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60 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
point a
Which point on the graph below represents a magma that, if cooled, would most likely form basalt?

A) point a


B) point b


C) point c

point b
Which point on the graph below represents a magma that, if cooled, would most likely form andesite?

A) point a


B) point b


C) point c

Shield Volcano

Hawaii is an example of this type feature.

A) Stratovolcano


B) Shield volcano


C) Cinder cone


D) All of the above


E) None of the above

The Pacific northwest because of the convergent plate boundary there.
Which region in the continental U.S. has the highest hazard associated with volcanoesand why?

A) Southern California because of the transform plate boundary there.


B) Southern California because of the convergent plate boundary there.


C) The Pacific northwest because of the convergent plate boundary there.


D) Southwestern Ohio because of the lack of volcanoes there.


E) The Pacific northwest because of the transform plate boundary there.

It is a stratovolcano that exploded when trapped gasses were quickly released.
What type of volcano is Mount St. Helens and what caused the explosion?

A) It is a stratovolcano that exploded when trapped gasses were slowly released.


B) It is a shield volcano that exploded when trapped gasses were quickly released.


C) It is a shield volcano that exploded when trapped gasses were slowly released.


D) It is a stratovolcano that exploded when trapped gasses were quickly released.


E) It is a cinder cone that exploded when trapped gasses were quickly released.

All of the above
What evidence indicated that Mount St. Helens was going to erupt?

A) Earthquakes


B) Gas emissions


C) Changing shape


D) All of the above


E) None of the above

Prevailing winds carried the ash thousands of kilometers
People several thousands of kilometers away from Mount St. Helens experienced ash fall associated with its eruption in 1980. Why? What process(es) is(are) to blame?

A) Lahars carried the ash thousands of kilometers


B) The lateral blast ejected the ash thousands of kilometers


C) Prevailing winds carried the ash thousands of kilometers


D) All of the above


E) None of the above

200 meters
During mountain building, as crustal thickness increases, some of the added thickness goes into deepening the root, and some adds to the height of the mountain range. By approximately how much do mountains rise with each addition of 1000 meters of crustal thickness?

A) 1 meter


B) 10 meters


C) 100 meters


D) 200 meters


E) 500 meters

False

High viscosity lava flows faster than low viscosity lava.

A) True


B) False

adding water lowers the melting temperature of rock
How does adding water to rock change the rock’s melting temperature?

A) adding water lowers the melting temperature of rock


B) adding water raises the melting temperature of a rock

1,000
The amount of seismic energy released by a Moment magnitude 5 earthquake is ap-proximately times smaller than the energy released by magnitude 7 earthquake.

A) 10,000


B) 1,000


C) 100


D) 10


E) 2

True

Intraplate earthquakes, though rare, can produce large areas of high-intensity shaking, unlike earthquakes near plate boundaries.

A) True


B) False

P wave first, then S wave, then surface waves
What is the correct order of arrival time of the three basic types of seismic waves?

A) S wave first, then P wave, then surface wavesB) surface waves first, then P wave, then S wave C) surface waves first, then S wave, then P wave D) P wave first, then S wave, then surface waves E) S wave first, then surface waves, then P wave

the point on the fault surface where seismic energy is first released.
The focus of an earthquake is

A) the point on the Earth’s surface where seismic energy is first released.


B) the region of greatest damage during an earthquake.


C) the point on the Earth’s surface directly above the epicenter.


D) the point on the fault surface where seismic energy is first released.

1-2 hours
Say you live on the coastline of an ocean basin within which authorities have installed atsunamiwarningsystem. Further, sayyoureceivea warning thatasub-marine earthquake 600 miles from your location has generated a tsunami. Approximately how much time do you have before the tsunami reaches your shore?

A) a few seconds


B) a few minutes


C) 1-2 hours


D) days


E) a few milliseconds

elastic rebound
What is the theory for how earthquakes work, wherein rocks are strained and then suddenly break?

A) plate tectonics


B) cyclogenesis


C) seismology


D) epidemiology


E) elastic rebound

Granite
Which one of these is a high silica rock that cooled slowly, likely having visible crystals?

A) Granite


B) Rhyolite


C) Basalt


D) Gabbro


E) Biotite

Basalt
Which one of these is a low silica rock that cooled quickly?

A) Granite


B) Rhyolite


C) Basalt


D) Gabbro


E) Biotite

Clastic
Suppose you pick up a rock that formed from the sediments of weathered rocks. What type of rock have you found?

A) Clastic


B) Chemical


C) Biochemical


D) Igneous


E) Metamorphic

Chemical
Suppose you are told that the area where you lived was once a shallow sea that evap-orated. What kind of rock are you most likely to find that is related to that time?

A) Clastic


B) Chemical


C) Biochemical


D) Igneous


E) Metamorphic

Metamorphic
Rocks that are formed by the crystallization of new minerals in the solid state (i.e. without melting) due to high heat and/or pressure are

A) Sedimentary


B) Metamorphic


C) Igneous


D) Molten

Organic in origin
In order for a substance to be considered a mineral it must have all of the followingcharacteristics except

A) Solid


B) Naturally occurring


C) Definite chemical composition


D) Orderly internal arrangement of atoms


E) Organic in origin

Weathering, transport, deposition, and lithification
Which processes would change an igneous rock to a sedimentary rock?

A) Weathering, transport, deposition, and lithification


B) Melting and crystallization


C) Exposure to extreme temperature and pressure


D) all of the above

False
Plutonic, or intrusive, rocks form at or very near the Earth’s surface.

A) True


B) False

silicates
Muscovite, Biotite, Quartz, Feldspar, Pyroxene and Olivine are all part of which min-eral group

A) sulfates


B) native elements


C) oxides


D) carbonates


E) silicates

150-300 km
Say a 15 km diameter meteorite collided with Earth. How large would the diameter of the resulting cater be?

A) 1.5-3 km


B) 15-30 km


C) 150-300 km


D) 1,500-3,000 km

Torino
Which scale predicts the potential threat posed by an asteroid impact?

A) Richter


B) Fujita


C) Modified Mercalli Intensity


D) Torino


E) Celsius

Changes in climate
Suppose a very large asteroid impacted on the opposite side of the earth from where you live. What characteristic of the impact is probably most threatening to your life?

A) Changes in climate


B) Air blast


C) Fireball


D) Wildfires

False

Complex craters, those with a central peak, tend to be smaller in diameter than simple craters.

A) True


B) False

unconformity

What term refers to breaks in the geologic rock record which represent times of non-deposition or erosion?


A) phaneritic


B) unconformity


C) porphyritic


D) isomorphism


E) continuity

True

Paleontologists have examined the fossil record to determine that over 99% of all species that ever existed are now extinct.

A) True


B) False

superposition
Looking at figure 1, which relative time principle assumes that rock layer 6 is younger than rock layer 5?

A) inclusions


B) cross-cutting


C) original horizontality


D) superposition

cross-cutting
Looking at figure 1, which relative time principle assumes that the magma chamber is younger than rock layers 1-5?

A) inclusions


B) cross-cutting


C) original horizontality


D) superposition

About 500 million years ago
When do large numbers of fossils first appear in the geologic record?

A) About 4.6 billion years ago


B) About 2 billion years ago


C) About 500 million years ago


D) About 65 million years ago


E) About 3 million years ago

About 65 million years ago
Approximately when did dinosaurs, exclusive of birds, become extinct?

A) About 4.6 billion years ago


B) About 2 billion years ago


C) About 500 million years ago


D) About 65 million years ago


E) About 3 million years ago

The number of neutrons in the nucleus
What distinguishes the different isotopes of a particular element?

A) The number of protons in the nucleus


B) The number of neutrons in the nucleus


C) The number of electrons orbiting the nucleus D) All of the above


E) None of the above

Their half lives do not change over time
Why are radioactive elements useful for determining the ages of rocks?

A) Their half lives are sensitive to the environment that the rock has experienced


B) Their half lives increase predictably over time C) Their half lives do not change over time


D) Their half lives decrease predictably over time

200,000
If radioactive decay begins with 800,000 parent isotopes atoms, how many will be left after two half-lives?

A) 800,000


B) 400,000


C) 200,000


D) 100,000


E) 50,000

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
What is the order of planets, from closest to the Sun to furthest from the Sun?

A) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.


B) Mercury, Earth, Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.


C) Mercury, Mars, Earth, Venus, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune.


D) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune

the rotational (spin) axis of Earth is tilted with respect to the plane of Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
The primary reason there are seasons on Earth is because

A) the rotational (spin) axis of Earth is tilted with respect to the plane ofEarth’s orbit around the Sun.


B) Earth spins with retrograde (backward) motion relative to the other planets in the solar system.


C) Earth’s orbit changes shape on the timescale of one year


D) both (B) and (C)

nuclear fusion
Energy emitted by the Sun is produced by

A) the burning of carbon


B) a supernova explosion


C) nuclear fusion


D) radioactive decay


E) oxidation of sugar

Hydrogen
________________ is the most abundant element in the Sun.

A) Hydrogen


B) Glucosamine


C) Oxygen


D) Silicon


E) Carbon

False
Earth’s temperature would be higher if there were less carbon dioxide in the atmo-sphere.

A) True


B) False

the velocity of stream A is three times that of stream B
Two rivers have the same cross sectional area. Stream A has three times the dischargeas stream B, which tells us that

A) the velocity of stream B is three times that of stream A


B) the velocity of stream A is three times that of stream B


C) the velocity of both streams are the same

Just as likely as it was this year.
A 50-year flood occurs this year in a stream near where you live. How likely is thatanother 50-year flood will occur next year?

A) Just as likely as it was this year.


B) Not likely for the next 50 years.


C) More likely than this year.

False
After the installation of a flood-control dam, annual peak discharge will increase down-stream of the dam.

A) True


B) False

bed
Where would gravel normally be carried in a stream: as part of the suspended, dissolved, or bed load?

A) suspended


B) dissolved


C) bed

hydrograph
Figure 2 is an example of a

A) hydrograph


B) longitudinal profile


C) urbanization graph


D) flood frequency curve

House A
Houses A and B are identical in terms or their size, features, and price. House A is located on the point-bar side of a meandering stream. House B is located on the cut-bank side of the same stream. Which house would be the better long-term investment?

A) House A


B) House B


C) Both houses have the same long-term value

stage
The height of the upper surface of the river water, relative to a fixed elevation (or datum), is known as a river’s

A) discharge


B) load


C) stage


D) capacity


E) base level

the elevation where a river cannot flow further or erode deeper
A river’s base level is:

A) the location in a river where water is continuously present and the main current flows


B) the elevation where a river cannot flow further or erode deeper


C) the amount of water flowing in a river at any given time


D) an area where surface runo↵ from rain flows together towards lower areas


E) where tributaries merge into a watershed’s main river

Increases flood hazards by both reducing floodplain storage capacity and increasing surface runoff.
Urbanization in a floodplain

A) Has no effect on flood hazards


B) Reduces flood hazards by preventing infiltration


C) Increases flood hazards by both reducing floodplain storage capacity and increasing surface runoff.


D) Never occurs because it is unsafe

True

Inductive reasoning uses specific observations to reach a general conclusion.

A) True


B) False

False

A scientific hypothesis is supported by more scientific observation and research than a theory.

A) True


B) False

Science is the process of discovery.
Which statement best describes science?

A) Science is the quest for ultimate truth.


B) Science is a large static body of factual knowledge.


C) Science is the process of discovery.

at subduction zones
Where is seafloor returned to the mantle?

A) mid-ocean ridges


B) along transform boundaries


C) at subduction zones


D) at continent-continent collisions

1-10 centimeters per year
Lithospheric plates move at approximately what speed?

A) 1-10 micrometers per year (one micrometer = 1 millionth of a meter)


B) 1-10 centimeters per year


C) 1-10 meters per year


D) 1-10 km per year

VII (Himalaya mountains)
Which of the following (labeled with roman numerals in Figure 3) is an example of continent-continent collision zone, a type of convergent plate boundary? (Choose the best option)

A) VII (Himalaya mountains)


B) VI (East African rift)


C) III (Peru-Chile trench & Andes mountains)


D) IV (mid-ocean ridge)

both (B) and (C)
Which of the following areas (labeled with roman numerals in Figure 3) are examples of divergent plate boundaries? (Choose the best option)

A) I (Aleutian trench)


B) IV (mid-ocean ridge)


C) VI (East African rift) D) II (San Andreas fault zone)


E) both (B) and (C)

II (San Andreas fault zone)
Which of the following areas (labeled with roman numerals in Figure 3) is an example of a transform, or stike-slip, boundary? (Choose the best option)

A) I (Aleutian trench)


B) IV (mid-ocean ridge)


C) VI (East African rift)


D) II (San Andreas fault zone)


E) both (B) and (C)