Exam 2

Front 1

Accommodation for near and far vision is accomplished by contraction and relaxation of muscles in the:

Back 1

Ciliary body

Front 2

In a normal dog or cat, an incision through the ventral abdominal wall into the peritoneal cavity, between the umbilicus and urinary bladder, would first reveal the:

Back 2

Greater omentum

Front 3

Anal sacs:

Back 3

Are situated between the external and internal anal sphincters

Front 4

The middle ear cavity normally drains into the:

Back 4

Nasopharynx

Front 5

A tear or rip in a dog's thoracic diaphragm, between the diaphragmatic openings of the esophagus and caudal vena cave, would most likely permit:

Back 5

Liver lobes to enter the right pleural cavitiy

Front 6

In a normal animal, a substance injected into the left external jugular vein would pass sequentially through the:

Back 6

Right atrium, right ventrical, pulmonary trunk, lung, pulmonary veins and the left atrium

Front 7

Which portion of the heart is most closely adjacent to the dome of the thoracic diaphragm?

Back 7

Left ventrical

Front 8

Which structure is NOT contained within the mediastinum?

Back 8

Thoracic portion of the caudal vena cava

Front 9

The hoof recieves its nutrient blood supply via the:

Back 9

Corium

Front 10

An obstruction of the left atrioventricular (mitral) valve would first be manifested as retrograded accumulation of blood in the:

Back 10

Lungs

Front 11

In domestic ruminants, the relative size of the omasum varies. Concerning the size of the omasum and reticulum, which statement is most accurate?
A:The omasum is larger then the reticulum in cattle but smaller than the reticulum in sheep and goats, B:the omasum is approx. 1/2 as large as the reticulum in cattle, C:The omasum and reticulum are equal size in all ruminants

Back 11

The omasum is larger the reticulum in cattle but smaller then the reticulum in sheep and goats

Front 12

What is the "true" or "glandular" stomach in ruminants and does not form a part of the forestomach?

Back 12

Abomasum

Front 13

Stenosis (occlusion) of which heart valve is most likely to cause an immediate backflow of blood into the lungs in ruminants?

Back 13

Left atrioventricular valve

Front 14

What tissue is normally vascular?

Back 14

Bone

Front 15

When using an O2 flow meter, gas flow should be read at the:

Back 15

Center of the ball or the top of the other indicators

Front 16

in comparing the effects of acepromazine and xylazine

Back 16

xylazine produces a profound analgesia and deep sedation

Front 17

in which species are opiates most likely to cause an excitatory response (2)

Back 17

cats and horses

Front 18

atropine

Back 18

anticholinergic acting centrally and peripherally, generally preventing bradycardia caused by vasovagal reflexes

Front 19

an agent that can be given IV for humane euthanasia of dogs

Back 19

sodium pentobarbital

Front 20

10% soln thiopental contains drug concentration of

Back 20

100 mg/ml

Front 21

apneustic breathing

Back 21

deep, gasping inspiration with pause at full inspiration followed by brief, insufficient release (keep trying to inhale)

Front 22

cheyne-stokes breathing

Back 22

few shallow breaths followed by increasingly deep breaths

Front 23

hyperventilation

Back 23

faster and/or deeper than necessary

Front 24

agent most likely to produce adequate chemical restraint of vicious dogs is

Back 24

morphine with acepromazine

Front 25

innovar-vet is a combination of

Back 25

droperidol and fentanyl

Front 26

drug that is a complete narcotic antagonist

Back 26

naloxone

Front 27

drug that is most potent analgesic

Back 27

fentanyl

Front 28

how many lumbar vertebrae does a dog have

Back 28

7

Front 29

resting heart rate for thoroughbred horse

Back 29

28-40 beats/min

Front 30

in rabbits, injectable anesthetics are best injected into the

Back 30

auricular vein (ear)

Front 31

analgesia

Back 31

abolition of the awareness of pain

Front 32

deep anesthesia w/isoflurane generally depresses ventilation and causes CO2 retention. Clinical management of this problem should include

Back 32

lighter plane of anesthesia and assisted or controlled ventilation

Front 33

shock is initially treated with

Back 33

rapid infustion of fluids

Front 34

all anesthetic machines should be equipped with

Back 34

a waste gas scavenging system

Front 35

one ml of 10% soln of a drug contains how many mgs of that drug

Back 35

100 mg/ml

Front 36

breed of cat that is most likely to chew or suck woolen cloth is

Back 36

siamese

Front 37

dairy cow mounting another cow

Back 37

arrange for insemination of mouted cow immediately, and the mounting cow in a few days

Front 38

pushing ventrally on a sow's back may reflexly evoke a rigid stance, indicates that the sow is

Back 38

in estrus

Front 39

mare is most likely to reject attempted suckling by newborn foal

Back 39

at first foaling

Front 40

"tail bob" or "tail jerk" is a sign of

Back 40

respiratory difficulty

Front 41

psittacine beak and feather disease is

Back 41

progressive dz that is ultimately fatal

Front 42

yellow-naped amazon parrot develops depression, anorexia and "lime-green" droppings. lab abnormalities include high WBC, increased serum activity of liver derived enzymes, slight anemia. most appropriate diagnostic test

Back 42

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for Chlamydia

Front 43

bird vxn commercially availabe for prevention of (2)

Back 43

poxviral infection and pacheco's dz

Front 44

in pet psittacine, most common toxicosis results from ingestion of

Back 44

lead or lead coated articles

Front 45

fluid maintenance requirement of birds

Back 45

50 ml/kg/day

Front 46

fluid therapy can be most appropriately provided to a severely dehydrated bird through

Back 46

intraosseous cannulation

Front 47

most common tumor of pet birds is

Back 47

lipoma

Front 48

continuous egg laying in cockatiels is prevented by

Back 48

hysterectomy

Front 49

in amazon parrot, barium sulfate administered by crop tube usually enter the cloaca within

Back 49

150 min

Front 50

primary feathers of birds are

Back 50

flight feathers that originate from the carpal area

Front 51

how often does the rumen contract in cattle

Back 51

1 - 2 times/min

Front 52

in adult cattle, what area can skin be pinched to best determine the state of hydration

Back 52

dorsal to the eye

Front 53

in addition to dehydration, what is another common cause of severely sunken eyes in cattle

Back 53

severe wt loss

Front 54

what method is most commonly used to restrain adult cattle for coccygeal (tail) venipuncture

Back 54

tail jack

Front 55

adult cattle, what is the largest volume of injectable soln that should be given IM at any single site

Back 55

15-20 ml

Front 56

adult goats, what is the largest volume of injectable soln that should be given IM at any single site

Back 56

5 - 10 ml

Front 57

CA mastitis test is based upon detection of

Back 57

somatic cells in milk

Front 58

best time of day to infuse antibacterials into the udder of cow is

Back 58

after the last milking of day

Front 59

which veins are most commonly used for blood collection in swine

Back 59

jugular, cranial vena cava

Front 60

which vein is most accessible and most commonly used to collect blood from goats, sheep, and young calves

Back 60

jugular vein

Front 61

milk fever in dairy cattle is caused by

Back 61

hypocalcemia

Front 62

milk fever is most likely to occur

Back 62

1 - 3 days after calving

Front 63

another term for milk fever is

Back 63

parturient paresis

Front 64

typical signs of milk fever (3)

Back 64

hypothermia, recumbency, cold extremities

Front 65

johne's disease

Back 65

contagious bacterial disease of the intestinal tract - hoofed animals

Front 66

appropriate management of cattle with Johne's dz

Back 66

cull infected cattle

Front 67

how is Johne's dz transmitted

Back 67

fecal - oral route

Front 68

why is bloat in cattle an ER situation

Back 68

gas accumulation can impair respiration

Front 69

what is the most obvious visual sign of bloat in cattle

Back 69

distention of left paralumbar fossa

Front 70

bloat can sometimes be treated nonsurgically by

Back 70

passage of an orogastric tube

Front 71

mature bulls should never be vaccinated against

Back 71

brucellosis

Front 72

sheep infection known as "sore mouth", humans known as "orf", what is scientific name

Back 72

contagious ecthyma

Front 73

the practice of feeding extra grain to ewes just before breeding is called

Back 73

flushing

Front 74

enterotoxemia in feedlot lambs is commonly referred to as

Back 74

overeating disease

Front 75

IV fluids used to treat severely diarrheic, dehydrated calves should include

Back 75

sodium chloride

Front 76

which dz is most common in newborn piglets

Back 76

iron deficiency

Front 77

primary clinical sign of iodine deficiency in goats is

Back 77

birth of dead, weak, or prematrue kids with scant hair coat and goiter (enlarged thyroid gland)

Front 78

what is the most specific sign of GI dysfunction in a cow

Back 78

abnormal rumination

Front 79

teeth of horses tend to wear unevenly. on the cheek teeth this results in formation of

Back 79

points

Front 80

based on wearing patterns in horse teeth, which portions of the occlusal (masticating side) of the premolars and molars require floating

Back 80

buccal maxillary, lingual mandibular
(cheek upper jaw, tounge lower jaw)

Front 81

most female horses have 36 teeth, most males have 40. what are the 4 extra teeth

Back 81

4 more canines

Front 82

which parasite can be detected by microscopic examination of cellophane tape that has been applied to hair around the anal area

Back 82

oxyuris equi (pinworm)

Front 83

if pregnant mare not vaccinated 1 month before parturition, newborn foal should be vaccinated with

Back 83

tetanus antitoxin

Front 84

equine infections anemia (EIA) is commonly known as

Back 84

swamp fever

Front 85

recommended tx for horse clinically ill with EIA

Back 85

euthanasia

Front 86

coggin's test used to diagnose

Back 86

EIA

Front 87

horseman's term used to describe laryngeal hemiplegia (half-paralized)

Back 87

roaring

Front 88

equine encephalomyelitis (inflammation of brain and spinal cord) is commonly known as

Back 88

sleeping sickness

Front 89

what is the tx for neonatal foals deficient in maternal antibodies

Back 89

IV plasma transfusion

Front 90

which horse breed is most commonly affected by combined immunodeficiency

Back 90

arabia

Front 91

which dz of newborn foals is very similar to the "blue baby" syndrome in human infants involving Rh factors

Back 91

neonatal isoerythrolysis

Front 92

after a foal's birth, maternal immunoglobulins are no longer present in the mare's milk by

Back 92

24 hrs

Front 93

the species with a high prevalence of spontaneous sz is

Back 93

gerbil