Exam 3

Front 1

TRUE or FALSE

We do not want to always control microbial growth.

Back 1

True.

Front 2

Microbes that share habitats are ______________.

Back 2

Ubiquitous.

Front 3

Ubiquitous microbes often involve _________ interactions.

Back 3

Nutritional.

Front 4

The intimate relationships between the microorganisms and the human body are an example of ____________. (living together)

Back 4

Symbiosis.

Front 5

Microorganisms that do not require a relationship for survival are _________________. (free-living)

Back 5

Non-Symbiotic.

Front 6

Gut microbes and their animal host is an example of _______________.

Back 6

Mutualism.

Front 7

An association in which BOTH partners benefit is called?

Back 7

Mutualism.

Front 8

Staphylococcus and Corynebacterium is typically found in the _________. (normal microbiota)

Back 8

Nose.

Front 9

Bacteroides, Escherichia, Proteus, Klebsiella, Lactobacillus, Streptococcus, Candida, Clostridium, Pseudomonas, and Enterococcus is typically found in the ________ ____________.

(normal microbiota)

Back 9

Large Intestines.

Front 10

Streptococcus, Moraxella, Corynebacterium, Haemophilus, Neisseria, and Mycoplasma are typically found in the ___________.

(normal microbiota)

Back 10

Throat.

Front 11

Staphylococcus and Propionibacterium is typically found on the ________. (normal microbiota)

Back 11

Skin.

Front 12

Lactobacillus is typically found in the ____________. (normal microbiota)

Back 12

Vagina.

Front 13

Streptococcus, Fusobacterium, Actinomyces, Leptotrichia, and Veillonella is typically found in the _________. (normal microbiota)

Back 13

Mouth.

Front 14

Streptococcus, Mycobacterium, Escherichia, and Bacteroides is typically found in the _____________. (normal microbiota)

Back 14

Urethra.

Front 15

___________ ____________ is the population of microorganisms routinely found on or inside the body of healthy individuals.

Back 15

Normal Microbiota.

Front 16

___________ _____________ are microbes that typically inhabit body sites for extended periods of time.

Back 16

Resident Microbiota.

Front 17

TRUE or FALSE

Transient microbiota are the ones that cause disease.

Back 17

False.

Front 18

TRUE or FALSE

The lower respiratory track is known to harbor normal microbiota.

Back 18

False.

Front 19

The number of persons dying from an infectious disease is the _____________ rate.

Back 19

Mortality.

Front 20

The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the ______________ rate

Back 20

Morbidity.

Front 21

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is an __________________.

Back 21

Endemic.

Front 22

A disease that is increasing in numbers in more than one continent is an __________________.

Back 22

Pandemic.

Front 23

A disease that shows no predictable pattern as far as number and location is considered an ____________________.

Back 23

Sporadic.

Front 24

An interaction between organisms where both organisms benefit from the interaction is referred as _________________.

Back 24

Mutualism.

Front 25

An interaction between organisms where one organism is harmed and the other organism may or may not directly benefit is referred as ___________________.

Back 25

Parasitism.

Front 26

When microbes in close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not benefited or harmed is referred as _______________________.

Back 26

Commensalism.

Front 27

Relationship between two organisms where two separate and free living organisms are put together and create a unique or enhanced product is referred as _________________.

Back 27

Synergism.

Front 28

Competition between organisms for space or resources is referred as _________________.

Back 28

Antagonism.

Front 29

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are _____________ ______________.

Back 29

Biological Vectors.

Front 30

An inanimate object that transmits infectious agents is called a ___________.

Back 30

Fomite.

Front 31

TRUE of FALSE

A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues.

Back 31

True.

Front 32

This pattern happens when an established infection breaks off and travels to other tissues causing an infection in another area of the body

Back 32

Focal infection.

Front 33

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are the persons own _____________ __________.

Back 33

Normal biota.

Front 34

TRUE or FALSE

In order for an infection to occur the microbe must enter host in numbers at or above the infectious dose.

Back 34

True.

Front 35

Steps in disease progression:

Organism enters host through portal of entry

Back 35

STEP 1

Front 36

Steps in disease progression:

Organism attaches to host

Back 36

STEP 2

Front 37

Steps in disease progression:

Organism avoids host defense mechanisms.

Back 37

STEP 3

Front 38

Steps in disease progression:

Organism begins to multiply and causes pathological effects.

Back 38

STEP 4

Front 39

Steps in disease progression:

Organisms exit through an exit portal and move on to infect other hosts

Back 39

STEP 5

Front 40

Opportunistic pathogens are least likely to affect which of the following groups?

(a) Aids patients

(b) Cancer patients

(c) College students

(d) Drug addicts

(e) Transplant recipients

Back 40

(C) - College Students

Front 41

Capsules and M protein are thought to interfere with which of the following?

(a) Opsonization by complement proteins

(b) Opsonization by antibodies

(c) Recognition by T Cells

(d) Recognition by B Cells

(e) Phagosome-lyseome fusion

Back 41

(A) - Opsonization by complement proteins

Front 42

The C5a peptidase enzyme of streptococcus pyogenes breaks down C5a, resulting in...

(a) Lysis of the Streptococcus cells

(b) Lack of opsonization of Streptococcus cells

(c) Killing of phagocytes

(d) Decreased accumulation of phagocytes

(e) inhibition of membrane attack complexes

Back 42

(D) - Decreased accumulation of phagocytes

Front 43

All of the following are known mechanisms of avoiding the effects of antibodies except...

(a) Antigenic variation

(b) Mimicking "self"

(c) Synthesis of an Fe receptor

(d) Synthesis of IgG protease

(e) Remaining intracellular.

Back 43

(D) - Synthesis of IgG protease

Front 44

Which of the following statements about diphtheria toxin is false?

(a) It is an example of an endotoxin

(b) It is produced by corynebacterium

(c) It inhibits protein synthesis

(d) It can cause local damage to the throat

(e) It can cause systemic damage to organs such as the heart.

Back 44

(A) - It is an example of endotoxin

Front 45

Bacteria use _____________ to bind/attach to host cells.

Back 45

Adhesins.

Front 46

______________ are proteins that have very specific damaging effects; they may act locally or cause dramatic systemic effects.

Back 46

Exotoxins.

Front 47

Microbes that normally live on the skin, in the alimentary tract, and other sites in humans is referred to as ____________ ____________.

Back 47

Normal Microbiota.

Front 48

TRUE or FALSE

Every human contains about 10 trillion cells and 100 trillion microbes.

Back 48

True.

Front 49

TRUE or FALSE

The most number of microbes live in the mouth.

Back 49

False. The most number of microbes live in the intestines.

Front 50

TRUE or FALSE

The least number of microbes live on the skin.

Back 50

False. The least number of microbes live in the upper respiratory tract.

Front 51

_____________ ___________ is the disruption of a tissue or organ caused by microbes or their products.

Back 51

Infectious Disease.

Front 52

Pathogenic microorganisms penetrate the host defense, enter the tissue and multiply is referred to as an _________________.

Back 52

Infection.

Front 53

________________ __________ is any characteristic that increases pathogenicity.

Back 53

Virulence Factor

Front 54

An individual who is inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others without any notice is referred to as a _____________. (person)

Back 54

Carrier.

Front 55

An individual or object from which an infection is actually acquired is referred to as a ______________. (person or object)

Back 55

Source.

Front 56

The primary habitat in the natural world which a pathogen originates is referred to as a ___________________. (environment)

Back 56

Reservoir.

Front 57

___________ carriers transfer infectious agents through contact.

Back 57

Passive.

Front 58

What is an ”infectious dose”?

Back 58

Infectious dose (ID) - is the amount of pathogen required to cause an infection in the host.

Front 59

_________________ is the study of epidemics

Back 59

Epidemiology.

Front 60

_______________ is the number of new cases over a certain time period. (frequency)

Back 60

Incidence.

Front 61

__________________ is the total number of existing cases with respect to the entire population. (frequency)

Back 61

Prevalence.

Front 62

An _______________ is a sudden and simultaneous outbreak or increase in the number of cases of a disease in a population.

Back 62

Epidemic.

Front 63

Endotoxins are gram-______________ species only.

Back 63

Negative.

Front 64

TRUE or FALSE

Exotoxins are both gram-positive and gram-negative.

Back 64

True.

Front 65

____________________ is an organisms potential to cause infection or disease.

Back 65

Pathogenicity.

Front 66

A _________ _______________, as long as it comes into contact with a host will cause an infection or disease.

Back 66

True Pathogens.

Front 67

____________________ ______________ can only cause infection and disease if the host is in a weak state. (i.e. Immune system)

Back 67

Opportunistic Pathogens.

Front 68

An infection is caused by a _________________

Back 68

Pathogen

Front 69

Type and severity of infection depend on ______________________ of the organism and the condition of the host.

Back 69

Pathogenicity.

Front 70

The healthier the host the _______ severe the infection is going to appear.

Back 70

Less.

Front 71

The degree of pathogenicity is referred to as __________________.

Back 71

Virulence.

Front 72

Virulence is determined by its ability to...

1.)

2.)

Back 72

1.) Establish itself in the host.

2.) Cause damage.

Front 73

Any characteristic that increases pathogenicity is called a _______________ ____________.

Back 73

Virulence Factor.

Front 74

Microbes enters the tissues of the body by a ____________ ___ _________

Back 74

Portal of Entry.

Front 75

What are the basic portals of entry?

Back 75

Skin, Respiratory Tract, GI Tract, Urogenital.

Front 76

The simplest type of infection is a __________ ________________.

Back 76

Local Infection.

Front 77

Boils, Fungal skin infections, and warts are an example of what type of infection?

Back 77

Local Infection.

Front 78

Symbiotic relationships require __________ organisms

Back 78

Both.

Front 79

An organisms potential to cause infection...

Back 79

Pathogenicity.

Front 80

The degree of pathogenicity

Back 80

Viruelence.

Front 81

ANY characteristic that increases pathogenicity...

Back 81

Virulence Factor.

Front 82

Accumulated damage of the cell that leads to cell and tissue death...

Back 82

Necrosis.

Front 83

The organisms power to produce toxins...

Back 83

Toxigenicity.

Front 84

A variety of diseases caused by toxigenicity...

Back 84

Toxinoses.

Front 85

A toxinoses (disease) which is spread by the blood from the site of infection.

Back 85

Toxemias.

Front 86

A toxinoses (disease) which is spread by the ingestion of toxins.

Back 86

Intoxication.

Front 87

A toxin that is secreted by the bacterial cell into the tissue.

Back 87

Exotoxin.

Front 88

A toxin that is shed from the outter membrane of the cell – not targeted, very general.

Back 88

Endotoxin.

Front 89

An infection that is severe but short lived. (common cold)

Back 89

Acute Infection.

Front 90

An infection that progresses and persists over a long period of time. (Hep C)

Back 90

Chronic Infection.

Front 91

An infection that occurs at the same time that a primary infection occurs. Your immune system is so busy fighting the primary infection that a new one occurs. (chicken pox to staph)

Back 91

Secondary Infection.

Front 92

An infection where more than one microbe is present. Complex because you have multiple microbes establishing all at one site.

Back 92

Mixed Infection.

Front 93

An infection that stays in one spot. (wart)

Back 93

Local Infection.

Front 94

An infection that enters the body, gets into the blood stream, and spreads to the rest of the body. (chicken pox)

Back 94

Systemic Infection.

Front 95

An infection that has no signs of symptoms. The microbe is present and replicating because it avoided host defenses. Doesnt have a "disease state"

Back 95

Asymptomatic Infection.

Front 96

An infection that is indigenous to animals but can accidentally be transmitted to humans. (rabies)

Back 96

Zoonosis.

Front 97

A live animal that transmits an infectious agent from one host to another (mosquito, rat)

Back 97

Vector.

Front 98

When the infection can be spread from host to host

Back 98

Communicable disease.

Front 99

When an infection has no host to host involvement.

Back 99

Non–communicable Disease.

Front 100

An infection that is highly communicable

Back 100

Contagious Agent.

Front 101

Any host tissue bearing MCH markers foreign to the graft can be attacked

Back 101

Graft versus host disease.

Front 102

When donor tissue displays surface molecules of a different MHC class, the T Cells of the recipient will recognize its foreign and react against it

Back 102

Host rejection of graft.

Front 103

Type III Hypersensitivity causes a...

Back 103

Immuno Complex Reaction

Front 104

Episodes of impaired breathing due to severe bronchio–constriction

Back 104

Asthma.

Front 105

The skins response when you are skin tested for allergies.

Back 105

Wheal and Flare.

Front 106

The number of new cases over a certain time period

Back 106

Incidence.

Front 107

the total number of existing cases with respect to the entire population.

Back 107

Prevalence.

Front 108

"dumping" the allergy causing compounds from the mast cells.

Back 108

Degranulate.

Front 109

Results when T cells respond to antigens displayed on self tissues or transplanted foreign cells.

Back 109

Cell mediated hypersensitivity

Front 110

Kissing, touching, droplets, vertical, vector are all types of (contact)

Back 110

transmission of infection.

Front 111

fomites, food, water, and air are all examples of ___________ ____________.

Back 111

Indirect Transmission.

Front 112

Anthrax, Tetanus, Fungal Infection, Water, Soil, and Giardia are an example of __________________ reservoirs.

Back 112

Non–living.

Front 113

TRUE or FALSE:
Over the past century the mortality rate has remained low, but the morbity rate has remained high.

Back 113

True.

Front 114

TRUE or FALSE:
Measels is an example of a reportable disease.

Back 114

True.

Front 115

____________________ is the study of disease states associated with overactivity or underactivity of the immune response.

Back 115

Immunopathology.

Front 116

Immediate Hypersensitivity

Back 116

Type I.

Front 117

Antibody–mediated

Back 117

Type II.

Front 118

Immune complex–mediated

Back 118

Type III.

Front 119

T Cell mediated

Back 119

Type IV.

Front 120

An _________________ is altered reactivity or exaggerated immune response manifested by inflammation

Back 120

Allergy.

Front 121

______________________, sometimes used interchangeably with allergy, but some consider this to be delayed reaction (while allergies are immediate)

Back 121

Hypersensitivity.

Front 122

The antigen to which allergic individuals are sensitive is referred as

Back 122

Allergens.

Front 123

Type I allergies have _____ levels of severity.

Back 123

Two.

Front 124

A chronic local allergy is referred as an __________. (hay fever, asthma, ect.)

Back 124

Atopy.

Front 125

A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction is called ________________.

Back 125

Anaphylaxis.

Front 126

The "Big Eight" food allergens are...

Back 126

Peanuts, Soy, Eggs, Milk, Fish, Wheat, Shellfish, Tree Nuts.

Front 127

____________________________ _____________ targets self–antigens in the body.

Back 127

Autoimmune disease.

Front 128

An inadequate amount of immunity is referred as _______________________.

Back 128

Immunodeficiency.

Front 129

A bad blood transfusion is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

Back 129

Type II.

Front 130

Which blood type is often considered the 'universal donor'?

Back 130

Type O.

Front 131

People with blood type ____ are potentially able to donate blood to anyone.

Back 131

Type O.

Front 132

Type of Sensitivity:


Graft Rejection

Back 132

Type II.

Front 133

Type of Sensitivity:



Hay Fever

Back 133

Type I

Front 134

Type of Sensitivity:



Tuberculin skin test reaction

Back 134

Type IV.

Front 135

Type of Sensitivity:

Poison Ivy Dermatitis

Back 135

Type IV.

Front 136

Type of Sensitivity:

Serum Sickness

Back 136

Type III.

Front 137

Type of Sensitivity:

Food Allergy

Back 137

Type I.

Front 138

An excessive or inappropriate immune response that causes tissue injury in the host is called...

Back 138

Hypersensitivity.

Front 139

Which of the following is not a typical symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?


(a) Asthma
(b) Anaphylactic shock
(c) Hives
(d) Kidney damage
(e) Rhinitis

Back 139

(D) – Kidney Damage.

Front 140

Which of the following statements about Type II hypersensitivity is false?


(a) It causes transfusion reactions.
(b) It causes hemolytic disease in newborn infants.
(c) Cells are destroyed by complement–fixing antibodies or antibody–dependent cellular cytoxicity.
(d) IgE, IgG, IgM are involved.
(e) All these choices are correct.

Back 140

(D) – IgE, IgG, IgM are involved.

Front 141

TRUE or FALSE:
Histamine is released by mast cells and can lead to asthma symptoms.

Back 141

False.

Front 142

___________________ Stimulates smooth muscle, glands, eosinophils; responsible for skin reaction, itching and headache.

Back 142

Histamine.

Front 143

Sudden respiratory and circulatory disruption that can be fatal is referred to as...

Back 143

Systemic Anaphylaxis.

Front 144

__________________ causes prolonged smooth muscle contraction of the bronchioles, dilation of peripheral arterioles, increased capillary permeability, and increased mucus secretion.

Back 144

Brandykinin.

Front 145

___________________ induces gradual contraction of smooth muscle.

Back 145

Leukotriene.

Front 146

___________________ Are inflammatory agents responsible for vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, increased sensitivity to pain, and broncho–constriction.

Back 146

Prostaglandins.

Front 147

The initial encounter of allergen is referred as the ______________ _________.

Back 147

Sensitizing Dose.

Front 148

TRUE of FALSE
Sensitization of an allergen occurs during the second or next encounter.

Back 148

False. Sensitization of an allergen occurs during the first or initial encounter.

Front 149

During _________________ of an allergy, memory cells and immunoglobulin are ready to react.

Back 149

Provocation.

Front 150

TRUE or FALSE
The secondary or next encounter of an allergen is referred as the sensitizing dose.

Back 150

False. The next exposure of the allergen is called provocation.

Front 151

_________________ of allergy causes a quicker and stronger response leading to the signs and symptoms of an allergy.

Back 151

Provocation.

Front 152

_______________ _________ is when the body is learning how to react to the allergen.

Back 152

Sensitizing Dose.

Front 153

Airborne environmental allergens are referred to as...

Back 153

Inhalants.

Front 154

Pollen, dust, dander, and mold are an example of...

Back 154

Inhalant Substances.

Front 155

Allergens that enter the body by mouth are referred to as...

Back 155

Ingestants.

Front 156

Food and oral antibiotics are an example of...

Back 156

Ingestant Substances.

Front 157

These allergies cause side effects of drugs or other substances used in diagnosing, treating, or preventing disease; or naturally through venom from stings...

Back 157

Injectant Allergies.

Front 158

Venom or bee stings are an example of....

Back 158

Injected Substances.

Front 159

The portal of entry for an injected substance is through the _________.

Back 159

Skin.

Front 160

TRUE or FALSE:
The portal of entry for an ingested substance is through the mouth and gastrointestinal tract.

Back 160

True.

Front 161

___________________ are allergens that enter through the skin.

Back 161

Contactants.

Front 162

Poison Ivy, cosmetics, detergents and fabrics are an example of a...

Back 162

Contactant Substance.

Front 163

The respiratory system is an example of a ___________ _____ ____________ for inhalants.

Back 163

Portal of Entry.

Front 164

____________ are more allergenic than carbohydrates, fats, or nucleic acids

Back 164

Proteins.

Front 165

TRUE or FALSE:
Carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids are more allergenic than proteins.

Back 165

False. Proteins are more allergenic than carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids.

Front 166

Allergen typically enter through the ______________ portals in the respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, and skin.

Back 166

Epithelial.

Front 167

TRUE or FALSE:
50% of the population are prone to atopic allergies?

Back 167

FALSE. 10% to 30% of the population is prone to atopic allergies.

Front 168

When a person grows into or out of an allergy is when it is altered by _______.

Back 168

Age.

Front 169

Exposure to an _______________ could change how an allergy is expressed.

Back 169

Infection.

Front 170

This could alter whether an individual is suffering from allergies

Back 170

Geographic Locale.

Front 171

An individual who has allergies have a genetic programing that favors allergic antibody (____) production.

Back 171

IgE.

Front 172

IgE Production causes increased activity of ________ _____, and increased susceptibility of target tissue to allergic mediators.

Back 172

Mast Cells.

Front 173

TRUE or FALSE
The antigen to which allergic individuals are sensitive is called and allergen.

Back 173

True.

Front 174

_____________________ studies allergies, autoimmunity, grafts and transfusions, and immunodeficiencies.

Back 174

Immunopathology.

Front 175

TRUE OR FALSE
Immunodeficiency is an example of an overactive immune response.

Back 175

False. Autoimmunity is an over active immune response.

Front 176

TRUE or FALSE
autoimmunity, allergies, grafts and transfusions is an example of over active immune response.

Back 176

True.

Front 177

_________________ is an under active immune response.

Back 177

Immunodeficiency.

Front 178

TRUE or FALSE:
A food allergy and a food intolerance are the same thing?

Back 178

False. A food allergy and a food intolerance is different.

Front 179

________________ __________________ is an inflammatory reaction to a local injection of allergen.

Back 179

Cutaneous Anaphylaxis.

Front 180

__________ ___________ is different from a food intolerance.

Back 180

Food Allergy.

Front 181

TRUE or FALSE:
A drug allergy reaction ranges from mild atopy to fatal anaphylaxis

Back 181

True.

Front 182

Beta–lactam antibiotics and sulfa drugs are the ________ common drug allergies.

Back 182

Most.

Front 183

TRUE or FALSE:
the least common drug allergies come from beta–lactam antibiotics and sulfa drugs.

Back 183

False. Beta–lactam antibiotics and sulfa drugs are the most common drug allergies.

Front 184

Bee stings, antibiotics, serum, and peanuts can all cause this type of systemic reaction...

Back 184

Anaphylaxis.

Front 185

TRUE or FALSE:
Diagnosis of an allergy can be determined by a test tube method in a laboratory or via a skin test.

Back 185

True.

Front 186

Skin testing is an example of what allergy diagnosis method?

Back 186

In Vivo.

Front 187

Testing for an allergy in a test tube is an example of what allergy diagnosis method?

Back 187

In Vitro.

Front 188

TRUE or FALSE:
The measure of elevated blood levels of tryptase (mast cells) is nonspecific allergy diagnosis test.

Back 188

True.

Front 189

TRUE or FALSE:
Serological tests that use radioimmune assays to measure IgE amounts is a non–specific allergy diagnosis test.

Back 189

False. Serological tests that use radioimmune assays to measure IgE amounts is specific allergy diagnosis test.

Front 190

Leukocyte histamine–release is a _______________ allergy diagnosis test

Back 190

Non–specific.

Front 191

This type of allergy test is performed by scratching the patients skin with a small amount of pure allergen extract...

Back 191

Skin Test.

Front 192

TRUE or FALSE:
A skin test is a specific and invivo method of diagnosis or an allergy.

Back 192

True.

Front 193

TRUE or FALSE:
A differential blood cell count of basophils and eosinophils is a non–specific and in vitro method of diagnosing an allergy.

Back 193

True.

Front 194

Once an allergy has been diagnosed it is typically suggested that the patient _____________ the allergen

Back 194

Avoids.

Front 195

_____________________ keep the plasma cell from synthesizing IgE and inhibit T cells. This will not cure an allergy.

Back 195

Corticosteroids.

Front 196

TRUE or FALSE:
Antihistamines, aspirin, epinephrine, theophylline, counteract the effects of cytokines on targets.

Back 196

True.

Front 197

Treatment and prevention of an allergy is referred to as _____________________ _____________.

Back 197

Desensitization Therapy.

Front 198

TRUE or FALSE:
Desensitization therapy works well with food and drug allergies

Back 198

False. Desensitization therapy DOES NOT work with food and drug allergies

Front 199

____________________ ____________ Prevents reactions with allergen, IgE, and mast cells.

Back 199

Desensitization Therapy.

Front 200

___________ and __________ allergy cannot be treated with desensitization therapy.

Back 200

Food and Drug.

Front 201

Type A red blood cells have ____ antigens.

Back 201

A.

Front 202

Type B red blood cells have ____ antigens.

Back 202

B.

Front 203

Type AB red blood cells have ____ antigens.

Back 203

AB.

Front 204

Type O red blood cells have ____ antigens.

Back 204

Have neither AB.

Front 205

A person with type A blood has ___ antigens and ___ antibodies.

Back 205

A antigens and B antibodies

Front 206

A person with type B blood has ___ antigens and ___ antibodies.

Back 206

B antigens and A antibodies

Front 207

A person with type AB blood has ___ antigens and _______ antibodies.

Back 207

AB antigens and neither antibodies (AB)

Front 208

A person with type O blood has _____ antigens and ___ antibodies.

Back 208

Neither antigens (AB) but has AB antibodies.

Front 209

TRUE or FALSE:
Type O blood have neither AB antigens, but has AB antibodies.

Back 209

True.

Front 210

Reactions that lyse foreign cells is a type ____ hypersensitivity.

Back 210

Type II.

Front 211

Involves the production of IgG and IgM after repeated exposure to antigens and the activation complement...

Back 211

Type III.

Front 212

Type III hypersensitivity cause an ______________ ______________ reaction.

Back 212

Immune Complex.

Front 213

____________________ is the study of disease states associated with overactivity or underactivity of the immune response.

Back 213

Immunopathology.

Front 214

Immediate Hypersensitivity

Back 214

Type I.

Front 215

Antibody–mediated

Back 215

Type II.

Front 216

Immune complex–mediated

Back 216

Type III.

Front 217

T Cell mediated

Back 217

Type IV.

Front 218

An _________________ is altered reactivity or exaggerated immune response manifested by inflammation

Back 218

Allergy.

Front 219

______________________, sometimes used interchangeably with allergy, but some consider this to be delayed reaction (while allergies are immediate)

Back 219

Hypersensitivity.

Front 220

The antigen to which allergic individuals are sensitive is referred as

Back 220

Allergens.

Front 221

Type I allergies have _____ levels of severity.

Back 221

Two.

Front 222

A chronic local allergy is referred as an __________. (hay fever, asthma, ect.)

Back 222

Atopy.

Front 223

A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction is called ________________.

Back 223

Anaphylaxis.

Front 224

The "Big Eight" food allergens are...

Back 224

Peanuts, Soy, Eggs, Milk, Fish, Wheat, Shellfish, Tree Nuts.

Front 225

____________________________ _____________ targets self–antigens in the body.

Back 225

Autoimmune disease.

Front 226

An inadequate amount of immunity is referred as _______________________.

Back 226

Immunodeficiency.

Front 227

A bad blood transfusion is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

Back 227

Type II.

Front 228

Which blood type is often considered the 'universal donor'?

Back 228

Type O.

Front 229

People with blood type ____ are potentially able to donate blood to anyone.

Back 229

Type O.

Front 230

Type of Sensitivity:


Graft Rejection

Back 230

Type II.

Front 231

Type of Sensitivity:



Hay Fever

Back 231

Type I

Front 232

Type of Sensitivity:



Tuberculin skin test reaction

Back 232

Type IV.

Front 233

Type of Sensitivity:

Poison Ivy Dermatitis

Back 233

Type IV.

Front 234

Type of Sensitivity:

Serum Sickness

Back 234

Type III.

Front 235

Type of Sensitivity:

Food Allergy

Back 235

Type I.

Front 236

An excessive or inappropriate immune response that causes tissue injury in the host is called...

Back 236

Hypersensitivity.

Front 237

Which of the following is not a typical symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?


(a) Asthma
(b) Anaphylactic shock
(c) Hives
(d) Kidney damage
(e) Rhinitis

Back 237

(D) – Kidney Damage.

Front 238

Which of the following statements about Type II hypersensitivity is false?


(a) It causes transfusion reactions.
(b) It causes hemolytic disease in newborn infants.
(c) Cells are destroyed by complement–fixing antibodies or antibody–dependent cellular cytoxicity.
(d) IgE, IgG, IgM are involved.
(e) All these choices are correct.

Back 238

(D) – IgE, IgG, IgM are involved.

Front 239

TRUE or FALSE:
Histamine is released by mast cells and can lead to asthma symptoms.

Back 239

False.

Front 240

___________________ Stimulates smooth muscle, glands, eosinophils; responsible for skin reaction, itching and headache.

Back 240

Histamine.

Front 241

Sudden respiratory and circulatory disruption that can be fatal is referred to as...

Back 241

Systemic Anaphylaxis.

Front 242

__________________ causes prolonged smooth muscle contraction of the bronchioles, dilation of peripheral arterioles, increased capillary permeability, and increased mucus secretion.

Back 242

Brandykinin.

Front 243

___________________ induces gradual contraction of smooth muscle.

Back 243

Leukotriene.

Front 244

___________________ Are inflammatory agents responsible for vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, increased sensitivity to pain, and broncho–constriction.

Back 244

Prostaglandins.

Front 245

The initial encounter of allergen is referred as the ______________ _________.

Back 245

Sensitizing Dose.

Front 246

TRUE of FALSE
Sensitization of an allergen occurs during the second or next encounter.

Back 246

False. Sensitization of an allergen occurs during the first or initial encounter.

Front 247

During _________________ of an allergy, memory cells and immunoglobulin are ready to react.

Back 247

Provocation.

Front 248

TRUE or FALSE
The secondary or next encounter of an allergen is referred as the sensitizing dose.

Back 248

False. The next exposure of the allergen is called provocation.

Front 249

_________________ of allergy causes a quicker and stronger response leading to the signs and symptoms of an allergy.

Back 249

Provocation.

Front 250

_______________ _________ is when the body is learning how to react to the allergen.

Back 250

Sensitizing Dose.

Front 251

Airborne environmental allergens are referred to as...

Back 251

Inhalants.

Front 252

Pollen, dust, dander, and mold are an example of...

Back 252

Inhalant Substances.

Front 253

Allergens that enter the body by mouth are referred to as...

Back 253

Ingestants.

Front 254

Food and oral antibiotics are an example of...

Back 254

Ingestant Substances.

Front 255

These allergies cause side effects of drugs or other substances used in diagnosing, treating, or preventing disease; or naturally through venom from stings...

Back 255

Injectant Allergies.

Front 256

Venom or bee stings are an example of....

Back 256

Injected Substances.

Front 257

The portal of entry for an injected substance is through the _________.

Back 257

Skin.

Front 258

TRUE or FALSE:
The portal of entry for an ingested substance is through the mouth and gastrointestinal tract.

Back 258

True.

Front 259

___________________ are allergens that enter through the skin.

Back 259

Contactants.

Front 260

Poison Ivy, cosmetics, detergents and fabrics are an example of a...

Back 260

Contactant Substance.

Front 261

The respiratory system is an example of a ___________ _____ ____________ for inhalants.

Back 261

Portal of Entry.

Front 262

____________ are more allergenic than carbohydrates, fats, or nucleic acids

Back 262

Proteins.

Front 263

TRUE or FALSE:
Carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids are more allergenic than proteins.

Back 263

False. Proteins are more allergenic than carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids.

Front 264

Allergen typically enter through the ______________ portals in the respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, and skin.

Back 264

Epithelial.

Front 265

TRUE or FALSE:
50% of the population are prone to atopic allergies?

Back 265

FALSE. 10% to 30% of the population is prone to atopic allergies.

Front 266

When a person grows into or out of an allergy is when it is altered by _______.

Back 266

Age.

Front 267

Exposure to an _______________ could change how an allergy is expressed.

Back 267

Infection.

Front 268

This could alter whether an individual is suffering from allergies

Back 268

Geographic Locale.

Front 269

An individual who has allergies have a genetic programing that favors allergic antibody (____) production.

Back 269

IgE.

Front 270

IgE Production causes increased activity of ________ _____, and increased susceptibility of target tissue to allergic mediators.

Back 270

Mast Cells.

Front 271

TRUE or FALSE
The antigen to which allergic individuals are sensitive is called and allergen.

Back 271

True.

Front 272

_____________________ studies allergies, autoimmunity, grafts and transfusions, and immunodeficiencies.

Back 272

Immunopathology.

Front 273

TRUE OR FALSE
Immunodeficiency is an example of an overactive immune response.

Back 273

False. Autoimmunity is an over active immune response.

Front 274

TRUE or FALSE
autoimmunity, allergies, grafts and transfusions is an example of over active immune response.

Back 274

True.

Front 275

_________________ is an under active immune response.

Back 275

Immunodeficiency.

Front 276

TRUE or FALSE:
A food allergy and a food intolerance are the same thing?

Back 276

False. A food allergy and a food intolerance is different.

Front 277

________________ __________________ is an inflammatory reaction to a local injection of allergen.

Back 277

Cutaneous Anaphylaxis.

Front 278

__________ ___________ is different from a food intolerance.

Back 278

Food Allergy.

Front 279

TRUE or FALSE:
A drug allergy reaction ranges from mild atopy to fatal anaphylaxis

Back 279

True.

Front 280

Beta–lactam antibiotics and sulfa drugs are the ________ common drug allergies.

Back 280

Most.

Front 281

TRUE or FALSE:
the least common drug allergies come from beta–lactam antibiotics and sulfa drugs.

Back 281

False. Beta–lactam antibiotics and sulfa drugs are the most common drug allergies.

Front 282

Bee stings, antibiotics, serum, and peanuts can all cause this type of systemic reaction...

Back 282

Anaphylaxis.

Front 283

TRUE or FALSE:
Diagnosis of an allergy can be determined by a test tube method in a laboratory or via a skin test.

Back 283

True.

Front 284

Skin testing is an example of what allergy diagnosis method?

Back 284

In Vivo.

Front 285

Testing for an allergy in a test tube is an example of what allergy diagnosis method?

Back 285

In Vitro.

Front 286

TRUE or FALSE:
The measure of elevated blood levels of tryptase (mast cells) is nonspecific allergy diagnosis test.

Back 286

True.

Front 287

TRUE or FALSE:
Serological tests that use radioimmune assays to measure IgE amounts is a non–specific allergy diagnosis test.

Back 287

False. Serological tests that use radioimmune assays to measure IgE amounts is specific allergy diagnosis test.

Front 288

Leukocyte histamine–release is a _______________ allergy diagnosis test

Back 288

Non–specific.

Front 289

This type of allergy test is performed by scratching the patients skin with a small amount of pure allergen extract...

Back 289

Skin Test.

Front 290

TRUE or FALSE:
A skin test is a specific and invivo method of diagnosis or an allergy.

Back 290

True.

Front 291

TRUE or FALSE:
A differential blood cell count of basophils and eosinophils is a non–specific and in vitro method of diagnosing an allergy.

Back 291

True.

Front 292

Once an allergy has been diagnosed it is typically suggested that the patient _____________ the allergen

Back 292

Avoids.

Front 293

_____________________ keep the plasma cell from synthesizing IgE and inhibit T cells. This will not cure an allergy.

Back 293

Corticosteroids.

Front 294

TRUE or FALSE:
Antihistamines, aspirin, epinephrine, theophylline, counteract the effects of cytokines on targets.

Back 294

True.

Front 295

Treatment and prevention of an allergy is referred to as _____________________ _____________.

Back 295

Desensitization Therapy.

Front 296

TRUE or FALSE:
Desensitization therapy works well with food and drug allergies

Back 296

False. Desensitization therapy DOES NOT work with food and drug allergies

Front 297

____________________ ____________ Prevents reactions with allergen, IgE, and mast cells.

Back 297

Desensitization Therapy.

Front 298

___________ and __________ allergy cannot be treated with desensitization therapy.

Back 298

Food and Drug.

Front 299

Type A red blood cells have ____ antigens.

Back 299

A.

Front 300

Type B red blood cells have ____ antigens.

Back 300

B.

Front 301

Type AB red blood cells have ____ antigens.

Back 301

AB.

Front 302

Type O red blood cells have ____ antigens.

Back 302

Have neither AB.

Front 303

A person with type A blood has ___ antigens and ___ antibodies.

Back 303

A antigens and B antibodies

Front 304

A person with type B blood has ___ antigens and ___ antibodies.

Back 304

B antigens and A antibodies

Front 305

A person with type AB blood has ___ antigens and _______ antibodies.

Back 305

AB antigens and neither antibodies (AB)

Front 306

A person with type O blood has _____ antigens and ___ antibodies.

Back 306

Neither antigens (AB) but has AB antibodies.

Front 307

TRUE or FALSE:
Type O blood have neither AB antigens, but has AB antibodies.

Back 307

True.

Front 308

Reactions that lyse foreign cells is a type ____ hypersensitivity.

Back 308

Type II.

Front 309

Involves the production of IgG and IgM after repeated exposure to antigens and the activation complement...

Back 309

Type III.

Front 310

Type III hypersensitivity cause an ______________ ______________ reaction.

Back 310

Immune Complex.

Front 311

A series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as...

Back 311

KOCH'S POSTULATES

Front 312

Adherence, Dose, and Virulence Factor, are ALL important for the establishment of what...

Back 312

INFECTION

Front 313

_____________ is not considered important for establishment of an infection.

Back 313

TOXICITY

Front 314

The organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed as....

Back 314

SYMBIOSIS

Front 315

The microorganisms that are regulary found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called...

Back 315

NORMAL FLORA

Front 316

The resident microbial population of the human fetus is...

Back 316

ZERO

Front 317

The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed...

Back 317

INFECTIOUS DOSE

Front 318

pathogens that take advantage of special circumstances.

Back 318

OPPORTUNISTIC PATHOGENS

Front 319

TRUE OR FALSE

Normal flora provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader.

Back 319

TRUE

Front 320

TRUE OR FALSE

Normal flora establish competition for nutrients and vitamins.

Back 320

TRUE

Front 321

TRUE OR FALSE

Normal flora produce anitmicrobial substances

Back 321

TRUE

Front 322

TRUE OR FALSE

Normal flora stimulate the immune system.

Back 322

TRUE

Front 323

Growth of a parasitic organism in or on the host is reffered to as...

Back 323

INFECTION

Front 324

TRUE OR FALSE:

Pain is a sign of a disease.

Back 324

FALSE

Front 325

TRUE OR FALSE:

Fever of 39°C is a sign of a disease.

Back 325

TRUE

Front 326

TRUE OR FALSE:

Nausea is a sign of a disease.

Back 326

FALSE

Front 327

TRUE OR FALSE:

Headaches is a sign of a disease.

Back 327

FALSE

Front 328

Mutualism, commensalism, parasitism are all forms of what type of relationship?

Back 328

SYMBIOTIC

Front 329

Flora that typically inhabit body sites for extended periods are called...

Back 329

RESIDENT FLORA

Front 330

Flora that are temporary is called...

They form associations for a short time and are replaced.

Back 330

TRANSIENT FLORA

Front 331

TRUE OR FALSE:

Normal flora is established during birth process

Back 331

TRUE

Front 332

Most _________ are saprophytes that feed off of decaying matter.

Back 332

FUNGI

Front 333

Most _________ are saprophytes that feed off of decaying matter.

Back 333

FUNGI

Front 334

Fungi / Saprophytes that cause disease and are generally opportunistic...

Back 334

CANDIDA ALBICANS

Front 335

Most serious fungal infections caused by ______________ fungi

Back 335

DIMORPHIC

Front 336

_______________ fungi, occur as molds in the enviornment but assume other forms in the tissues. (usually yeast.)

Back 336

DIMORPHIC

Front 337

Adaptive Immunity into ___ paths.

Back 337

TWO

(Humoral Immunity & Cellular Immunity)

Front 338

___________ immunity eliminates extracellular pathogens

Back 338

HUMORAL

Front 339

___________ immunity eliminates extracellular pathogens

Back 339

HUMORAL

Front 340

______________ immunity eliminates imtracellular payhogens

Back 340

CELLULAR

Front 341

Antibodies are made by...

Back 341

PLASMA CELLS

Front 342

________________ cells may take the form of

Back 342

B CELLS

T CYTOTOXIC CELLS

T HELPER CELLS

Front 343

T cell mature in the...

Back 343

THYMUS

Front 344

A term synonymous with antibody is...

Back 344

IMMUNOGLOBULIN

Front 345

T cells primarily are responsible for...

Back 345

CELL MEDIATED IMMUNITY

Front 346

What class of antibody accounts for the bulk of the circulating antibody?

Back 346

IgG

Front 347

Ag-Ab binding may result in...

Back 347

neutralization, immobilization, agglutination.

Front 348

TRUE OR FALSE:

There are different patterns of infection

Back 348

TRUE

Front 349

TRUE OR FALSE:

There are different patterns of infection

Back 349

TRUE

Front 350

The ______________ system is a collection of tissues and organs that bring populations of B cells and T cells into contact with antigens

Back 350

LYMPHATIC SYSTEM

Front 351

_____________ is a colorless fluid derived from tissue fluid.

Back 351

LYMPH

Front 352

_________________ immunity is protection provided by immune responses that improve due to exposure to antigens; involves B cells & T cells.

Back 352

ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY

Front 353

The ______________ system is a collection of tissues and organs that bring populations of B cells and T cells into contact with antigens

Back 353

LYMPHATIC SYSTEM

Front 354

_____________ is a colorless fluid derived from tissue fluid.

Back 354

LYMPH

Front 355

_________________ immunity is protection provided by immune responses that improve due to exposure to antigens; involves B cells & T cells.

Back 355

ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY

Front 356

TRUE OR FALSE

Adaptive Immunity can take a week of longer to build.

Back 356

TRUE

Front 357

The first adaptive response to a paticular antigen is called the...

Back 357

PRIMARY RESPONSE

Front 358

The first adaptive response to a paticular antigen is called the...

Back 358

PRIMARY RESPONSE

Front 359

If a same antigen is encountered later in life, there is a strong antigen specific adaptive response called...

Back 359

SECONDARY RESPONSE

Front 360

The two basic strategies in adaptive immune responses are

Back 360

1. Humoral Immunity

2. Cell Mediated

Front 361

The two basic strategies in adaptive immune responses are

Back 361

1. Humoral Immunity

2. Cell Mediated

Front 362

The two basic strategies in adaptive immune responses are

Back 362

1. Humoral Immunity

2. Cell Mediated

Front 363

Humoral immunity eliminates microbial invaders as well as their toxins from the _________ ___________ & tissue fluids; these invaders are considered to be extracellular because they are not within the host cells.

Back 363

BLOOD STREAM

Front 364

____________ immunity involves B lymphocytes, or B cells.

Back 364

HUMORAL IMMUNITY

Front 365

____________ immunity involves B lymphocytes, or B cells.

Back 365

HUMORAL IMMUNITY

Front 366

____________ immunity involves B lymphocytes, or B cells.

Back 366

HUMORAL IMMUNITY

Front 367

_____ Cells, are a cell type that devolopes in the bone marrow in mammals

Back 367

B CELLS

Front 368

_______ ___________ immunity (CMI), deals with invaders residing within a host cell.

Back 368

CELL MEDIATED IMMUNITY

Front 369

_______ ___________ immunity (CMI), deals with invaders residing within a host cell.

Back 369

CELL MEDIATED IMMUNITY

Front 370

IgM, IgG, IgD, IgA, IgE...

Back 370

CLASSES OF B CELL ANTIBODIES

Front 371

FIVE CLASSES OF ANTIBODY:

First antibody to respond to infection, 5-3% in circulation

Structure: Pentamer

The only antibody that can be formed by the fetus in utero

Back 371

IgM

Front 372

FIVE CLASSES OF ANTIBODY:

Dominate antibody in circulation. 80-85% in circulation.

Structure: Monomer

Only antibody that can cross the placenta

Involved in memory response

Back 372

IgG

Front 373

FIVE CLASSES OF ANTIBODY:

Dominate antibody in circulation. 80-85% in circulation.

Structure: Monomer

Only antibody that can cross the placenta

Involved in memory response

Back 373

IgG

Front 374

FIVE CLASSES OF ANTIBODY:

<1% of total antibody in circulation

Structure = monomer

Maturation of antibody response

Back 374

IgD

Front 375

FIVE CLASSES OF ANTIBODY:

Found in secretions.

10-13% of antibody in circulation.

Structure:

Monomer in serum

Dimer in seceretions

-- Breast milk, mucus, tears and saliva.

Back 375

IgA

Front 376

FIVE CLASSES OF ANTIBODY:

Barely detectable in circulation.

Structure: monomer

Active in alergic reactions

Back 376

IgE