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212 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The species most susceptible to penicillin toxicity are the:
Hamster and guinea pig
Ich is a disease of:
Fish
All primates should be tested for bovine, avian and human strains of tuberculosis
True
Vitamin C deficiency in guinea pigs is characterized by:
Widespread hemorrage of muscles and joints
The odor in ferrets is natural, and the result of an improper diet?
False
The most common cause of resperatory disease in rabbitrs is?
Pasteurella
concerning skin shedding in snakes/ The corneas become cloudy and bluish, but the corneal epithelium is not shed. (T/F)
False
The species of small mammals most likely to experience dystocia is the?
guinea pig
The species of small mammal which malocclusion of the premolars and molars is most commonly a serious problem is the?
guinea pig
Labratory animal medicine is best defined as:
A specialty field of veterinary medicine concerned with diagnosis, treatment and prevention of disease of laboratory animals
A rabbit doe typically nurses her young how many times a day?
Once a day
The United states department of agriculture quarantine period for psittacine birds arriving in the US from another country is?
30 days
The rhesus monkey is a nonhuman primate commonly used in research. It is considered a member of which group of monkeys?
Old world monkeys
"Kindling" is the term used to describe?
Parturition of rabbits
Concerning the regulation governing shipment of dogs, cats, and nonhuman primates: (T/F) All animals shipped must have been bred by a commercial vendor?
False
The only anilas considered in the animal welfare act in the US are, dogs and cats,birds,hamsters,guinea pigs, rabbits, nonhuman primates and cattle?
False
In female dogs, the entire estrous cycle spans:
4-7mos
In female cats the entire estrous cycle spans:
21 days
Bloody vulvar discharge is a sign of proestrus? (T/F)
False
The hematocrit (Packed cell volume) is the:
Volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood
After a dog is determined to be infected with heartworms, the most appropriate additional diagnostic test before starting treatment include?
Thoracic radiographs and chemistry panel
The most common risk associated with bladder catheterization via the urethra is:
bacterial infection
The earliest time in gestation that radiographs can be used to diagnose pregnancy in dogs and cats is:
45 days
Pruritis is least likey to be seen in an animal with:
Endocrine alopecia
Regurgitation is?
The expulsion of undigested food
Muscle pain is a common sign of congestive heart failure? (T/F)
False
Pruritis is least likely to be seen in an animal with which of the following?
A:Flea-allergy dermatitis, B:Demodicosis, C:Sarcoptic mange, D:Endocrine alopecia
Endrocrine Alopecia
Common signs of CHF include all of the following except?
A:Ascites, B:dyspnea, C:Exercise intolerance, D:jugulr distention, E:muscle pain
Muscle pain
And 8 week old Collie puppy has had diarrhea for 3 days and you suspect a parasite infection. Gastrointestinal parasites this puppy is most likely to have include all of the following except?
A:coccidia, B:round worms, C:whipworms, D:hookworms, E:tapeworms
Whipworms
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELIS) on serum from an apparently healthy cay is positive for feline leukemia virus infection. The most appropriate course of action is to?
Retest the cat by ELISA or indirect fluorescent antibody test in 1 month or later
Drug given to dogs by careful intravenous injection to kill adult heartworm is:
Thiacetarsamide
Major side effects of thiacetarsamide are?
Hepatic and renal toxicity
In cats, all of the following diseases may directly cause upper respiratory disease except:
A:Rhinotracheitis, B:Calicivirus infection, C:Chlamyhdial infection, D:Bacterial rhinitis
Chlamyhdial infection
A 3-year-old Golden Retriever is receiving 1 grain of Phenobarbital every 12 hours for epilepsy. One grain is equivalent to:
65mg
A 28# cocker spaniel has CHF and requires furosemide per os at 2mg/kg of body weight BID. At this dosage, this dog should be given:
25mg every 12 hours
A 55# dog develops acute pulmonary edema. The vet orderd treatment with 5% furosemide IV at 2mg/kg of body weight. What quantity of furosemide should you give?
1ml
A 28# mongrel has been vomiting for 3 days and is estimated to be 8% dehydrated. What approximate fluid volume should you give to rehydrate this dog?
1000ml
When administering IV fluids to a cat or dog, care must be taken to monitor for overhydration. The best initial indicator of overhydration is:
Continued weight gain after the animal has been rehydrates appropiately
You are using a microdrip to administer IV fluids to a cat. The cat must receive 360ml of fluid during a 24 hour period. At what rate should the fluid be infused?
15drops/min
You are attempting to infuse IV fluids to a cat, but the fluid is not flowing well. Which of the following is least likely to cause this problem?
A:the infusion line is kinked, B:the vein is obstruced, C:the bottle is held above the level of the vein, D:the needle or cath has become dislodged from the vein
The bottle is held above the level of the vein
In addition to IV administration, routes of fluid administration in small animals include all of the following except:
A:Per os, B:intraperitoneal, C:subcontaneous, D:intrathoracic, E:intraosseous
Intrathoracic
An example of an isotonic fluid is:
0.9% saline
Nutritional support can be given to anorectic animals by any of the following except:
A:Pharyngostomy tube, B:nasosophageal tube, C:Duodenostomy tube, D:Gastrotomy tube
Duodenostomy tube
When an owner calls saying their larger dog was fine about 1hour ago then starting rectching as well well as the stomach looks distended, what is the appropriate advice to give to this client?
This could be a life-threatening emergency snd she should bring the dog to the clinic immediately
The preferred enema solution for cats and dogs is:
Warm tap water
First aid for limb fracture should include all of the following except:
A:controlling hemorrhage, B:coving up wounds with sterile dressing, C:realigning the bone fragments, D:immobalizing the limb
Realigning the bone fragments
The anticonvuslant preferred for long term seizure control in dogs is:
Phenobarbital
In cats, a deficiency of which nutrient can cause central retinal degeneration?
Taurine
Which species normally has the highest urine specific gravity (1.065) of the following?
A:horses, B:cattle, C:pigs, D:cats, E:dogs
Cats
Careless application of a tourniquet to a limb during onychectomy in a cat may result in:
Temporary radial nerve paralysis
The most common cryogenic agent used in vet medicine is:
Liquid nitrogen
What is the appropriate treatment for a puppy with 2day duration of diarrhea with unknown origin?
Bland diet
What is the most common manifestiation/problem of transfusion with incompatible blood in cats?
Resp arrest
How long affter getting a panleukipenia vx should an owner wait to bring the kitten into a contaminated house?
2 weeks
Ferrets are highly susceptible to:
canine distemper
What is the gestation period for ferrets?
42days
What is the gestation period for a llama?
330-360days
Snakes usually only have a single functioning:
Lung
What type of gastointestinal system do giraffes have?
Foregut fermentation with 4 forestomachs, similar to cattle
From birth to weaning, a young llama is called a:
Cria
To aviod skin problems chinchillas should be provided with?
With dust baths and a cool, dry environment
female guinea pigs should be bred before 6-9 months to prevent:
permanent fusion of pelvic symphysis
The digestive system of elephants is similar to that of:
Horses
how often do rabbits normally nurse their young?
SID
the gestation length of a guinea pig is:
63days
WHich of the following species bears young that are percocial?
A:rat, B:mouse, C:gerbal, D:guinea pig
Guinea pig
Which of the following has the longest gestation period?
A:mouse, B;rat, C:guinea pig, D:chinchilla, E:hamster
Chinichilla
As you enter an ostrich enclosure, a male develops a spiral appearance to the neck. This is sign of:
Aggression
In nonhuman primates, venous blood is most easily collected from the:
Femoral vein
Penicillin and other penicillin-like antibiotics are NOT recommended for use in rodents and lagomorphs(rabitts, hares) because:
They posses Gram-positive gut microorganisms; elimination of these organisms may result in fatal colibacillosis
What nutrient is not synthesized by guinea pigs?
Vitamin C
Medical records:
Are essential for the defense of civil or criminal suits for malpractice
when are medical records considered invalid?
When records have been altered
When is maintenance of a written record/log required by federal law?
Dispensing of controlled substances
Clients are most likely to stop patronizing a particular vet practice because of:
perceived lack of concern by the staff
The major reason cited by employees who quit working for a practice is:
Lack of reconition
Used to scale below the gum line?
Curette
In horses, dental prophylaxis (floating) is recommended to:
maintain normal occlusion
In nonhuman primates, venous blood is most easily collected from the:
Femoral vein
Penicillin and other Penicillin-like antibiotics are NOT recommended for the use in rodents and lagomorphs (rabbits, hares) because:
they possess Gram-positive gut microorganisms; elimination of these organisums may result in fatal colibacillosis
Which nutrient is not synthesized by guinea pigs?
Vitamin C
Are essential for the defence of civil or criminal suits for malpractice
Medical Records
Medical records are considered legally valid unless
they have been altered
Is financial information and credit card info a problem with medical records?
Normaly NOT a problem orented with medical records
You need a written record /log required be federal law for what?
Controlled Substances
Clients are most likely to stop patronizing a particular veterinary practice because of
Perceived lack of concern by the staff
Clients patronize a veterinary practice for 2 main reasons: to resolve their animal's health problems and to:
Feel that they are providing excellent care for their animal
In interacting with a client, a crucial point on the interaction is:
Any aspect of the interaction that forms the clinet's opinion about your practice
The major reason cited by employees who quit working for a practice is
Lack of recognition
Used to scale below the gum line (subgingival):
Curette
In horses, dental prophylaxis (floating) is recommended to
maintain normal occlusion
In horses, dental calculus
develops when their is malocclusion
A horse's teeth should be floated
Every year or more frequently, depending on diet
You make a radiograph of a dog's pelvis that measures 16cm in diameter. You manually process the film for 5 min in the developer and 10 mins in the fixer. The radiograph is too dark. What is the most likely reason the film turned out too dark
Chemicals were 73 degrees F
Which technique produces an image with the greatest radiographic density
200mA, 1/10sec
What happens when radiographic film is stored past the expiration date listed on the carton
The film becomes fogged
Which grid requires the highest exposure technique
15:1
You make a radiograph using 10 mAs and 60kVp. You decide to double the radiographic density for a second film. Which technique should you use
200mA, 0.10sec, 60kVp
When making vertebral radiographs, it is important to collimate the beam down to the width of the vertebra. Why is this necessary
Collimation reduces scatter radiation
Why are screens used in veterinary radiography
screens do not require as much radiation to produce the same radiographic density as direct exposure film
mAs controls the
quantity of electrons emitted
Why should a radiation film badge be worn at collar level
to monitor exosure of the thyroid gland and lenses of the eye
What element clears the remaining silver halide crystals from exposed x-ray fil
Fixer
When radiographing the thorax, when should the x-ray film be exposed
Peak inspiration
Which of the following controls the contrast on the radiograph
kVp
A clear strip at the top of a manually processed film may be caused by
low developer level
What is the maximum intensity of the safelight on developing rooms
7.5 watts
If mAs is used to decrease radiographic density, by how much must 40 mAs be decreased to half the density
20 mAs
If your focal-film distance is increased from 36 inches to 72 inches, how must the mAs be adjusted to maintain the same radiographic density
decraesed by a factor of 8
Which technique would produce an abdominal radiograph with the greatest contrast
16mAs, 46 kVp
A radiograph made using 20 mAs and 80 kVp is too dark. Which technique is reasonable to use for the second attempt
10 mAs, 80 kVp
In comparison with low-mAs, high kVp techniques, high-mAs, low kVp techniques are recommended for abdominal radiography in dogs because high-mAs, low-kVp techniques
produce radiographs of higher contrast
The length of a quarantine period in disease control is based on the
Incubation period
Screening for heartworm microfilariae in dogs and treatment to remove adult heartworms and microfilariae from infected dogs before signs of cardiopulmonary disease develop are an example of
Secondary prevention
The capacity of an agent to cause disease in a susceptible host defines its
Virulence
The species or environment in which a pathogenic organism is maintained and upon which the organism depends for survival is called a
Reservoir
An infection that results in NO perceptible slinical signs is called
an inapparent infection
In a herd of 120 llamas, 75 have had diarrhea and comiting within the last 24 hours. All of the animals were normal 48 hours ago. Only adult animals are affected. The most likely source of the outbreak is
Exposure to a common source
Arthropods that transmit microorganisms from one animal to another without multiplication or maturation of the microorganisms in the arthropod are known as
Mechanical vectors
Animals that begin shedding an infectious agent before showing clinical signs are known as
Incubatory carriers
The place from which an etiologic agent passes directly to a susceptible host is known as the
Source
Food-borne Clostridium perfringens infection in people is usually associated with
Institutions or commercial food sites where many people handle a food before it is served and where larger quantities are prepared
Brucellosis (undulant fever) in people results most commonly from
Occupational exposure and drinking unpasteurized milk
Animals are legally classified as
Personal property
If a client's dog bites the client while a veterinarian is examing the animal
The vet could be held liable for the client's injuries if the vet knew the dog was dangerous and asked the client to restrain it anyway
Under the Federal Controlled Substance Act
Schedule-I drugs have a high human abuse potential and are currently not accepted for use in treatment in the US
A particularly common source of malpractice suits against practitioners involves
Injury of clients while they are physically restraining their animals
The red blood cells of animals with iron-deficiency anemia are classically
Hypochromic and microcytic
Dehydration is characterized by
Increased packed cell volume and increased plasma protein level
Variation in erythrocyte size on blood smears is called
Anisocytosis
Variation in erythrocyte shape on a blood smear is called
Poikilocytosis
A leukocyte with a nucleus in the shape of a "spoked wheel" is called
Plasma cell
The test for erythrocyte antiglobulin is called the
Comb's Test
Monocytosis is a characteristic sign of
systemic inflammatory response
Which blood cells have the longest lifespan
Erythrocytes
Toxic anemia caused by oxidant drugs or toxins is characterized by deposits of denatured hemoglobin called
Heinz bodies
Tropical pancytopenia is a tick-borne rickettsial infection known as
Ehrlichiosis
The most severe inherited coagulation defect of companion animals is
Von Willebrand's disease
Platelet adhesion, an important initial event in the control of bleeding, is primarily mediated by
Von Willebrand factor
The most common inherited bleeding disorder of people and dogs is
Von Wilebrand's disease
The inheritance pattern of hemophilia is
Sex-linked recessive
A common cause of bleeding tendency in aged patients is
Platelet dysfunction secondary to uremia (end-stage kidney disease)
Parvovirus infection in people and animals can produce
Transient bone marrow failure
Fibrin clot formation is the result of
Thrombin interaction with fibrinogen
Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors are synthesized in the
Liver
The dog breed most commonly affected with Von Willebrand's disease is the
Doberman Pinscher
A typical sign of thrombocytopenic bleeding is
Petechiae and eccymoses
The classic sign of bleeding in animals with hemophilia is
hematoma formation
The characteristic type of bleeding in animals with Von Willebrand's disease involves the
Mucosal surfaces
Aspirin is used to prevent and treat thrombosis because it
Impairs platelet function
The bone marrow precursor cell of the blood platelet is the
Megakaryocyte
Which of the following is typical of fluid removed from the peritoneal cavity of a cat with effusive feline infectious peritonitis
Straw-colored, high protein fluid containing primarily neutrophils
A Coomb's test is used to help diagnose
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Which organisms are referred to as "Marginal Bodies"
Anaplasma
The major function of eosinophils is probably to
promote inflammation
A 3 week old foal with recurrent infections has normal blood lymphocyte numbers and low serum immunoglobulin levels. The most likely cause of these findings is
Failure to absorb colostrum
"Blue eye" is a complication encountered in dogs vaccinated with
Live canine adenovirus vaccine
The reaction to intradermal injection of tuberculin is an example of
delayed hypersensitivity
In animals that are allergic to penicillin, the drug molecule acts as
a Hapten
The reaction to intradermal injection of tuberculin is of maximal intensity within
48-72 hours
The most likely cause of vaccine failure in a 14 week old puppy given canine distemper vaccine is
Distemper infection before vaccination
Bacteria are cleared from the circulation mainly by
Phagocytosis by macrophages in the liver and spleen
The intestine of newborn domestic animals becomes impermeable to colostral immunoglobulins by approximately
24 hours of age
Specimens for hematologic analysis should be collected in vacuum tubes with a stopper of what color
Lavender
Before staining, blood smears should be fixed in
Methanol
The blood smear of a normal patient should have how many platelets per oil-immersion field
3-5
Which type of cell is NOT found in an avian blood smear
Neutrophil
Which of the following is a platelet precursor
Megakaryocyte
In which species are nucleated erythrocytes a normal finding
Chickens
Variation in the size of erythrocytes is known as
Anisocytosis
Abnormally shaped erythrocytes are collectively referred to as
Poikilocytosis
An abundance of eosinophils on a peripheral blood smear is most commonly associated with
Allergic conditions
If the sealant clay fails to stay in the microhematocrit tube suring centrifugation, the most likely cause is
worn tube cushions or gasket
As a minimum standard, blood collection tubes containing EDTA should be filled
Half way to the top
The most common bleeding disorders seen in companion animals are related to:
thrombocytopenia
Specimens for coagulation testing should be collected in tubes containing
sodium citrate
Which of the following is NOT a test of hemostasis
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Which technique is most likely to prevent hemolysis during blood collection
Use a small gauge needle (>21)
A microscope should be professionally cleaned
Yearly or more often, as needed
In an infected animal, life cycle stages of which parasite are LEAST likely to be found on the fecal flotation preparation
Giardia cati
Ova of Capillaria plica are most likely to be found in
Urine
The parasite that appears as a punctuate small rod-like or ring-like structure on the periphery of red blood cells in a peripheral blood smear is
Hemobartonella felis
Which method is NOT used for detection of heartworm microfilariae
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Which method is least appropriate for urine collection
aspiration of urine from a cage floor or litter box
In which type of patient should cystocentesis NOT be performed
Adult male cat with disease of the bladder wall
A normal colored but slightly opaque urine sample is most likely to contain
many white blood cells and/or phosphate crystals
A urine specimen with a "fruity" odor is most likely to contain
Acetone
What is the most common cause of erroneous results from urine testing with dipsticks
Moisture damage to the strip
When present in the urine, bilirubin can be broken down by
Exposure of the specimen to light
White blood cell casts in a urine sample suggest
Disease of the kidney
Calcium oxalate crystals in urine sediment are most often associated with
Ethylene glycol (antifreeze) toxicity
The sensitivity of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is related to the
ability to detect minimal concentrations of the antigen
A positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for feline leukemia virus (FeLV) ay indicate any of the following EXCEPT
The cat will definitely die from FeLV infection
A 7 year old outdoor male cat has a history and clinical signs strongly suggestive of heartworm infection. However, filter tests for heartworm microfilariae and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay are both negative. What is the most likely explanation
The cat may have small numbers of adult heartworms
Concerning cats whose saliva tests are positive for feline leukemia virus, which statement is most accurate
They can transmit the virus to other cats
During evening office hours you collect a blood sample from a patient. You plan to send the sample to a reference lab for a complete blood count, and realize that there will be an overnight delay before the sample is processed. So to preserve the blood cell morphology, the appropriate procedure is to immediately make a blood smear and
leave the unfixed blood smear at room temperature and refigerate the tube of blood
The white blood cell count must be corrected when a blood smear is bound to contain
Nucleated red blood cells
A 9 wk old pup has a fever, mild vomiting, diarrhea and conjunctivitis with a slight serous ocular discharge. There is no history of vaccination. The most likely cause of these signs is
Canine distemper
To confirm the diagnosis of the pup, one should
Submit a conjunctival smear for fluorescent antibody testing
After proper incubation, samples from salmonella cultures should be streaked on
Hektoen agar and brilliant green
Suspected Salmonella colonies can be reliably identified by
Serologic tests
Which microorganism does NOT form individual colonies on blood agar
Proteus
E coli and salmonella differ by
Fermentation of lactose with gas production
A 24 hour culture of a specimen from a dog shows a gram negative, motile, oxidase-positive organism with bluish-green colonies on blood agar. On the basis of general and cultural characteristics, the organism is most likely
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
The organism that produces a characteristic fruity odor when grown on blood agar is
Pasteurella
Concerning the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria, which statement is most accurate
It's the innermost membrane next to the cell wall
After the iodine step of Gram staining, Gram-positive organisms are
purple
After the acetone-alcohol step of Gram staining
Gram-negative bacteria are colorless
Anaerobic, endospore-forming, nonencapsulated bacteria are found in the genus
Clostridium
The technique of isolating bacteria in pure culture form was perfected by
Robert Koch
What component of a MacConkey agar makes this medium selective for Gram-negative organisms
Bile salts
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an exotoxin
Heat stable