banks must hold reserves and meet capital requirements.
103. In a bank run:
A) the bank has a surplus of deposits and must turn customers away .
B) bank customers try to withdraw their deposits.
C) the bank runs out of money to lend to customers.
D) the bank runs out of profitable investments for the funds of its depositors.
B) bank customers try to withdraw their deposits.
104. Which of the following are regulations intended to prevent bank runs?
A) the Sherman Anti-Trust law
B) regulation Q, which prohibits banks from paying interest on demand deposits
C) deposit insurance
D) maturity transformation
C) deposit insurance
105. All of the following are regulations designed to prevent bank runs EXCEPT:
A) asset bubbles.
B) capital requirements.
C) reserve requirements.
D) provisions that allow banks to borrow from the Fed's discount window.
A) asset bubbles.
106. A shadow bank engages in maturity transformation by:
A) accepting short-term deposits from businesses and making short-term loans to commercial banks.
B) accepting long-term deposits from businesses and making long-term loans to commercial banks.
C) borrowing money short term and lending or investing long term.
D) borrowing money long term and lending or investing short term.
C) borrowing money short term and lending or investing long term.
107. A banking crisis occurs:
A) whenever there is an asset bubble.
B) if shadow banks begin to accept deposits.
C) when banks engage in maturity transformation by accepting short-term deposits and converting them into long-term loans or investments.
D) when a large part of the depository banking sector or the shadow banking sector or threatens to fail.
D) when a large part of the depository banking sector or the shadow banking sector or threatens to fail.
108. A vicious downward spiral among banks in which each institution's failure increases the likelihood that another will fail is a(n):
A) asset bubble.
B) maturity transformation.
C) multiplier effect.
D) financial contagion.
D) financial contagion.
109. In a vicious cycle of deleveraging, financial institutions:
A) sell assets at a deep discounts.
B) sell assets at unreasonably high prices.
C) buy assets at deep discounts.
D) buy assets at unreasonably high prices.
A) sell assets at a deep discounts.
110. During the early 1930s, approximately _______ of the banks in the United States failed.
A) 75%
B) 40%
C) 10%
D) 3%
B) 40%
111. To put an end to the vicious cycle of bank failures during the early 1930s:
A) President Franklin Roosevelt declared a bank holiday, temporarily closing all banks.
B) the Federal Reserve System was established.
C) a system of shadow banks was developed to replace the troubled commercial banks.
D) the government nationalized all commercial banks.
A) President Franklin Roosevelt declared a bank holiday, temporarily closing all banks
112. Following the banking crises of the early 1930s:
A) real GDP and the price level increased at a rapid pace.
B) real GDP increased and the price level decreased.
C) real GDP and the price level both decreased.
D) real GDP decreased and the price level increased.
C) real GDP and the price level both decreased.
113. In the early 1990s, banking crises occurred in Finland, Sweden, and Japan because:
A) of real estate bubbles in each country.
B) the central banks of these countries were prohibited from conducting monetary policy.
C) the value of the euro fell to historically low levels.
D) there were many runs on banks.
A) of real estate bubbles in each country.
114. The “wholesale” funding that Irish banks used to fund real estate loans came primarily from:
A) the European Union central bank.
B) long-term, low-interest loans from the Irish government.
C) bank deposits of individuals.
D) short-term loans from other banks and private investors.
D) short-term loans from other banks and private investors.
115. To stabilize the banking crisis in Ireland:
A) the Irish government guaranteed all bank debt.
B) the European Union central bank revalued the euro.
C) the European Union central bank devalued the euro.
D) the Irish government declared a bank holiday for several weeks.
A) the Irish government guaranteed all bank debt.
116. As a consequence of the Irish banking crisis:
A) the budget surplus of the Irish government is growing to record levels.
B) the Irish government has to pay high interest rates on money it borrowed in international markets, and its solvency is in question.
C) unemployment fell to less than 3%.
D) Ireland has been forced to leave the European Union.
B) the Irish government has to pay high interest rates on money it borrowed in international markets, and its solvency is in question.
117. What did the panic of 1893 in the United States and the Swedish banking crisis of 1991 have in common?
A) Each was followed by a period of record high growth rates of real GDP.
B) Both were ended by aggressive monetary policies of the central bank.
C) Each was followed by a deep recession and slow recovery.
D) Both were caused by a real estate bubble.
C) Each was followed by a deep recession and slow recovery.
118. A credit crunch causes a recession because:
A) potential borrowers can't get loans or must pay very high interest rates, so they cut back on spending.
B) banks have a surplus of funds to loan, so interest rates fall to very low levels.
C) unemployment falls to very low levels, causing a problem of inflation.
D) interest rates are so low that investors' incomes fall, and they decrease their spending.
A) potential borrowers can't get loans or must pay very high interest rates, so they cut back on spending.
119. Debt overhang is the result of:
A) maturity transformation.
B) a vicious cycle of deleveraging.
C) falling unemployment.
D) rising inflation.
B) a vicious cycle of deleveraging.
120. The Fed usually responds to a recession by:
A) buying short-term government debt from banks.
B) selling short-term government debt to banks.
C) raising interest rates.
D) increasing reserve requirements.
A) buying short-term government debt from banks.
121. When the Fed conducts open market purchases from banks, interest rates:
A) decrease.
B) increase.
C) remain constant.
D) fluctuate randomly.
A) decrease.
122. The purpose of open market purchases is to:
A) decrease the government budget deficit.
B) increase the government budget deficit.
C) increase consumer and investment spending.
D) decrease consumer and investment spending.
C) increase consumer and investment spending.
123. When borrowers don't respond to short-term interest rates of zero, the economy is experiencing:
A) a liquidity trap.
B) hyperinflation.
C) an asset bubble.
D) maturity transformation.
A) a liquidity trap.
124. Before the Great Depression in the 1930s, the government:
A) nationalized all banks that were close to failure.
B) allowed banks to fail, believing that free-market forces should be allowed to work.
C) lent money to banks that were in poor financial condition.
D) guaranteed deposits of individuals.
B) allowed banks to fail, believing that free-market forces should be allowed to work.
125. Which of the following is an action of central banks and governments to lessen the severity of a banking crisis?
A) establishing shadow banks
B) government guarantees of bank deposits
C) encouraging asset bubbles
D) opening a liquidity trap
B) government guarantees of bank deposits
126. By acting as a lender of last resort, the central bank:
A) prevents a loss of confidence in banks and avoids bank runs.
B) is able to keep interest rates high so that spending increases.
C) is increasing the amount of reserves that a bank is required to hold.
D) may keep inflation low, but will likely cause unemployment to increase.
A) prevents a loss of confidence in banks and avoids bank runs.
127. During the financial crisis of 2008, the Fed:
A) was closed for a three-week bank holiday by President George W. Bush.
B) remained open but was severely limited in its operations.
C) was merged with the Treasury Department to increase its power to deal with the crisis.
D) expanded its operations by lending to institutions other than commercial banks and buying financial assets other than Treasury bills.
D) expanded its operations by lending to institutions other than commercial banks and buying financial assets other than Treasury bills.
128. The recession that began in 1929 turned into the Great Depression primarily because of:
A) the banking crisis.
B) the beginning of W orld W ar II.
C) taxes that were too low to finance the new government programs that became necessary during the Depression.
D) powerful labor unions that demanded high wages and generous benefits.
A) the banking crisis.
129. In a credit crunch:
A) interest rates are so low that savers decrease the quantity of available loanable funds.
B) borrowers are forced to pay very high interest rates or may not be able to borrow at all.
C) unemployment is usually very low and the growth rate of output is very high.
D) the spread becomes negative.
B) borrowers are forced to pay very high interest rates or may not be able to borrow at all.
130. During the banking crisis of the 1930, the Federal Reserve:
A) ended the crisis by acting aggressively as a lender of last resort.
B) rushed to guarantee the liabilities of failing banks.
C) was established to resolve the banking crisis.
D) had the legal ability to act as a lender of last resort but failed to do so.
D) had the legal ability to act as a lender of last resort but failed to do so.
131. Long-term unemployment is measured by the percentage of the unemployed who have been out of work for:
A) a week or longer.
B) 6 weeks or longer.
C) 20 weeks or longer.
D) 27 weeks or longer.
D) 27 weeks or longer.
132. The threat of a financial crisis in 2011 and 2012 was based on problems with:
A) home loans in Germany.
B) political instability in France.
C) public debt problems in southern Europe and Ireland.
D) striking labor unions in northern Europe.
C) public debt problems in southern Europe and Ireland.
133. The spread between the interest rates on 10-year bonds issued by the governments of Italy and Spain and the interest rates on 10-year bonds issued by _______ is a measure of risk.
A) Great Britain
B) Germany
C) Ireland
D) France
B) Germany
134. Fiscal stimulus is:
A) expansionary fiscal policy, such as increases in government spending and tax cuts designed to reduce unemployment and increase output.
B) expansionary fiscal policy, such as increases in government spending and tax cuts designed to increase unemployment and decrease output.
C) contractionary fiscal policy, such as decreases in government spending and tax increases designed to reduce budget deficits.
D) contractionary fiscal policy, such as decreases in government spending and tax increases designed to increase budget deficits.
A) expansionary fiscal policy, such as increases in government spending and tax cuts designed to reduce unemployment and increase output
135. Expansionary fiscal measures, such as more government spending and tax cuts designed to reduce unemployment, are called:
A) fiscal austerity.
B) fiscal stimulus.
C) automatic stabilizers.
D) maturity transformation.
B) fiscal stimulus.
136. Fiscal austerity is:
A) expansionary fiscal policy, such as increases in government spending and tax cuts designed to reduce unemployment and increase output.
B) expansionary fiscal policy, such as increases in government spending and tax cuts designed to increase unemployment and decrease output.
C) contractionary fiscal policy, such as decreases in government spending and tax increases designed to reduce budget deficits.
D) contractionary fiscal policy, such as decreases in government spending and tax increases designed to increase budget deficits.
C) contractionary fiscal policy, such as decreases in government spending and tax increases designed to reduce budget deficits.
137. Contractionary fiscal measures, such as less government spending and tax increases designed to reduce budget deficits, are called:
A) fiscal austerity.
B) fiscal stimulus.
C) automatic stabilizers.
D) maturity transformation.
A) fiscal austerity.
138. Proponents argued that fiscal stimulus was appropriate after the 2008 financial crisis because most major economies had:
A) low unemployment and low inflation.
B) low unemployment and high inflation.
C) high unemployment and low inflation.
D) high unemployment and high inflation.
C) high unemployment and low inflation.
139. After the 2008 financial crisis, proponents of fiscal austerity argued that the primary problem for the United States and Europe was:
A) high levels of government deficits and debt that eroded investor confidence.
B) powerful labor unions that kept wages too high.
C) unemployment.
D) inflation.
A) high levels of government deficits and debt that eroded investor confidence.
140. Which of the following is NOT one of the problems facing almost all major economies after the 2008 financial crisis?
A) high unemployment
B) low growth of output
C) high interest rates on public debt
D) inflation
D) inflation
141. The Dodd-Frank bill affected derivatives by:
A) prohibiting them.
B) requiring that the issuer guarantee 50% of the purchaser's investment.
C) allowing them to be purchased and sold only by the Federal Reserve.
D) requiring that they be traded in transparent markets.
D) requiring that they be traded in transparent markets.
142. According to the Dodd-Frank bill, shadow banks:
A) are prohibited.
B) must all be merged with commercial banks.
C) are allowed to operate only in other countries.
D) are subject to bank-like regulation of their capital and investments.
D) are subject to bank-like regulation of their capital and investments.
143. Subprime mortgages are mortgages:
A) on which the interest rate is less than the prime rate.
B) that are in default.
C) that are made to buyers with too little income or too few assets to qualify for a standard mortgage.
D) that only the government can make.
C) that are made to buyers with too little income or too few assets to qualify for a standard mortgage.
144. A situation in which borrowers cannot find credit or must pay very high interest rates for loans is called a:
A) liquidity trap.
B) zero-bound limit.
C) credit crunch.
D) stagflation.
C) credit crunch.
145. The difference between commercial banks and investment banks is that:
A) commercial banks accept deposits from customers, while investment banks trade financial assets but don't accept deposits.
B) commercial banks are not allowed to make profits, while investment banks are allowed to profit from buying and selling financial assets.
C) commercial banks cannot own financial assets, while investment banks are able to own a wide variety of financial assets.
D) commercial banks are a type of shadow bank, while investment banks are not.
A) commercial banks accept deposits from customers, while investment banks trade financial assets but don't accept deposits.
46. Which of the following financial institutions is an example of a shadow bank?
A) credit union
B) commercial bank
C) savings and loan
D) hedge fund
D) hedge fund
147. Maturity transformation can be done:
A) by depository banks but not by shadow banks.
B) by shadow banks but not by depository banks.
C) by both depository banks and shadow banks.
D) by neither depository banks nor shadow banks.
C) by both depository banks and shadow banks.
148. After a banking crisis, when the Federal Reserve buys government securities to increase the money supply and decrease interest rates:
A) consumers and businesses may not respond by increasing their spending because of debt overhang.
B) consumers and businesses usually borrow too much and spend too much, causing inflation.
C) banks may fear runs, so they hold on to excess reserves rather than lending them to consumers and businesses.
D) consumers and businesses may not respond because the recession has increased the
value of their assets so much that they don't need to borrow money in order to buy more.
A) consumers and businesses may not respond by increasing their spending because of debt overhang.
149. After the 2008 financial crisis, policy makers realized that the scope of banking regulation was:
A) too narrow, because the Federal Reserve was the only agency with any power to regulate banks.
B) too broad, because both depository and shadow banks were overregulated.
C) too broad, because market forces, not government regulation, should be allowed to determine the outcome of a financial crisis.
D) too narrow, because shadow banks were not subject to much regulation.
D) too narrow, because shadow banks were not subject to much regulation.
150. If a financial institution is systemically important:
A) it is an important part of the Federal Reserve banking system.
B) it is affected more than the average financial institution by the business cycle.
C) its activities have the potential to create a banking crisis.
D) it is not allowed to engage in maturity transformation.
C) its activities have the potential to create a banking crisis.
151. When the dollar value of the Swiss franc was very high following the financial crisis in 2008:
A) Swiss exports were more expensive in the United States.
B) Swiss exports were less expensive in the United States.
C) the Swiss National Bank sold Swiss francs to increase its value.
D) the Swiss National Bank bought francs to decrease its value.
A) Swiss exports were more expensive in the United States.
152. Open-economy macroeconomics is the branch of economics that deals with:
A) reducing regulations on business.
B) the relationships between economies of different nations.
C) reducing employment discrimination.
D) the provision of financial information to investors.
B) the relationships between economies of different nations.
153. Economists summarize a country's transactions with other countries with a(n) _____ account.
A) circular flow
B) balance of payments
C) exchange rate
D) purchasing power parity
B) balance of payments
154. (Table: International Transactions) Refer to the information in the table. The merchandise trade balance is:
A) $51,000.
B) $48,000.
C) $46,000. 
D) $2,000.
154. (Table: International Transactions) Refer to the information in the table. The merchandise trade balance is:
A) $51,000.
B) $48,000.
C) $46,000.
D) $2,000.
B) $48,000.
155. If the balance of payments on financial account is $25, the balance of payments on goods and services is –$20, and the statistical discrepancy in the financial account is $2, then net international transfer payments and net international factor income are:
A) –$7.
B) –$5.
C) $7.
D) $47.
A) –$7
156. Assume that Tom sells a crate of Florida oranges to a retailer in Canada and Susan sells a U.S. bond to a customer in Britain. Which of the following illustrates the difference and/or similarities between these two transactions?
A) Only Tom will actually receive U.S. dollars as a result of this transaction.
B) The sale of the bond to the customer in Britain creates a liability, while the sale of the oranges does not.
C) Both sales create an asset for the United States.
D) Both sales create a liability for the United States.
B) The sale of the bond to the customer in Britain creates a liability, while the sale of the oranges does not.
157. If a country has a current account deficit, it must have a:
A) financial account surplus.
B) balance of payment surplus.
C) financial account deficit.
D) balance of payments deficit.
A) financial account surplus.
158. A current account deficit is generally a result of:
A) imports exceeding exports.
B) U.S. purchases of bonds issued by foreign corporations.
C) a large amount of U.S. purchases of foreign real estate.
D) exports exceeding imports.
A) imports exceeding exports.
159. (Table: Balance of Payment) Refer to the table Balance of Payments. In this case, the country's balance of payments on goods and services is:
A) $375 billion.
B) –$375 billion.
C) $4,045 billion.
D) $355 billion.
159. (Table: Balance of Payment) Refer to the table Balance of Payments. In this case, the country's balance of payments on goods and services is:
A) $375 billion.
B) –$375 billion.
C) $4,045 billion.
D) $355 billion.
B) –$375 billion.
160. (Table: Balance of Payment) Refer to the table Balance of Payments. The country's balance of payments on current account is:
A) $355 billion.
B) –$395 billion.
C) $375 billion.
D) –$355 billion.
160. (Table: Balance of Payment) Refer to the table Balance of Payments. The country's balance of payments on current account is:
A) $355 billion.
B) –$395 billion.
C) $375 billion.
D) –$355 billion.
D) –$355 billion.
161. A Brazilian bank buys shares of stock in Intel, an American high-tech company. In the U.S. balance of payments, this transaction causes the balance on the _____ account to _____.
A) current; decrease
B) current; increase
C) financial; decrease
D) financial; increase
D) financial; increase
162. An American deposits $10,000 in an account in a London bank. In the U.S. balance of payments, this transaction causes the balance on the _____ account to _____.
A) financial; increase
B) financial; decrease
C) current; decrease
D) current; increase
B) financial; decrease
163. Suppose that the equilibrium interest rate in the U.S. market for loanable funds is 3% prior to any international capital flows in the United States. In Japan, the equilibrium interest rate in the Japanese market for loanable funds is 7%. If lenders in both nations believe that loans to foreigners are just as good as loans to their own citizens, we would expect:
A) capital to flow from the United States to Japan, making interest rates rise in Japan and interest rates fall in the United States.
B) capital to flow from Japan to the United States, making interest rates fall in Japan and interest rates rise in the United States.
C) capital to flow from Japan to the United States, making interest rates rise in Japan and interest rates fall in the United States.
D) capital to flow from the United States to Japan, making interest rates fall in Japan and interest rates rise in the United States.
D) capital to flow from the United States to Japan, making interest rates fall in Japan and interest rates rise in the United States.
164. Direct foreign investment means the purchase of:
A) shares of stock in foreign companies.
B) bonds of a foreign country.
C) bank loans in a foreign country.
D) factories in a foreign country.
D) factories in a foreign country.
165. (Figure: The Loanable Funds Model in the U.S. Market) Refer to the information in the figure. If the actual interest rate is higher than 4% in the U.S. market, then the quantity supplied of loanable funds will be ______ the quantity of loanable funds
165. (Figure: The Loanable Funds Model in the U.S. Market) Refer to the information in the figure. If the actual interest rate is higher than 4% in the U.S. market, then the quantity supplied of loanable funds will be ______ the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
D) unrelated to
A) greater than
166. (Figure: The Loanable Funds Model in the U.S. Market) Refer to the information in the figure. If the actual interest rate is equal to 4% in the U.S. market, then the quantity supplied of loanable funds will be ______ the quantity of loanable funds de
166. (Figure: The Loanable Funds Model in the U.S. Market) Refer to the information in the figure. If the actual interest rate is equal to 4% in the U.S. market, then the quantity supplied of loanable funds will be ______ the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
D) unrelated to
C) equal to
167. (Figure: International Capital Flows) Refer to the information in the figure. Assume that each country's loanable funds market is such that its equilibrium interest rate is 4%. Which of the following is likely to be the next logical step to reconcile
167. (Figure: International Capital Flows) Refer to the information in the figure. Assume that each country's loanable funds market is such that its equilibrium interest rate is 4%. Which of the following is likely to be the next logical step to reconcile the apparent disequilibrium in both markets, assuming that assets and liabilities are viewed as homogenous?
A) Capital outflow from the United States will lower U.S. interest rates.
B) Capital outflow from Britain will lower interest rates in Britain.
C) Capital outflow from Britain will raise interest rates in Britain.
D) Capital inflow to the United States will raise U.S. interest rates.
C) Capital outflow from Britain will raise interest rates in Britain.
168. If asset owners in Japan and the United States consider Japanese and U.S. assets as good substitutes for each other and if the U.S. interest rate is 5% while the Japanese interest rate is 2%:
A) financial inflows will reduce the U.S. interest rate.
B) financial outflows will reduce the Japanese interest rate.
C) the interest rate gap between the United States and Japan will grow.
D) financial inflows will increase the U.S. interest rate.
A) financial inflows will reduce the U.S. interest rate.
169. The exchange rate is the:
A) interest rate differential between countries.
B) balance of trade differential between countries.
C) relative price of currencies between countries.
D) relative price of gold between countries.
C) relative price of currencies between countries.
170. If the exchange rate is $1 = ¥110, a $20,000 Ford truck costs _________ in Japan.
A) ¥20,000
B) ¥18,182
C) ¥2.2 million
D) ¥3 million
C) ¥2.2 million
171. When the value of a pound sterling changes from US$1.50 to US$2, it follows that the:
A) U.S. dollar has depreciated.
B) British pound has depreciated.
C) U.S. dollar has appreciated.
D) value of a U.S. dollar has gone from £0.5 to £0.6.
A) U.S. dollar has depreciated.
172. When the value of the euro changes from $1.30 to $1.20, it follows that:
A) European Union imports from the United States increase.
B) U.S. exports to the European Union increase.
C) U.S. imports from the European Union increase.
D) European Union exports to the United States decrease.
C) U.S. imports from the European Union increase.
173. When the U.S. dollar price of a foreign currency rises:
A) it becomes cheaper for foreigners to buy U.S. goods.
B) it becomes cheaper for us to buy foreign goods.
C) foreign goods go down in price.
D) we need fewer dollars to buy the foreign currency.
A) it becomes cheaper for foreigners to buy U.S. goods.
174. Suppose that Europeans begin to view the United States as a more attractive investment opportunity. Which of the following is likely to occur?
A) a depreciation of the dollar, which will raise U.S. exports
B) an appreciation of the dollar, which will discourage Europeans from buying American goods and services
C) a depreciation of the dollar, which will lower U.S. exports
D) a depreciation of the dollar, which will make Europeans buy more American products
B) an appreciation of the dollar, which will discourage Europeans from buying American goods and services
175. The Japanese will demand U.S. dollars in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
A) to buy real estate in New York City.
B) to buy a GM car in Japan.
C) to see a Hollywood movie in Tokyo.
D) to invest in Japanese stocks.
D) to invest in Japanese stocks.
176. Between 1990 and 2007, the Mexican peso fell against the U.S. dollar by almost three-fourths of its original value. However, economists have concluded that this did not result in the price of Mexican products expressed in dollars to fall by two-thirds. Which of the following is the explanation for this apparent paradox?
A) Interest rates in the United States were increasing.
B) Inflation in the United States was moving up steadily.
C) The inflation rate in Mexico over that same period was higher than that of the United States.
D) The real exchange rate had fallen.
C) The inflation rate in Mexico over that same period was higher than that of the United States.
Scenario: Exchange Rates
The value of a euro goes from US$1.25 to US$1.50.
177. (Scenario: Exchange Rates) Refer to the information provided in the scenario. The euro has:
A) depreciated.
B) appreciated.
C) been devalued.
D) not been affected for use in international trade.
B) appreciated.
178. Scenario: Exchange Rates
The value of a euro goes from US$1.25 to US$1.50. The dollar has:
A) depreciated.
B) appreciated.
C) been revalued.
D) not been affected for use in international trade.
A) depreciated.
179. Scenario: Exchange Rates
The value of a euro goes from US$1.25 to US$1.50.The exchange rate for the dollar has changed from:
A) €0.25 to €0.50.
B) €1.25 to €1.50.
C) €0.80 to €0.67.
D) €0.67 to €0.80.
C) €0.80 to €0.67.
180. Scenario: Exchange Rates
The value of a euro goes from US$1.25 to US$1.50. French exports to the United States will:
A) be cheaper.
B) be more expensive.
C) be unaffected.
D) increase.
C) €0.80 to €0.67.
D) €0.67 to €0.80.
B) be more expensive.
181. Scenario: Exchange Rates
The value of a euro goes from US$1.25 to US$1.50. In Germany, exports:
A) will increase, and imports will decrease.
B) and imports will increase.
C) will decrease, and imports will increase.
D) and imports will decrease.
C) will decrease, and imports will increase.
182. A fixed exchange rate is:
A) determined by the market.
B) set by government.
C) set by the International Monetary Fund.
D) determined by the United Nations.
B) set by government.
183. A floating exchange rate is:
A) determined by the market.
B) set by government.
C) set by the International Monetary Fund.
D) determined by the United Nations.
A) determined by the market.
184. If a government fixes the exchange rate ________ the market equilibrium, there will be a shortage of the domestic currency and a tendency for the exchange rate (U.S. dollars per unit of the domestic currency) to ________.
A) below; fall
B) above; rise
C) below; rise
D) above; fall
C) below; rise
185. A major drawback of adopting a floating exchange rate is the:
A) opportunity cost associated with the accumulation of foreign exchange reserves.
B) uncertainty about the value of goods traded internationally.
C) increased discipline brought on monetary policy.
D) distorted incentives imposed on the normal flow of imports and exports.
B) uncertainty about the value of goods traded internationally.
186. Devaluation is reduction in the:
A) value of a currency due to inflation.
B) value of a currency that is determined in a floating exchange rate system.
C) value of a currency that is set under a fixed exchange rate regime.
D) rate of inflation of a country.
C) value of a currency that is set under a fixed exchange rate regime.
187. According to the principle of purchasing power parity, the 2001 devaluation of the Argentinean peso:
A) increased the inflation rate in Argentina relative to the inflation rate in the United States.
B) made Argentinean imports from the United States cheaper.
C) decreased the inflation rate in Argentina relative to the inflation rate in the United States.
D) had no impact on the Argentinean inflation rate.
A) increased the inflation rate in Argentina relative to the inflation rate in the United States.
188. If a country's current account is positive:
A) its financial account is also positive.
B) its balance of payments is positive.
C) its financial account is negative.
D) its balance of payments is negative.
C) its financial account is negative.