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32 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
who can declare an emergency
PIC, flight dispatcher, and ATC
what is the visibility required in order to takeoff
2 engine - 1 SM no ceilings
3 engine - 1/2 SM no ceilings
when must a takeoff alternate be planned and listed on the dispatch flight release
whenever the actual visibility at the departure airport is below the landing minimums (found on an approach plate) for the departure airport
if a takeoff alternate is needed, what does FAR 121 say about the requirements for it
if taking off in a 2 engine jet, the takeoff alternate must be within 1 hour in still air with 1 engine inoperative. if taking off in a 3 or more engine jet, the takeoff alternate must be within 2 hours in still air with one engine inoperative. standard alternate weather minimums of 600-2 for a precision approach and 800-2 for a non precision approach apply as well
if a flight departs, loses an engine, and then cannot return to the departure airport because the weather has gone below minimums, then proceeds to its takeoff alternate, what weather minimums apply at the takeoff alternate
approach plate minimums
when is a destination alternate required
123 rule
if the weather forecasted at the destination is from 1 hour before to one hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA), forecast to be less than a 2000 ft ceiling, and/or less than 3 SM visibility, an alternate is required
is there a limit to how far away and a destination alternate can be or how many alternates you can have
no, there is no limit. the only limit is having enough fuel to get to them
if a flight is over its destination and diverts to its destination alternate, what weather minimums apply
approach plate minimums
a flight is planned in a smaller (or older, 2 engine jet (b717, crj, erj, etc)) from KORD to KSFO. as a result, the flight will cross the rocky mts. what must be considered before this flight can be dispatched
the possibility of needing a drift-down alternate needs to be considered. it is dependent on the route of flight, and the weight of the aircraft at takeoff. if a flight is not heavy and loses an engine over the mountains, it will easily be able to maintain altitude and clear them (by 2000 ft). however, if it is heavy at takeoff, when it loses one of its two engines, it will not be able to clear the mts. in the case of the latter, a drift down alternate must be planned, or in some cases several (if a flight is crossing multiple mt ranges)
what is operational control
the legal authority to initaite, conduct, and terminate a flight
who has operational control
the certificate holder (airline)
what does the certificate holder do with operational control
they delegate to the PIC and the flight dispatcher who share joint responsibility for a flight
how many hours of cockpit familiarization time per year must a flight dispatcher have
5 hours per year
name all of the items found on a dispatch flight release
fuel mins
airports
trip/tail number
weather
ifr
vfr
signature
what is domestic fuel supply
enough fuel to fly from the departure airport to the destination, then to the most distant alternate if required, and then 45 minutes of reserve fuel
what does FAR 121 say about communications
it states that the PIC and the flight dispatcher must be able to contact each other at all times, regardless of where in the world a flight may be
who do US airlines use to comply with FAR 121 communication regulation? what about most of europe and north africa
SFOARInc in the US and Stockholm Radio for EU
what does NTSB part 830 deal with
accidents, incidents, and injuries
give an example of an injury
broken arm/leg, torn tendon
the PIC and the flight dispatcher are jointly responsible for what
safety of flight, pre-flight planning, delay and dispatch release
what does FAR part 121 say about the flight dispatcher being familiar with weather
it states that the flight dispatcher must be thoroughly familiar with weather that exists and forecast weather conditions at airports along the route of flight, prior to dispatching any flight
an airlines' authority to operate a particular aircraft, fly between two cities, fly ILS category II approaches can all be found in what
an airline's operations specifications
what does FAR part 121 say about landing limitations
when planning a flight, the aircraft must be able to stop within 60% of the available runway (under dry conditions) at the destination. if the runway is wet, the aircraft must be able to stop within 115% of the dry runway requirement. for an alternate airport, the aircraft must be able to stop within 60%?????70% of the available runway (wet or dry)
define a domestic air carrier and give an example
a domestic air carrier is an airline that operates aircraft that weigh 12,500 lbs or greater on a scheduled basis inside the 48 contiguous US
define a flag air carrier and give an example
an airline which operates aircraft which weigh 12,500 lbs or greater, on a scheduled basis, to destinations outside the contiguous 48
if a flight pushes back from the gate, then returns with a problem, does the dispatcher have to re-release the flight
not typically, since the flight didnt leave the ground
a flight takes off from KMIA, then air-interrupts (returns) back to KMIA. does the dispatcher have to re-dispatch/re-release the flight
yes, because the airplane landed at an airport not listed as its destination in the original dispatch release
a flight that is traveling from KDFW to KORD takes off. over KSTL the flight develops a mechanical problem and lands at KSTL. does the flight need to be re-dispatched/re-released
yes, because the airplane landed at an airport not listed as its destination in the original dispatch release
a flight is planned from KMIA-KDFW-KLAX. the flight has been planned with an intermediate stop. the flight depart KMIA and lands successfully at KDFW. what is the max time that the flight can remain on the ground at KDFW (the intermediate airport) before it must be re-dispatched/re-released)
1 hour for a domestic carrier
6 hours for a flag carrier
what is a high minimum captain
a PIC who has less than 100 hours in the aircraft type they are flying. they must add 100 ft to a published decision height or minimum descent altitude and add 1/2 mile (2400 RVR) to the required visibility
what are the landing minimums for a HMC at an alternate destination
no less than 300 and 1 SM visibility
if an approach plate gave landing minimums of 300/1 for a particular runway and the weather was reported at 250/1 1/2. could the pilot shoot an approach
yes, because VISIBILITY IS CONTROLLING
if the visibility exists at an airport, the plane may line up for its FAF. if the visibility is not there, then the plane may not line up. this rule has nothing to do about landing the plane, but deals with allowing the plane to attempt an approach