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240 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A client has brought in a poisoned patient and the veterinarian is not on the premise. You should first:
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Obtain and identify an antidote for the poison whenever possible.
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Which symptom should be given initial first aid attention if all are present:
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Severed Artery
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"Emergency" as defined in the animal health technician law means:
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The animal has been placed in a life-threatening condition where immediate treatment is necessary to sustain life.
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When gastric torsion is diagnosed by the vet, it:
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Is always an emergency
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Limb immobilization by the RVT in an emergency case would include:
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Splinting
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If you were alone, observing a patient recovering from anesthesia, and suddenly the animal stopped breathing, which procedure would you follow
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Establish an open airway and call the vet immediately
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In the absence of a vet, an emergency case canine patient with a spurting femoral artery should be attended by the RVT as follows:
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Attempt to keep the animal quiet and immediately apply pressure
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In an emergency where no vet is available, an RVT may:
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Intubate an animal to restore an open airway
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You are on duty and a dog arrives suffering from what appears to be severe shock. As an RVT you should:
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Note vital signs, contact the vet in charge, Administer therapy as per the vet's instructions.
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You are an employee in an animal shelter. A distemper suspect is admitted in convulsions. Since there is no space left in the dog isolation ward, you should:
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Place it in the cat isolation ward.
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An animal who has been hit by a car is bleeding profusely and it appears in shock. A loop of intestine is protruding through the abdominal wall. On admission, in the absence of the vet, you should:
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Intubate the animal if necessary and administer O2, pour sterile saline on the intestinal segment and cover, apply a pressure bandage to profusely bleeding areas.
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In the absence of a vet, upon presentation of a severely injured animal, the RVT should:
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Try to control the hemmorhage, provide patent airway if necessary, cover any superficial wounds, call for help.
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Application of a Schroeder-Thomas splint is used to immobilize:
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Fractured long bones
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Which of the following are considered general rules for any medical emergency
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Clear airway and restore breathing, stop bleeding, control shock.
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Improper handling of a fracture can cause
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Internal bleeding, further tissue injury to muscles, severing of a nerve.
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First aid for arterial hemmorhage from an extremity is by:
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A gauze pack placed over the wound and securely bandaged
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In suspected poison cases, the 1st important procedure is to
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Obtain a history
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An RVT may debride an abscess
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Under NO circumstances
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When a major artery has been cut, the bleeding will be
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A pulsating flow of bright red blood
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In the event of a cardiac or respiratory failure, the most important initial action should be to
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Establish a patent airway and administer oxygen
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If a person has been bitten by an animal, the required couse of action is:
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To report the bite to the proper health authorities
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If not renewed, an RVT license shall expire
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Biennially on the last day of the birth month of the applicant
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The RVT examining committee has the power, by law, to do which of the following:
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Assist the board in administering the examination for RVTs, to investigate applicants as directed by the board, to make recommendation to the board regarding continuing education
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The board may revoke or suspend the registration of an RVT for which of the following:
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The employment of fraud, misrepresentation or deception on obtaining a registration, conviction of a felony in which case the record of such conviction will be conclusive evidence, chronic inebriety or babitual use of drugs.
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An RVT shall NOT:
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Perform surgery, diagnose and/or give a prognosis, prescribe drugs.
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School offering a curriculum for training an RVT must be approved by the:
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California Board of Examiners in Veterinay Medicine.
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Accounts receivable are:
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Accounts due for services rendered
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When can an RVT legally suture an existing lesion on a client's animal
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Only if a doctor is in the building
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If you make an incorrect entry in a medical record you should:
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Mark through it, initial it, and then rewrite it.
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In Ca, all dogs must be vaccinated against rabies at what age?
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4 mths
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Anal sacs are located in the
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Perineal region
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The passageway that commonly blocks in cases of urolithiasis is the:
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Urethra
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An enzyme that breaks down fatty elements is called
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Lipase
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Smooth muscle occur in
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The stomach wall, the bladder wall, sphincters.
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The saphenous vein would be located:
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On the lateral aspect of the rear leg by the hock
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The normal rectal temp. of the dog & cat is closest to:
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101.5
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Potassium, sodium and calcium ions are all examples of:
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Electrolytes
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Aspiration of fluid from the abdominal cavity is known as:
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Paracentesis
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The clear anterior surface of the eye is the
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Cornea
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The femoral artery parallels the
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Thigh bone
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The thoracic cavity is lined by the
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Pleura
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Vagus nerve stimulation to the intestinal tract causes
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Increased peristalsis
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The prostate gland in the dog is located:
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Posterior to the urinary bladder
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The average gestation period for a canine is
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60-65 days
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The upper last premolar in the dog is called the
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Carnassial tooth
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The linea alba meets at the
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Venteral midline
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The nicitating membrane is sometimes referred to as the
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Third eyelid
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The total canine blood volume is approximately
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7% of body weight
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The kidney, ureter and bladder are all part of the
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Urinary system
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Which of the following bones is located the most proximal to the scapula
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Humerus
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The 1st cervical vertebra (C-1) is called the
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Atlas
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Ovulation occurs in the feline
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At copulation
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The endocrine glands include the:
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Thyroids, parathyroids and adrenals
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Cryptorchidism is
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retention of the testes
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The period of embryonic development is called
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gestation
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Acetabulum refers to the:
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hip joint socket
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Oxygen transported by the blood is carried by
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plasma and hemoglobin in erythrocytes
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When skeletal muscles are not used, they tend to become
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Atrophic
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The diaphragm is located:
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between the thorax and abdomen
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Mastication refers to
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Chewing
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Which anesthetic agent is seldom used alone
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Nitrous oxide
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Which drug is contraindicated with halothane anesthesia
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Epinephrine
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Pre-anesthetic drugs may be used to
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Induce vomiting, inhibit vagal stimulation, reduce the amt of anesthetic required
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In general, gas anesthetics are primarily removed from the body through the:
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Lungs
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Which of the following anesthetics is safest in the presence of liver disease
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Halothane
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The most remarkable side effect of local anesthetics is
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Ataxia
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The most important change in electrolytes during anesthesia is
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Acidosis
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Which of the following is contraindicated in birds
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Procaine
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Which statement is correct for methoxyflurane
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slow induction and recovery time
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Nitrous Oxide is:
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unsafe with pneumothorax
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Metofane anesthesia is excellent for orthopedic surgery because it:
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Gives good anelgesia postoperatively
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Hypoxia means
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Decreased oxygen
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The circulatory system can be monitored during general anesthesia by checking:
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Capillary refill time, color of the oral mucous membranes, and heart rate
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Analgesia means
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Decreased pain
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Design of anesthetic circuits must ensure that
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carbon dioxide is eliminated from the system
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The swallowing reflex:
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is a reflex to protect the upper airway
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The reservoir bag on an anesthetic circuit assures that:
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Adequate fresh gases are available to the patient
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Rebreathing systems or closed circuit anesthetic machines
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utilize carbon dioxide absorption canisters to remove carbon dioxide from the system
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A common carrier gas which is used with oxygen and inhalation anesthetic agent is
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Nitrous oxide
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The primary disadvantage to the use of ether as a general anesthetic is
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it is highly flammable and irritating
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If the reservoir bag on your anesthetic machine is over-distended you should
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make sure the pop-off valve is open and check your flow rates
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An ECG or EKG machine measures the electrical activity of the
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heart
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An ambu bag is
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used to administer artificial ventilation
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Nitrous oxide is stored in what color tank
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Blue
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Hypercarbia means
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excessive carbon dioxide
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The space carrying that part of tidal volume which does not participate in gaseous exchange is called
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Dead space
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One of the following is true of a vaporizer outside the breathing circuit as opposed to vaporizer inside the breathing circuit
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Changes in ventilation will not affect the output of the vaporizer
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Perivascular barbituate injection may cause
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necrosis and sloughing
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Oxygen tanks are color coded
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green
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Which anesthetic is used in an in-circuit vaporizer system
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Metofane
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Sterilization of surgical equipment requires the autoclave contents to be heated to
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250 degrees F at 15 PSI for 15-20 mins
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An opthalmoscope is used to examine the
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eyes
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Which blade for a clipper will clip the closest
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40
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A needle fused onto a strand of suture material is called
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swedged-on
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Which of the following suture materials should not be autoclaved
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Catgut
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Autoclave tape on the outside of a surgical pack that has black diagonal stripes appearing on it indicates
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The pack has been processed in an autoclave
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Dehiscence is:
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Wound disruption
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"RL" on the lead clip of an ECG means that
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The lead should be attatched to the right rear leg
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An episiotomy is a surgical procedure performed suring
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Obstetrics
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Enucleation refers to the removal of
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an eye
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When a thoracotomy is performed, one of the following must be included:
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Positive pressure ventilation
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Intussusception
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Is a telescoping of one section of the intestine into another
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The date of autoclaving materials
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Should always be placed on the tape of all surgical packs and is handy for determining when the next sterilization should be done in the event a pack is not opened and used.
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Alligator forceps are often used for
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foxtail removal
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The principal difference between a ligature and a suture is
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a ligature ties off blood vessels while a suture brings tissue into apposition
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If the surgeon asks for rongeur forceps, he is working on one of the following tissues
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Bone
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When an emasculator is asked for by the surgeon, the following surgical procedure is being performed
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castration
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A Ferguson Angiotribe is
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a crushing forcep
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When preparing a cat for a spay one should
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check the animal's sex
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Ethylene oxide sterilization is preferred for the following
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heat sensitive materials
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A gastrotomy could be done to remove an object from the
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Stomach
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Which of the following sizes of absorbable suture material is the largest
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1
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A 3-way valve would be used for
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Aspiration
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An instrument used to examine the eye is the
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Opthalmoscope
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Halstead mosquito forceps are used mainly for
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Hemostasis
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Gingivitis is an inflammation of the
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gums
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The instrument of choice in scaling supragingival plaque is a/an
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ultrasonic unit
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The major contributing factor to periodontal disease in dogs and cats is the
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Accumulation of calculus along and under the gingival border
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A draining fistulous tract ventral to the eye on the dorsum of the nasal bone would most likely be caused by
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A periapical disease of the upper last premolar or the first molar
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Hyperplasia of the enamel in the dog usually results from defective calcification prior to eruption of the teeth and is commonly termed
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Distemper teeth
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The normal cat requires a diet high in
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Protein
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If strict aseptic preparation and technique are not used in orthopedic surgery, the result may be
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osteomyelitis
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Vitamin D definiciency may cause
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Bone defects
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The caloric intake needed for a 4 mth old puppy is about ___ that of an adult dog
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Three times
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An Elizabethan collar is used in the small animal hospital for
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prevention of self mutilation
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A good sanitizing agent:
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Will be effective against both gram negative and gram positive bacteria
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|
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In intradermal injection is given
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Into the layers of the skin
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Signs of inflammation are
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Pain, heat, swelling, redness, altered function
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A condition characterized by body failure to oxidize carbohydrates at a normal rate is
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diabetes mellitus
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Which of the following is NOT a sign of submission in a dog
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Tail held high
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1000 grams is expressed as
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1 kg
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One kilogram equals
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2.2 pounds
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In order to prepare a liter of 0.2% sucrose, the amount of solid sucrose required is:
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2.0 grams
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The drug P.O.P. (oxytocin) is used to
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stimulate uterine contractions
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A disadvantage of tranquilizers is that they
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cause a drop in blood pressure
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Demerol is classed as a/an:
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Narcotic
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A drug which causes pupil dilation is called a
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Mydriatic
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If medication is listed as 1 gm/cc and the directions state to "give 300mg/kg" what amount would you give a 44 pound dog
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6cc
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Which of the following drugs could be called for by the veterinarian to treat a cardiac emergency
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Isoproterenol, calcium chloride, sodium bicarbonate
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Which of the following drugs is NOT considered a tranquilizer
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Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
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Q.I.D. means:
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Four times a day
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Q.S. means:
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Quantity sufficient
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mEq/L means:
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milliequivalent per liter
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A veterinarian asks you to give 50mg/kg of a drug which contains 100mg/cc of the desired agent. The dog weighs 22 pounds. How many mls should you administer
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5mls
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A drug is supplied in tablets of 0.5g each. The dose for the drug is 10 mg/lb. The patient weighs 100 lbs. How many tablets does the correct dose for the patient require
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2
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A pharmacological agent stimulating urine formation is a/an
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diuretic
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One use of atropine is to
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decrease salivation
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One tablespoon is equal to
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15ml
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Which of the following is NOT a narcotic
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Nalline
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Which of the following drugs is a respiratory stimulant
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Doxapram HCL (Dopram-V)
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The hematocrit is a meansurement of the
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volume of blood cells per unit of cirulating blood
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|
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Serum:
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contains immunoglobulins
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A cell which normally has cytoplasmic vacuoles is
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a monocyte
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With the gram stain, a bacteria classified as a gram negative would appear
|
Red
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The temperature range for incubating most pathogenic bacteria are
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35-37 degrees C
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The two most common animal dermatophytes are
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Microsporum and Trichophyton
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Which of the following are endoparacites
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Toxascaris leonine, Dipylidium caninum
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|
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The causative agent of feline ear mites is
|
Otodectes
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The black inert debris on a flea infested animal is
|
Flea feces
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A normal canine would be expected to have a morning urine sample with
|
High specific gravity due to lack of fluid intake during the night
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|
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Serum that has a mily appearance is
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Lipemic
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Urine with the pH of 5.5 is
|
Acidic
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Pus cells seen in urine sediment are
|
leukocytes
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The flea acts as the intermediate host for
|
Dipylidium caninum
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|
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A heartworm diagnostic test is based on identification of
|
Microfilaria
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Ctenocephalides and Dermacentor refer respectively to
|
Fleas and ticks
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|
|
Trichuris is the genus name for
|
Whipworms
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|
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The most important aspect of performing an accurate sensitivity test on an organism is
|
Plenty of sensitivity disks available
|
|
|
Coccidia are
|
Protozoa
|
|
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The most common fixative solution used for preparation of tissues for histologic study is
|
Formalin
|
|
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Which is a parasite NOT USUALLY detected on fecal flotation examination
|
Tapeworm
|
|
|
To store fecal samples for parasitological examination, 24 to 48 hours, they should be
|
Refrigerated
|
|
|
"BUN" is a widely used blood chemistry test which is used to determine
|
Kidney fuction
|
|
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A glucose tolerance test is useful in helping to confirm
|
Diabetes
|
|
|
A blood sample that had clotted would leave a clear yellow-red solution called
|
serum
|
|
|
Penicillin toxicity is more common in the
|
Guinea Pig
|
|
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Which of the following labratory animals hibernates
|
Hamster
|
|
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The normal lifespan of the rabbit is about
|
7 years
|
|
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The animal most likely to injure its back if improperly restrained is the
|
Rabbit
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|
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What is the commonly used, most accessible intravenous site on the rabbit
|
Ear
|
|
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Which of the following breeds would might be most susceptible to hip dysplasia
|
Rottweiler
|
|
|
Systemic mycoses or dermatomycoses are infections caused by
|
Fungi
|
|
|
Leptospirosis
|
May be transmitted to humans
|
|
|
Rabies virus is spread in the body via
|
The nervous system
|
|
|
After removing the head of an animal that is suspected of having rabies, you should
|
refrigerate the head
|
|
|
Examples of common zoonoses are
|
rabies, tapeworm, leptospirosis, ringworm, toxoplasmosis
|
|
|
Mammary glands that are hot, swollen, and sensitive to the touch may be a sign of
|
Mastitis
|
|
|
IBR in cattle is caused by
|
A virus
|
|
|
The intermediate host of the liver fluke is a
|
snail
|
|
|
Anaplasmosis is a disease which affects the
|
Red blood cells
|
|
|
Equine distemper, canine distemper, and feline distemper are
|
not related
|
|
|
The term used to refer to the cause or causes of disease is
|
Etiology
|
|
|
Hematuria is
|
Blood in the urine
|
|
|
Septicemia is commonly called
|
Blood poisoning
|
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a zoonotic disease
|
Distemper
|
|
|
Feline panleukopenia
|
affects the cat and racoon
|
|
|
A cataract is an opacity of the
|
Lens
|
|
|
Highly communicable diseases in small animals include
|
Kennel cough and feline rhinotracheitis
|
|
|
Distemper is dogs is caused by
|
A virus
|
|
|
When an animal eats its own stool, this activity is known as
|
Coprophagia
|
|
|
Rabies virus introduced by a bite from an infected animal will travel from the bite area to the brain by which internal route
|
Peripheral nerves
|
|
|
Which of the following is not contagious
|
Tetanus
|
|
|
Cutaneous larval migrans is caused by
|
Hookworm larvae
|
|
|
Tularemia is a disease that is contagiousto man from
|
Rabbits
|
|
|
"Blue Eye" or corneal edema can occur with which canine disease
|
Hepatitis
|
|
|
An inflammation of the sensitive structures of the hoof is called
|
Laminitis
|
|
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Diagnosis of equine infectious anemia is accomplished by which of the following methods
|
Coggins immuno-gel diffusion test
|
|
|
Blood is commonly taken from which of the following veins in the horse
|
Jugular vein
|
|
|
A disease problem in feed lot cattle is
|
I.B.R., enterotoxemia, shipping fever
|
|
|
Malignant edema and blackleg are diseases often found in
|
Cattle and sheep
|
|
|
All personnel 18 years of age and older who enter a controlled area shall be provided with monitoring equipment
|
whenever skin exposure is likely to exceed 2 rems per quarter
|
|
|
Which of the following absorbs the most x-radiation
|
Bone
|
|
|
Biological damage from x-rays results mainly from
|
cell death, damage to cellular reproduction, interstitial ionization
|
|
|
According to California radiation safety laws, the maximum permissible exposure to whole body is
|
1.25 rem per quarter
|
|
|
Lead gloves and aprons should NEVER be
|
Folded, as it will break down the lead
|
|
|
California radiation control regulations require the tube housing to be
|
Of diagnostic type
|
|
|
Radiation safety during large animal radiography dictates the use of
|
cassette holders
|
|
|
Foam wedges, tae and other positioning and restraint devices reduce exposure to radiation by
|
reducing the number of people needed in the room
|
|
|
California law requires an x-ray timer to
|
terminate the exposure after a pre-set amount of time
|
|
|
California law requires the useful beam of x-ray to be controlled
|
by diaphragms or cones
|
|
|
The hands should be kept out of the primary beam
|
at all times
|
|
|
Probably the single most effective radiation safety factor is
|
distance
|
|
|
Short wave x-rays
|
are produced by high kilovoltage, are necessary for diagnostic radiography, have greater penetrating capability than long wave
|
|
|
Film badges or pocket ionization chambers should be worn
|
Neck level outside of the apron
|
|
|
A collimating device is useful because it
|
lowers patient exposure, decreases scatter radiation exposure, improves quality of radiography
|
|
|
Film fogging due to scatter radiation may be decreased by the use of
|
a grid or bucky
|
|
|
Intensifying screens are part of the
|
Cassette
|
|
|
If the tube-to-film distance is halved, the exposure
|
is quartered
|
|
|
An x-ray study of a suspected radial-ulnar fracture should include the
|
elbow and carpal joints
|
|
|
Given a technique of 70 KVP, 100MA, 0.1sec, which of the following changes will not affect the film contrast
|
70KVP, 50MA, 0.2sec
|
|
|
Non screen film:
|
requires greater MAs
|
|
|
Correct film processing follows this sequence
|
Developer, rinse, fixer, wash, dry
|
|
|
For a VD projection an animal would be
|
In dorsal recumbency
|
|
|
High speed intensifying screens
|
require less milliamperage, emit light when irradiated, may give a radiograph with a more granular appearance
|
|
|
The ideal temperature for processing solution for manual tank developing is
|
68 degrees F
|
|
|
The appearance of white or light green artifacts on a radiograph may be caused by
|
fingerprints on the film prior to processing, bending of the film prior to processing, two fils stuck together during processing
|
|
|
Increasing MAs of an x-ray exposure will
|
Cause increased film darkening
|
|
|
Radiolucent material absorbs
|
very little of x-ray passing through it
|
|
|
Films should be stored in a
|
cool and dry place
|
|
|
Thoracis radiography in dogs requires
|
fast exposure time settings
|
