Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
595 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What was the Congressional Act that prohibited unlawful discrimination for private employers, labor unions, and employment agencies?
|
The Civil Rights Act of 1964
|
|
In what year did the AF became the model EO program by combining civilian and military EO offices in as a result of a 21st Century Initiative (AFSO21).
|
2008
|
|
Before 1970, the military saw sit-ins, disturbances, and demonstrations of the ‘60's as what?
|
Civilian problems. |
|
The first race relations training occurred in August of 1972 and was an 18 hour mandatory training focused on what?
|
Institutional and personal insensitivity, personal prejudice, and unconscious bigotry. |
|
The5 principles of an effective EO system are command commitment &accountability; effective training; _______________
|
prompt, thorough & fair complaints handling; services distinctness; and clarity of policy and law
|
|
TheDOD EO Policy ensures service members are afforded an environment free ofbarriers that prevent them from rising to the highest level of responsibilitypossible based on _______________________ .
|
individual merit, fitness, and capability
|
|
AffirmativeAction was born in the civil rights movement and calls for _____________________
|
qualified minorities and women to be given special consideration in employment.
|
|
__________________ created diversity not available in the current construct; encourageslower represented demographics an even footing; breaks stereotypes; andattempts to make up for years of discrimination.
|
Affirmative Action
|
|
What Executive Orders affected the Affirmative Action Plan (AAP).
|
E.O.'s 8802, 10925, 11246, and 11478
|
|
E.O.10925 established ___________________.
|
President’s Committee on EEO with a mission to end discrimination employment
|
|
Regentsof the University of California v. Bakke is a landmark Supreme Court case thatdetermined what?
|
That all racial quotas were always unconstitutional. |
|
TheDOD Human Goals Charter stated the agency must recognize _______________, not an individual’s religion – to show anindividual respect.
|
individual needs, aspirations, and capabilities
|
|
How many objective are in the 1974 USAF AAP outline that impacted the militarypersonnel life cycle.
|
19 |
|
TheAir Force’s definition of diversity does not include _____________
|
Family pedigree. |
|
What does the Air Force's definition of diversity include? |
Geographic background, personal life experiences, and socioeconomic background. |
|
What are considered primary dimensions orfactors of an individual.
|
Things you can generally see, such as gender
|
|
Thereare 7 techniques used to bridge differences and build on similarities. Which one refers to acknowledging a connection between thoughtsand deeds and becoming aware of what your own thinking and assumptions are.
|
Developing mindfulness |
|
What are the 7 techniques used to bridge differences and to build on similarities?
|
Develop mindfulness, seek information, be other oriented, ask questions, develop flexibility, tolerate ambiguity, and avoid negative judgement.
|
|
What are conditions favorableto social movement?
|
Cultural drift, social disorganization, and social discontent
|
|
What is a Culturaldrift?
|
A gradual, vast, sweeping change in the values or behavior in society, like the civil rights movement.
|
|
What is at the heart of culture.
|
- Languageis at the heart of culture. |
|
What is a movement of people from one place to another for the purpose of takingresidence. |
Migration |
|
What was first passed in 1666 to limit the privileges of becomingcitizens to foreign-born Protestants. |
- TheNaturalization Act |
|
What did President Truman sign in 1948 tointegrate the armed forces? |
E.O. 9981
|
|
Themilitary bases of unlawful discrimination are what?
|
race, color, religion, national origin, sex, sexual orientation, sexual harassment.
|
|
GordonAllport’s 5 levels of prejudice from lowest to highest are ________________?
|
antilocution, avoidance, discrimination, physical attack, and extermination.
|
|
In1986, the Supreme Court laws recognized sexual harassment as a form of what?
|
sex discrimination.
|
|
TheAir Force Course, EO-2000 Awareness focuses on the roles and responsibilitiesof commanders, supervisors, and subordinates when responding to issuesinvolving sexual harassment, subtle discrimination, and extremist groups with what goal?
|
The goal was to reaffirm and recommit to equal opportunity and treatment to ensure sexual harassment and discrimination did not go unchallenged.
|
|
Thebest prevention measure for eradicating sexual harassment is _____________________.
|
education and training.
|
|
In1942, the military banned all ______________ and denied them the right to enterthe military. |
homosexuals |
|
E.O.11478 prohibits what? |
discrimination and ensures equal opportunity in federal employment for all individuals. |
|
Itis important that members of your installation understand the EO program isabout __________.
|
prevention, promotion, and fairness.
|
|
What are recommended ways toearn the commander’s trust of you as an EOA?
|
Being a good listener, presenting all options, giving recommendations based on policy, and allowing the best solution to be selected
|
|
What are some methods of learning that are commonmeans of a continuance of learning for progression in the EO career field. |
EO functional training workshops, EEOC Examining Conflicts in Employment Laws (EXCEL) conference, EEO seminars, courses or on-site training sessions, FDR trainings, and DOD symposiums |
|
What are the AF Core Values |
integrity first, service before self, and excellence in all we do. |
|
What is a means of monitoring unit manning as well as controlling incoming andintra-unit assignments.
|
An UMPR |
|
What is used to request a change to the unitmanpower document. |
An ACR (authorization change request) |
|
What is used to notify you when changes tothe manpower requirement record occur. |
An ACN (authorization change notification) |
|
What is theminimum grade requirement for personnel applying to enter the EO career field
|
SSgt Select.
|
|
What regulation governs the minimum retraining requirements for the EO career field.
|
- AFMAN36-2108 |
|
What are the required documents to be submitted in are-trainee final package.
|
- Thelast 3 EPRs, a Letter of Recommendation from applicants commander and EOdirector, and AF Form 422 |
|
- NonDEOMI EO volunteers may perform what activities? |
update HRE attendance, perform clerical duties, assist with set up of the classroom, and administer critiques. |
|
Anyorganization needs _________________ to function effectively.
|
clearly stated policies
|
|
Membersshould be evaluated on ________________ according to EO guidance and programs.
|
Merit, Fitness, and Capability |
|
What is used to provide prompt, fair, and impartialprocessing and resolution under 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) part 1614. |
- TheCivilian EEO Complaint Process |
|
- What made it illegal to pay different wages to men and womenif they perform equal work in the same workplace. |
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 |
|
Who is designated to takefinal action on individual complaints of discrimination and also serve as thefinal appeal authority on EO military formal complaints. |
The Director of the Air Force Review Boards Agency (SAF/MRB) |
|
- Enhancingleadership and readiness by fostering military and civilian EO programs andpositive HRE through world-class education, training, and research is themission of what? |
DEOMI. |
|
Keep commanders and complainantsapprised of clarification progress, approve HRE lesson plans, and forwardmonthly synopsis of all closed formal EO cases to Installation Commander are a few key duties of who? |
EO Director |
|
Acceptanceof the program by whom is directly related to the success orfailure of marketing the EO Program. |
installation personnel |
|
Doingyour research for marketing the EO program helps provide the commander what?
|
with good solid assessments based on facts, information, and data. |
|
- What kind of request is a written request for DOD records. |
- AFOIA request |
|
- What is a personal and fundamental right protected by the Constitution. |
- Privacy |
|
- Whenhandling PA requests, make sure EO is the _________________ |
appropriate OPR. |
|
What are some violations of PA policy. |
Failing to publish notice of a record system, disclosing an individual’s case file to unauthorized persons, obtaining access to an individual’s case file under false pretenses |
|
Whenworking with sensitive information, ________________ is the quickest method of losing your integrity and credibility. |
inappropriately releasing personal information |
|
Makesure unclassified materials are properly maintained and marked with __________________ |
FOUO on the bottom and back of each page and on the outside of the front and back cover. |
|
- What AFI governs information on intellectual property. |
AFI 51-303 |
|
- Who can you contact if you have questionsregarding copyright law information. |
SFJ and Information Management Office |
|
- Who develops the wing’s battle rhythm in the MICT program? |
- TheIGI |
|
- InMICT, EOAs are typically given the role of ___________________? |
assessor. |
|
- Anobservation in MICT is assigned the ______________ level of clarification if theobservation could have a negative mission impact. |
significant |
|
- Anobservation in MICT is assigned the minor level of clarification if theobservation __________________________ |
requires corrective action but does not result in negative mission impact. |
|
- Who is responsible for ensuring the AF IMT 3018 is certified at the endof each reporting period? |
The EO Director |
|
- What section of the 3018 identifies the grand total of all complaints broken down intospecific type and bases. |
Section II |
|
- Who is responsible for collecting EEOC Form 462 data from each installationquarterly. |
The AFPC/EO |
|
- What are NOT collected on the EEOC Form 462. |
- Classcomplains, ADEA civil action, MSPB, grievance, and breach of settlementagreements |
|
- What should you consider prior to standing up an EO office in a forwardlocation. |
You should consider the mission, how many personnel, who is there, specific services, and what MAJCOM |
|
- Theapproved annual financial execution plan is the basis for the budgetauthorization issued by ____________.
|
SAF/FMB |
|
- allocates funds to commands in amounts consistent with the apportionmentapproved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) or under a continuingresolution authority (CRA). |
HQ USAF |
|
- Who must clarify allegations of unlawful discrimination as GSU/FOBlocations.
|
GSU/FOB commander |
|
- What document binds the GSU commander with the host-base agency.
|
- Host-tenantsupport agreement |
|
What agency normally functions as the primary point of contact on host-tenant supportagreement.
|
- LRS |
|
The ________________ provides readiness information to deploy, manage,and sustain Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) operations.
|
- The MISCAP (mission capability) |
|
- Whenusing the ART, how is a position coded when no one is available to complete orfulfill the tasking.
|
a position is coded RED |
|
- Inthe ART, what is required in the event a person is not able todeploy.
|
a get well date |
|
- Asan EOA, __________________ are not considered a consistent responsibility no matterwhere you are deployed.
|
FDS briefings |
|
- Who is your best source of information for deployed EOoperations.
|
Someone who has recently returned |
|
- What are two forms of Sexual harassment
|
Quid Pro Quo and Hostile Working Environment |
|
- Militarycomplaints of unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment may be submitted tothe EO office who?
|
by Active duty military, their family members, and retirees. |
|
- Where must you refer complaints alleging reprisal
|
the IG. |
|
- Ifthe alleged offender appears distraught, displays emotional distress, orexpresses a threat of harming him/herself at the end of an interview, who must you contact? |
you must contact that individual’s commander, first shirt, supervisor, or security forces. |
|
- Who will disseminate a monthly reminder to all commander/agency chiefssoliciting information on commander worked issues (CWI) during the previous month.
|
EO Director |
|
Who makes the determination for referral or appropriate action of an alleged offender who appears distraught display emotional distress or expresses a threat of harming him/herself or others? |
Unit Commander |
|
Who must you contact if during the Article 31 the member appears to become extremely emotionally distressed or distraught? |
The subject's unit commander. |
|
Commanders must forward allegations of sexual harassment to the applicable General Courts-Martial Convening Authority (GCMCA) within how many hours? |
72 |
|
What information must you ensure are included as part of the CDI ROI? |
Key facts and supporting documentation submitted by the complainant, alleged offender, and witnesses |
|
What Air Force form is used to document the assistance you provide as a SME during a CDI? |
1271 |
|
What category of assistance is used to document EO related concerns on the 1271? |
EO General Assistance |
|
The EO Office must refer third party complaints of unlawful discrimination to who? |
Their chain of command |
|
What Air Force form is used to document Non-EO related military facilitation? |
1271 |
|
What Air Force form is used to document the vast majority of services and assistance you provide? |
1271 |
|
What is the time limit for filing an informal complaint? |
No time limit |
|
What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory and sexually harassing practices? |
Chain of Command |
|
Who possess an inherent authority to conduct inquiries into complaints/allegations of unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment? |
Commanders |
|
Who will notify the alleged offender's commander of an informal complaint filed with the EO Office? |
EOA |
|
How often must the EOA conduct follow-up actions on a complaint? |
At least every 5 duty days |
|
What form is uused to document anonymous EO complaints when there are sufficient details? |
1587-1 |
|
Who must approve EO formal complaints filed outside the 60 day time standard? |
Installation Commander |
|
Who must be immediately notified of military EO complaints against 06 or civilian equivalent? |
IG and Installation Commander |
|
You must immediately notify and refer all MEO complaints involving senior officials to who? |
SAF/IGS |
|
How many days does the SJA have to complete the legal review of the unlawful discrimination complaint clarification? |
6 duty days |
|
On a substantiated complaint, how may days does the alleged offender's unit commander have to outline action taken? |
5 duty days |
|
How many complaint allegations must be substantiated for the entire clarification report to be considered substantiated? |
At least one. |
|
What form is used to document Formal EO Complaints |
1587 |
|
When must a commanding officer forward a sexual harassment complaint or a detailed description of the allegation to the next superior officer in the chain of command who is authorized to convene a general courts martial? |
Within 72 hours |
|
The sexual harassment final report on the results of the investigation, including any action taken, must be submitted to the next superior officer within how many days after the date on which the investigation is commenced? |
20 |
|
Within how many hours after receipt of a formal complaint of sexual harassment must the clarification or investigation of the complaint begin? |
72 |
|
The EO Director may grant sexual harassment complaint clarification extensions in how many day increments? |
7 day increments |
|
Who must coordinate and approve EO complaints involving other installations? |
MAJCOM |
|
If conducting telephone interviews, when must you explain to alleged offenders their Article 31 rights, if applicable? |
Prior to conducting the interview |
|
What is the best source fro information to help you process a joint services military EO complaint? |
AFI 36-2706 |
|
Who publicizes, displays, and ensures understanding and execution of all pertinent DOD and military EO policies and programs throughout the organization? |
Commander and EO staff |
|
Who should advise complainants that they have the option of referring an EO matter to their service for resolution? |
Host service EO director |
|
How long is the pre-complaint period if the complainant selects ADR? |
90 calendar days |
|
How many days does the complainant have to file a formal complaint after receipt of the Notice of Right to File a Discrimination Complaint from the EO counselor? |
15 calendar days |
|
Who, under compliance of 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) part 1614 and EEO MD 110, is required to provide an advisement of the complainant's rights and responsibilities? |
EO Counselor |
|
How many days can the complaint process be extended if ADR is elected? |
90 |
|
The EEO limited inquiry process begins follow what? |
You initial meeting with the aggrieved person |
|
How many days can you extend the informal counseling period with consent of the complainant? |
90 Calendar |
|
What are the two components an EO counselor needs to properly frame an EEO complaint claim? |
Policy or practice being challenged and the basis of discrimination |
|
What is the objective of the limited inquiry |
Define the issues and make resolution attempts at the lowest level possible |
|
The term race refers to an individual's what? |
Origin in Africa, North and South America, Asia, Europe, and elsewhere |
|
What is not important when considering religion as a protected basis? |
Whether individual's beliefs comport to standard notions of religion or to the norms associated with established religions. |
|
What are the 6 fundamentally valuable roles that you should hone when conducting counseling sessions during the EEO inquiry? |
Educator, information giver, facilitator, translator, messenger, suggestion maker |
|
What are the 8 characteristics of a successful interviewer? |
Remain flexible, maintain control of the interview, prepare and plan, treat the parties with respect, display professionalism, listen well, does not assume the party know what s/he knows, and does not reveal what s/her knows. |
|
What are the 3 basic theories of discrimination |
Disparate impact, disparate treatment, failure to accomodate |
|
What concludes the pre-complaint process? |
The final interview |
|
During the final interview, if the complainant is not satisfied with the resloution of the dispute, tell the complainant that s/he has the right to do what? |
Pursue the claim further through the formal complaint procedure |
|
When must you submit the counselor's report to the EO director |
5 calendar days from the date the formal complaint is filed. |
|
Who reviews the formal complaint and decide whether the case should be dismissed for a procedural reason? |
EO Director |
|
The acceptance and dismissal (A&D) letter must be provided to the complainant no later than how many days from the date of filing? |
NLT 30 days |
|
What Act authorizes payment of compensatory damages in federal agencies for some types of complaints? |
Civil Rights Act of 1991 |
|
How long does the Investigation Resolutions Directorate (IRD) have to conduct its investigation of a complaint? |
180 days fro the day the complaint was formally filed |
|
The Air Force Civilian Appellate Review Office (AFCARO) provides an un-sanitized copy of the ROI to who? |
EO Director |
|
How many days does the complainant have from the receipt of the notice to request a hearing before an EEOC administrative judge (AJ) or to request a final agency decision (FAD) based on the ROI? |
30 days |
|
Who issues decisions on all federal sector appeals? |
EEOC Office of Federal Operations |
|
Who must the agency appeal for disagreements with any part of the AJ decision? |
EEOC |
|
Define mixed complaint. |
A complaint based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin,, age, disability, or retaliation related to or stemming from an action that may be appealable to the Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB) |
|
What is meant by 'election' when determining how mixed complaint cases proceed? |
Complaint filed first |
|
What is a mixed case appeal |
An appeal filed with MSPB that alleges that na appealable agency action was affected, in whole or in part, because of discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability, age, genetic information or reprisal |
|
How many days does the agency have from the date of the filing of a mixed case complaint to issue a final decision? |
120 calendar days |
|
Who can be represented in a class complaint? |
A group of employees, former employees, or applicants for employment |
|
The AJ will deny class certification if the complainant did what? |
Unduly delayed moving for certification |
|
What action must be taken if an employee first files a grievance and, thereafter, files a complaint of discrimination on the same claim? |
The complaint must be dismissed without prejudice to the complainants right to proceed through the negotiated grievance procedure. |
|
What must a complainant be advised of when his or her negotiated grievance complaint is dismissed |
His or her obligation to raise discrimination claims in the grievance process and right to appeal the final grievance decision to the commission. |
|
What are 3 guidance/references for ADR that involve payment or pertain to the monetary aspects of ADR? |
The Back Pay Act, The Civil Service Reform Act, The Civil Rights Act of 1964 |
|
Which reference is the most helpful mediation tool at your disposal for Air Force civilian disputes? |
Air Force Mediation Compendium |
|
What are the 6 standards of conduct for mediators to serve as ethical guidelines? |
Self-determination, impartiality, conflicts of interest, competency, confidentiality, quality of the process |
|
Which interest-based negotiation (IBM) area describes what the parties agree to in order to evaluate the options of a possible settlement? |
Objective criteria |
|
How often must the ADR manager review the local ADR plan? |
Seminanually |
|
What are recommended marketing avenues for ADR? |
Briefings, newsletters, articles in the base web page/paper, and pamphlets |
|
What entity is responsible for Air Force ADR policy and manages the Air Force ADR program? |
The Dispute Resolution Division of the Air Force General Counsel's Office (SAF/GCR) |
|
Who is responsible to properly manage the installation ADR program?/ |
ADR manager |
|
How many days from the time of appointment does a neutral have to conduct a military facilitation? |
15 duty days. |
|
How many hours of continued training are neutrals required to complete annually? |
8 |
|
What are the levels of voluntary certification for the ADR program? |
Level I (Basic), Level II (Intermediate), Level III (Advanced), Level IV (Master) |
|
What level of voluntary certification is most appropriate for base level? |
Level I |
|
What skill do you use as and ADR neutral to make sure you understood what was said correctly? |
Reflecting |
|
Who is typically in the room during a mediation session? |
Neutral, Complainant, respondent and representatvie |
|
What is the most popular form of ADR in use by agencies in employment-related disputes? |
Medication |
|
Who are the typical sources to request ADR services? |
Employees, commanders, supervisors, and the legal office. |
|
What is the appropriate method of ADR to resolve military complaints? |
Facilitation |
|
Who may not act as representative for a complainant during ADR? |
EO Specialist |
|
What neutral responsibility describes an ability to lead others through the mediation process? |
Take command |
|
Complete the process flow of a normal ADR process: Begin with an opening statement, followed by the parties' opening statements.... |
Joint discussion, potential caucuses, closure |
|
In the ADR process, who is required to see every mediation settlement agreement? |
Legal and Civilian Personnel |
|
The process of sharing ideas, information, and messages with other in the exchange and flow from one person to another describes what? |
Communication |
|
Posture of involvement, appropriate body movement, eye contact, and non-distracting environment are all a part of the listening skills subset of what? |
Attending skills |
|
What are the 5 distinct elements of the communication process? |
Sender, message, receiver, feedback, and potential barriers. |
|
With regards to potential communication barriers, what type of barrier contains factors within the message, sender, or receiver that cause distortion? |
Perceptual (Also know culture and language, physical, and emotional) |
|
The FOCUS principle of effective communication stands for Focus, Organization, Clarity, .......... |
Understanding and Support |
|
Within cultural programming, which areas help shape individual's cultural identity? |
Religion, education, industries, and jobs. |
|
What cross-cultural communication consideration describes freedom, privacy, loyalty, and respect? |
Values and norms |
|
Identify the North American proxemics distance or space range used for communication among business associates as well as to separate strangers using public areas like benches and bus stops. |
4-12 feet |
|
There are 4 distinct phases of an interview or counseling session. Which phase includes the interviewing skills of paraphrasing, reflecting, and re-framing as necessary? |
Questioning (also know: Intro, Closing, Follow up) |
|
When you develop an interview outline, what type of questions should you include to provide interviewees with the opportunity to evaluate the complainant's allegations or unit trends and provide additional information? |
Open-ended |
|
Who is key to a successful interview? |
EOA |
|
What type of interview question answers the basic who, what, when, where, and how questions? |
Probes |
|
Authentic rapport with an interviewee consists of what 3 concepts |
Acceptance, understanding, listening |
|
What are the best ways you can maintain control of the interview? |
Know what you want, ask the right questions, and give appropriate feedback |
|
The basic structured technique used to gather data from a group rather than an individual to identify issues, concerns, and needs of an organization is what? |
Group interview |
|
What are limitations for using the facilitation process as a group communication? |
Inexperienced facilitation skills, time restraints, agreement barriers, desired outcome not reached. |
|
There are 5 non-productive personalities that can surface in group communication. The personality that best describes a member who shows a reluctance to participate is which one? |
The quiet member |
|
How many duty days do you have to update your HRE training class in the Personnel Data System? |
5 duty days |
|
Within how many duty days upon a member's arrival must you conduct required HRE Training? |
30 days -FDS w/in 30 -NEO w/in 60 -KPB w/in 60 |
|
What can HRE critiques best be used for? |
Justification to improve classroom facilities. Primary purpose is to collect meaningful and useful info to assess the effectiveness of the course and instruction in relation to instructor's presentation skills and course content. |
|
You do not personalize which part of the lesson plans? |
Material Learning Objectives |
|
Identify the cognitive level of learning that describes the ability to break down material into its component parts, differentiate, and compare/contrast |
Analysis |
|
What are the specific learning experiences necessary to achieve the lesson objective and produce changes in behavior? |
Desired learning outcome (DLO) |
|
Who is required to approve films and videos that support locally developed lesson plans? |
Installation commander |
|
Does a briefing provide basic knowledge or understanding? |
No- you assume your audience possesses that background already. |
|
A technique used for effective guided discussions are effective questions. What type of question starts or oepns an area for discussion? |
Lead-off |
|
What category of instructional aid is used because it caters to how most people learn? |
Visual (others are audio, audio-visual) |
|
With whom must the EO director schedule an O&A to make sure the visit is seamless? |
Unit commander, first sergeant, and agency chief |
|
What form is used to document an O&A |
1271 |
|
Who is not allowed to participate in DEOCS? |
Contractors |
|
What AFI should you consult for guidance on dissident and protest activities? |
AFI 51-903 |
|
What actions would be included as an equal opportunity and treatment incident (EOTI)? |
Hate group activity, vadalism, graffiti, discriminatory epithets, signs, or symbols, using slurs |
|
An EOTI occurs involving fewer than 10 participants. What category do you recommend classifying it? |
Minor |
|
An EOTI occurs resulting in property damage of $4000. What do you classify it as? |
Serious |
|
Which item listed below does NOT fall under the minor category of EOTI? -Assault -An incident involving 10-20 active participants -Property damage less than $43,499 -An act resulting in a physical injury requiring no medical impatient treatment |
An incident involving 10-20 participants |
|
Which item listed below dos NOT fall under the serious category of EOTI? -An act resulting in injury requiring inpatient treatment less than 5 days -Incident involving less than 10 people -An incident involving 10-20 people -Assault |
Less than 10 people |
|
Which item does NOT fall under the major category of EOTI? -Arson -Property damage valued at $9000 -An incident involving more than 20 people -An act resulting in injury requiring inpatient treatment for more than 5 days |
Property damage of $9000 (35000-10000 is serious) |
|
What are examples of conditions and warning signs of an EOTI? |
Graffiti, group polarization, establishment of unauthorized groups, precipitating incidents, high level of complaints, rumors, lack of accessibility to the commander, and ops tempo |
|
Which agency that is responsible for monitoring unauthorized groups within the community can you reach out to for assistance when dealing with EOTIs? |
AFOSI |
|
Which EOTI condition and warning sign deals with people interacting with others of like attributes and may occur in common areas such as dormitories, dining facilities, and work centers? |
Group polarization |
|
Which are the 5 key areas that are great information sources you can use to stay abreast of concerns that ma impact the installation? |
SF blotter, CAID (community action information board), IDS (integrated delivery system), AFDCB (Armed Forces Disciplinary Control Board), committees/meetings |
|
What AFI can you refer to for additional guidance on the CAIB and IDS? |
AFI-90-501 |
|
What group levies sanctions against off-base establishments when discriminatory or other unlawful practices adversely affects members of the Air Force or military family members? |
AFDCB |
|
According to the AFI 36-2706, who and what organizations are required to maintain an on-all roster to notify EO personnel when an EOTI occurs? |
OSC (command post), SF, ER, and GSU commanders |
|
Whose responsibility is it to ensure the notification letters are updated when there is a change to the EO on-call roster? |
EO director |
|
What is the best approach to use when conducting an interview for an EOTI? |
Individual interview |
|
Which document's primary purpose during and EOTI is to provide information for the appropriate commander to determine whether a violation of an EO policy has occurred? |
Clarification reports |
|
An EOTI clairication process should not take longer than how many calendar days to complete? |
60 |
|
Within how many hours should a serious EOTI be reported? |
72 |
|
Within how many hours should a major EOTI be reported? |
24 |
|
Which type of agencies provide expertise and problem solving assistance to your office? |
Resource |
|
Which agency gives you access to one of the best sources of collecting and disseminating information on your base? |
Public Affairs |
|
The three MPS elements you will work closely with are? |
Customer support element, human resources systems element, and career development element |
|
The AFDCB establishes areas that have an adverse impact on discipline, health, morale, and safety and the welfare of services members as "off limits". Off limits sanctions are also intended to prevent military members from what? |
Exposure to crime conductive conditions. |
|
What office is responsible for the management of programs pertaining to civilian personnel? |
Civilian Personnel Office |
|
Which off base agency should be on top of your civilian referral agencies list? |
Crisis Center |
|
Air Force personnel who have legal problems that cannot be handled by military attorneys may receive legal assistance / representation from who? |
Legal Aid Association |
|
Which agency is not organized at the regional level in the civil rights areas? |
DOJ |
|
The best way you can develop a solid professional relationship with the referral ageincies is to do what? |
Meet fact-to-facewith agency's director and staff |
|
After you determine a complaint is not under the EO purview, you refer the individual to the right agency by matching the individuals problem to what? |
Your annotated listing |
|
As an EO advisor you follow up on referral to build credibility with the individual seeking assistance and the helping agency, and also to do what? |
Ensure the individual was helped, determine if the agency was appropriate, and if they were able to help so you can update your list, and continue to build relationships with referral agencies. |
|
The sexual assault response coordinator (SARC) reports directly to who? |
Installation vice commander |
|
What is the primary focus of the SARC? |
Assisting victims of sexual assault, domestic violence, and other interpersonal violence |
|
Who must serve as the single point of contact for coordination care for sexual assault victims, ensuring they receive appropriate and responsive care? |
SARC |
|
Who manages sexual assault allegation s when the alleged offender is the partner in context of a spousal relationship, same sex domestic partnership, unmarried intimate partner relationship, or military dependent who is 17 y/o or younger? |
Family Advocacy |
|
What sexual assault reporting option did the DOD implement for confidentiality? |
Restricted reporting |
|
Which communication under the reprisal program is defined as lawful communication in which a member of the Air Fore communicates information that the member reasonable believes evidence indicates a violation of law or regulation occurred? |
Protected |
|
To whom must you refer members that believe they have been a victim of reprisal because they have filed or communicated an EO violation? |
IG |
|
Who must review the ROI and prepare a technical review report for the EO directors signature? |
EOA |
|
Who must complete a written technical review of the ROI to verify the IO addressed all allegations? |
EO Director |
|
Who must ensure the EO Office's involvement in the EO complaint case is recorded during the ROI review and assessment? |
EO director |
|
Who is responsible for ensuring special observance committees are established? |
Installation Commander |
|
Who prepares and coordinates official correspondence for special observances? |
The special observance committee chairperson or private organization |
|
Special observance committees should notify installation commanders of proposed dates and events where their attendance is requested at least how many days in advance of the event? |
45 |
|
When funds are not available from the Wing's budget, what are other options the observance committees can consider as alternate resources for their event? |
Credit unions, base exchange, commissary, banks, and military affiliated organizations. Chief ans shirts, spouses club, NCO/O club, Top 3, Airman's Council, Unit Advisory Council |
|
Who generally manages on-base private organizations? |
FSS |
|
What Public Law established the birthday celebration of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.? |
Public Law 98-144 |
|
Who should committee chairpersons communicate their efforts through, besides EO, in regards to sexual assault awareness and prevention month? |
SARC |
|
The Days of Remembrance and Holocaust Remembrance Day vary each year according to which calendar? |
Hebrew |
|
The 5 categories world religions can be broken down into are what? |
Naturalism, pantheism, theism, spiritism, and polytheism, and postmodernism |
|
What 3 groups are normally categorized as naturalists? |
Atheists, agnostics, and existentialists |
|
The reality of a Pantheist is what? |
Only the spirit dimension exists and all else are illusions. |
|
What belief do those who believe in the spirit realm and worship more than one god hold? |
The world is populated by spirit beings who govern what happens from day-to-day |
|
Postmodernism's reality is what? |
Socially construed and must be interpreted through language and cultural 'paradigm' |
|
What is one important question upon which a commander must base approval or disapproval of religious accommodations? |
Does the request stem from a sincerely held belief of the requester? |
|
What must employers assess or avoid when facing religious reasonable accommodations request? |
Assumptions or stereotypes about what constitutes a religious belief or practice and appropriateness of accommodation for the type of request |
|
When face with a religious accommodation request that cannot be made immediately, what can employers do? |
Keep employee appraised of the current status. |
|
What are the significant factors that led to the EO program evolution? |
Social conditions, media exposure, high level congressional interest |
|
What was the purpose of the Voting Rights Act of 1964 |
Overcome barriers preventing African-Americans from voting under the 15th Amendment |
|
What protected categories were included in the Civil Rights Act of 1964 |
Sex, race, color, religion, national origin |
|
What type of complaint is covered by the FY23NDAA? |
Sexual Harassment |
|
What did the Supreme Court find regarding 'separate but equal' in the Brown v. Board of Education decision? |
Separate was not equal and segregation in school was unconstitutional |
|
What Executive Orders (E.O.) help you do your job |
E.O. 8802, 9980, 10925,11246,11478,13087 |
|
What was the main purpose of EO 9981 |
Established the President's committee on Equality of Treatment and Opportunity in the Armed Services, abolish racial discrimination and led to the end of segregation in the Armed Services |
|
What four management factors can contribute to rising negative human relations trends? |
Lack of sensitivity, leadership indifference, unresponsiveness, lack of effective communication skills |
|
What topics were covered in the August 1972 race relations training? |
Institutional and personal insensitivity, personal prejudice, and unconscious bigotry create racial problems. |
|
What program was introduced in November 1993 and what is the purpose of this program? |
Mediation - to informally resolve EO complaints |
|
What is the EO program's main guidance instruction |
AFI 36-2706 |
|
When did congress give EEOC authority to file lawsuits against private companies? |
1972 |
|
Name two EO objectives |
Eradicate unlawful discrimination Foster a positive human relations climate |
|
How do you provide proactive steps to ensure efforts to eliminate unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment are in place |
HRE, speak at commander's calls, ALS, First Sergeant Symposium, DEOCS, O&A, Provide trend data, provide specialized training as required, and stay engaged and informed. |
|
What base committees can help you evaluate positive and negative trends on base and in the local environment? |
CAIB, IDS |
|
What are the twin goals of an effective EO program? |
Unit effectiveness and individual opportunity and fairness |
|
What 5 principles should be followed to have an effective EO program? |
Command commitment and accountability -service distinctiveness -clarity of policy and law -effective training -complaints handling and resolution |
|
What barriers that prevent individuals from rising to the highest level of responsibility are addressed in the DOD EO policy? |
Personal, social, institutional |
|
What are the protected categories? |
Sex, religion, race, color, national origin, sexual orientation, sexual harassment (civilians - add age, disability, genetic info) |
|
Are quotas allowed in Affirmative Action |
No |
|
What is the definition of Affirmative Action |
Any action that goes beyond simply stopping a discriminatory practice. It compensates for past or present discrimination or if prevents future discrimination |
|
What are pros and cons of affirmative action |
Pro - creates diversity -lower represented demographics and equal footing -breaks stereotypes -Makes up for years of discrimination CONS -Society is not accepting -reverse discrimination -Perceived limited choices in hiring -Perception of lower standards and loss of quality of work |
|
What committee was established by EO 10925 |
Presidents committee for equal opportunity |
|
What was the mission of the President's Committee for Equal Opportunity? |
End discrimination in employment by the government and its contractors |
|
What was the most significant and famous case that challenged the affirmative action programs? |
Regents of the University of California v. Bakke in 1978 |
|
What forms the basis for the EO and AAP in the Military |
DOD human Goals Charter (Proclamation) |
|
What 3 main sources established the AF AAP |
DOD directive 1100.15, EO programs annex A to volume 1 of USAF personnel plan, AF EO Affirmative Action Plan |
|
What were President Bill Clinton's thoughts regarding AAP |
Mend it, don't end it |
|
What was the essential purpose of the AAP process |
A problem solving technique |
|
What does the AAP process as a management tool help do? |
Identify potential problems, implement management actions, assessing progress |
|
What are the 10 AAP objectives |
1. Accseeion 6. Retention 2. Utilization 7. Invol. Separation 3. PME selection 8. Key Assignment 4. Promotion 9. Discipline 5. Discrimination complaints 10. Composition |
|
What is the definition of diversity |
Composite of individual characteristics and experiences and abilities consistent with AF core values |
|
What is the main difference between EO and diversity |
EO is remedial while diversity is stategic |
|
Describe the two E.O.'s that govern diversity |
13583- established government wide initiative to promote diversity and inclusion in the federal workplace 13458- guidance to increase federal employment of disabled people |
|
What are the primary dimensions/factors of an individual? |
Those factors that you can generally see. Age, gender, physical disability |
|
What seven techniques will help you bridge differences? |
Seek info -be other oriented -ask questions -develop mindfulness -develop flexibility -tolerate ambiguity avoid negative judgments |
|
Define social movement |
Type of group action - large, informal, focused on specific political and social issues |
|
What is the difference between a social movement and in institution? |
Social movements gain momentum, are highly dynamic, and have an uncertain lifespan. Institutions are viewed as necessary and invaluable aspects of society. |
|
What are the tree conditions that favor social movements? |
Social disorganization, social discontent, and cultural drift |
|
Define Culture |
A stable yet dynamic system of subtle and overt rules involving attitudes, norms, beliefs, and behaviors shared by a group but used differently by subcultures and communicated across generations |
|
What is the heart of culture? |
Language |
|
What are the three measurable processes of assimilation? |
Acculturation, amalgamation, social interaction |
|
What is a positive aspect of cultural pluralism |
Ethnic groups retain their distinct cultural differences and traditions while assimilating fully in political, social, and economic life of dominant group |
|
What is a minority |
A person who has been singled out, treated differently or unequally, based on his or her physical characteristics or culture. |
|
What are examples of racial groups |
White, Black, American Indian, Asian, Native Hawaiian/Pacific Islander |
|
What is the dominant religion in the U.S. |
Christianity |
|
What is migration |
Movement of people from one place to another in the world to take up permanent residence |
|
What was the purpose of Maryland's "Naturalization Act" |
Limited the privilege of becoming a citizen to foreign-born Protestants |
|
What characteristics did most white immigrants share during the 1840's and 50's |
Anglo-Saxon heritage, reinforced individual accomplishment, Protestant faith, an incredible work ethic, English Language |
|
When did the War Department authorize the enlistment of African-Americans |
After Emancipation Proclamation of JAN 1863 |
|
Who was the first African American military pilot and one of the few black combat pilots during WWI |
Eugene Bullard |
|
What are the 5 last civilized tribes forced onto the Trail of Tears? |
Cherokee, Creek, Choctaw, Seminal, Chickasaw |
|
Who exempted the religious use of peyote from federal and state controlled substance laws and prohibited discrimination against those who engage in the use of peyote for religious purposes? |
Bill Clinton |
|
What was the Chinese Exclusion Act |
Only US law to prevent immigration and naturalization on the basis of race at the time, which restricted Chinese immigration for the next 60 years |
|
Who signed E.O. 9066 ordering all Japanese-Americans to evacuate the West coast which resulted in the relocation of approximately 120,000 people, many of whom were American citizens, to one of 10 internment camps located across the country? |
Franklin Roosevelt |
|
Who originally founded the Hawaiian Monarchy |
King Kamehameha I |
|
Who first declared National Hispanic Heritage Week |
President Johnson in 1968 |
|
What refers to the arrangement of people and groups in relation to one another, which exist independently of the people who participate in them and are dynamic and continuously evolve within societies |
Social environment |
|
Where do stereotypes originate |
Parents, schools, religion, home, community, media |
|
What is prejudice |
adverse opinion or judgement formed beforehand or without complete examination of facts or full knowledge |
|
What are the three primary sources of prejudice |
Association, modeling, reinforcement |
|
What best describes the directional pattern of in group and out group because it is the tendency of group members to label people of other cultures as incorrect or inferior |
Ethnocentrism |
|
Name and explain the three levels of prejudice |
Cognitive - Mental picture of the individual or group Emotional - Feelings that the actual or symbolic stimulus of the individual or group evokes within the individual Action - Tendency to act i certain ways toward an individual or group. |
|
What is the socialization process? |
The process by which someone learns the ways of a given society or social group so he or she can function in it |
|
Name the four 'isms' and protected categories |
Sexism - sex, Racism - race, Ageism - age, anti-Antisemitism - religion |
|
List Allport's five levels of discrimination from the lowest to the highest level of prejudice |
Antilocution, avoidance, discrimination, physical attack, extermination |
|
When did sex discrimination become unlawful? |
Civil Rights Act of 1964 *Sexual Harassment became unlawful in 1986 |
|
What did the EEOC guidelines on sexual harassment affirm and clarify? |
Affirmed sexual harassment as unlawful act of employment practice under Title VII and clarified employers sexual harassment prevention responsibilities |
|
What sexual harassment was alleged during the Navy Tailhook incident? |
The Gauntlet - Females were ambushed while walking down a hallway by 200 drunk men |
|
What was the goal of the EO-2000 Awareness Course |
For all military members to reaffirm and recommit to equal opportunity treatment philosophy and to ensure episode of sexual harassment and unlawful discrimination did not go unchallenged |
|
What are the 2 forms of sexual harassment |
Quid pro quo and hostile work environment |
|
What are the 3 types of sexual harassment |
Verbal, non-verbal, physical |
|
What Act helped remedy the discriminatory immigration laws based on sexual orientation |
Immigration Act of 1990 - withdrew sexual deviation as a reason to keep people out of the country |
|
What is the definition of sexual orientation |
Homosexuality, bisexuality, or heterosexuality actual or perceived, includes association with another individual of a particular orientation |
|
What EEOC decisions in recent years hold LGBT individuals can make valid EEO claims in the federal sector? |
Macy v. Holder Complainant v. Department of Homeland Security |
|
What DOD Directive was passed that allows AF EO offices to process complaints based on sexual orientation? |
1020.02E |
|
What 5 roles do you play similar to an organizational counselor |
Adviser, assessor, trainer, educator, change agent |
|
When you meet with the commander to receive guidance, what 4 things should be determined? |
Expectations/desired outcomes access to commander, commander's view of successful program, current issues or concerns |
|
What must be included on an EO policy letter |
Overview of commander commitment to EO program and reaffirm that unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment will not be tolerated, condoned, or practiced. In line with AF Policy, explain how to file a complaint, and protection from threats/reprisal. |
|
What is the key to your professional growth and development as an EOA |
understand job requirements, expand EOA capabilities, attend and participate in continuous training |
|
What is the best way you can obtain credibility as an EOA |
Always demonstrate a positive behavior and attitude regarding AF standards |
|
What is a unit manpower document |
product from MPES used to reflect positions authorized to accomplish the mission |
|
List 6 data elements contained on a unit manpower document |
CID, PAS, POS NR, AFSC, GRD, FAC |
|
What roster combines the date extracted from several files such as manpower data files and personnel data files? |
Manning roster |
|
What are the most common reasons for submitting an authorization change request |
Position realignment or skill level adjustment |
|
What levels can a authorization change request be initiated |
Any level - Wing, MAJCOM, AF |
|
When will you receive an authorization change notie |
When changes to document occur |
|
What is the grade requirement for a retrainee entering the EO career field |
SSgt select |
|
What are 6 derogatory materials you should make sure are not in a retrainee's personnel file |
UIF, control roster, Referral EPR, PT failure, financial irresponsibility, EO violations |
|
What is the required observation period for retraining to the EO field |
15 duty days |
|
What 4 douments are required when submitting retraining packages |
Last 3 EPR's, letter of recommendation from losing commander, letter of recommendation from EO director, and AF Form 422 |
|
What must you do before using volunteers to work in your office |
Determine local policies, discuss with CPO, obtain wing cc approval |
|
List the 4 administrative functions that non-DEOMI volunteers may complete |
Clerical, set up classrooms, update HRE attendance, administer critiques |
|
Which publication outlines policy and guidance on administering the AF Equal Opportunity and Treatment Program |
AF Policy Directive 36-27 |
|
What action does the AF take in regard to organizations which unlawfully deny a person access because of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, or sexual orientation |
Deny those organizations use of military facilities and resources |
|
Which types of organizations are not considered unlawfully discriminatory and for what reasons |
Organizations of members of a certain age group or religion are not by virtue of their special membership considered discriminatory |
|
State the objective of the Human Relations Education Program |
Ensure through education that all employees and management understand the need for a positive human relation environment. |
|
What is the EEO program objective and scope |
Geared toward providing employees and managers with services needed to address imperative concerns that may be raised |
|
What actions must an aggrieved person (civilian employee or applicant) who believes he or she has been discriminated against take? |
Contact EO with in 45 calendar days of discrimination awareness or effective date of personnel action |
|
Th US EEOC is responsible for what? |
Enforcing federal laws that make it illegal to discriminate against an applicant based on protected categories |
|
Within a federal agency, an EO director should not be placed where? |
Under supervision of the agency's director of personnel or other officials responsible for executing and advising personnel actions. |
|
What law requires that employers reasonably accommodate applicants' and employees' sincerely held religious practices, unless doing so would impose an undue hardship on the operating of the employer's business |
Title VII of Civil Rights Act of 1964 |
|
Which laws amend Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the ADA to permit jury trials and compensatory and punitive damage awards in interntional discrimination cases? |
Sections 102 & 103 of the Civil Rights Act of 1991 |
|
Who exercises overall responsibility for managing the EO and HRE programs |
AF/A1Q |
|
Name the agency that provides functional expertise and technical guidance to MAJCOM EO strategic advisers and installation/center-level EO offices |
AFPC/EO |
|
Who is responsible for reporting and ensuring AF compliance with final EEO orders |
AFCARO |
|
Who provides day to day oversight of the AF EO program |
AFPC/EO |
|
Manages programming and implementation of AF EO budget and implements the AF EO Career Field Management Program |
AF/A1Q |
|
Serves as the foal point for administering the DEOCS Program |
DEOMI |
|
Serves as the final appeal authority on EO (military) formal complaints |
SAF/MRB |
|
Who does the installation EO director work for |
Installation commander |
|
What is the installation commander/center director defined as |
commander or other official exercising delegated appointing authority over military and civilian personnel under his or her command |
|
Why does the installation commander review closed cases on a monthly basis |
To ensure awareness of EO cases worked that month |
|
When complainants invoke their right to request an investigation under the authority of 10 USC Section 1561, who must the EO Director immediately notify |
AFPC/EO |
|
Who reviews and approves the EEO counselor's report and makes sure it is submitted within the required timelines? |
EO Director |
|
Who ensures all allegation of unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment are thoroughly investigated? |
Unit Commander |
|
Who is responsible for assisting complainants in determining the basis, framing the claim, and clarifying any ambiguities |
EO specialist/counselor |
|
Who enters and updates complaint and ADR data into AF EO IT systems |
EO specialist/counselor |
|
What is the primary goal of the commander's staff |
To successfully execute the commanders mission |
|
As a staff agency, what is your principle function |
Securing and providing information and SME advisement as required by the commander |
|
What does the effectiveness of the staff agencies depend upon |
Professionalism and qualifications of staff members |
|
In what form must the FOIA request be submitted, and what should be clearly stated in the request |
Written request that reasonable describes the record sought, and indicate a willingness to pay fees associated with processing request |
|
What is the purpose of FOIA |
Prescribe procedures on disclosure of records, establish mandatory time limits, and explain how the public may gain access to Air Force records. |
|
What is the AF policy on FOIA requests |
Making the maximum amount of records concerning operations and procedures available to the public |
|
The FOIA manager must make a determination on a requested record within what time frame? |
20 duty day |
|
Who cannot make FOIA requests |
Federal Agencies and fugitives from the law |
|
Who is the final review releasing authority for all EO records |
EO director |
|
What information is exempt from FOIA request by members of the public |
If info contained would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of privacy |
|
What is a functional request |
a request for a record that does not specifically cite or imply the FOIA |
|
what is the purpose of the privacy act |
protecting people from unwarranted invasions of privacy |
|
What must you provide individuals before asking for personal informaition |
Privacy Act Statment |
|
Who is the final review release and denial authority for all EO records |
EO Director |
|
How must EO records be maintained |
Locked in filing cabinet, locked in desks, locked in offices. Locked |
|
What are Privacy Act violations that may result in fines and civil damage suits |
Failure to publish record system Disclosing personal case info to unauthorized personnel Obtaining a case file under false pretenses |
|
What is the quickest way you can lose your integrity and program credibility |
Inappropriate release of personal information |
|
When do you remove FOUO markings on a document |
When released to requester via FOIA/Privacy Act |
|
What disciplinary actions can take place if you make an unauthorized disclosure of FOUO information |
Civil and Criminal sanctions |
|
What assumption must you make before copying or using materials from the internet |
That all info on the internet is copyrighted |
|
What is you best source of "fair use" material |
Government work |
|
What instruction should you review if you have questions in the area of copyright law information |
AFI 51-303 |
|
What is the MICT used for |
To complete and report self-inspections |
|
When can you enter PII into MICT |
DO NOT ENTER PII EVER |
|
List the 3 levels of classification identified when creating a MICT observation |
Critical, significant, minor |
|
Identify the goal of process improvements and corrective action plans in the RCA process |
Provide long term fix to an observation |
|
Name two purposes of the 3018 report |
Provide pertinent EO info in standard statistical format Assist EO director/CC when analyzing program and mission impact |
|
Who is responsible for ensuring the AF IMT 3018 is certified |
EO director |
|
When is the AF IMT 3018 report certified |
End of each reporting period, within 10 days of close out date |
|
What are the 4 AF IMT 3018 reporting periods |
End of each fiscal quarter - 1 Oct-31 Dec, 1 Jan-31 Mar, 1 Apr-30 Jun, 1 Jul-30 Sep |
|
In section I of the AF IMT 3018, what is reflected in all the category blocks if there are no incidents? |
0 |
|
Where do you annotate allegation relating to sexual orientation when completing section II of AF IMT 3018 |
Under sex, annotate specific issue in synopsis |
|
When is AF Form 1271 considered 'closed' |
When follow up is complete and customer requests no further assistance |
|
For substantiated cases, what must you be sure to do prior to completing the synopsis |
Ensure final corrective action taken |
|
When completing the AF IMT 3018 where do you type the synopsis from your complaint |
In the synopsis area of the applicable complaint - Not on the 3018 |
|
What is the most critical aspect of the AF IMT 3018 reporting |
Capture complete and accurate data |
|
What is the purpose for the EEOC form 462 |
A tool to compile agency complaint processing data |
|
How often does the AFPC/EO report the EEOC form 462 data to the EEOC |
Annually |
|
What types of data are not reported in the EEOC Form 462 report |
Class complaints, ADEA civil action, MSPB, grievance, breech of settlement agreements |
|
When reviewing your EEOC form 462 report, who do you notify if you have overdue cases that reflect in any of your suspense tracking |
AFPC/EO |
|
List the 5 questions you must consider when tasked to set up an EO office |
How many people will you be serving Who will be the customers What MAJCOM What is the mission What specific services will EO provide |
|
Once you know a forward locations mission, what is your next step |
Look at bases with similar training missions |
|
Why is it important to know the number of personnel who will be requiring EO support and services in a forward location |
It helps prepare the manning document to ensure the new office is adequately staffed with the most appropriate skill level |
|
What is the best way of finding out what your roles and responsibilities will be at the new EO office |
Ask during initial meeting with installation commander |
|
What is the purpose of a budget call |
to ensure submissions from all levels meet the same format and information required and submitted within appropriate time frames |
|
What is the primary purpose of preparing a spend plan |
Detail EO office budget requirements and explain impact to mission if funds not received |
|
What is often required when responding to the base budget call |
Historical data |
|
List the 7 proven tips to help you with your budget narrative justification |
Justify vividly -Provide support -Be specific -Use plain language -Be truthful -Tell the story -Relate fund requirements |
|
What is a bogey |
Lump sum dollar amount by Major Force Program that represents the anticipated availability of funding for the next fiscal year |
|
What is a GSU/FOB |
Any duty location to which AF personnel are assigned but does not have a Military Personnel Section or EO office that provides equal opportunity or HRE services |
|
What agency must ensure that GSU/FOBs have the resources available and that host base agencies cooperate in a coordinated effort to ensure a vigorous EO program |
MAJCOM |
|
Who must ensure unit members are able to present complaints without fear of reprisal |
GSU/FOB commander |
|
What is the grade requirement for additional duty GSU/FOB EO personnel |
TSGT and above |
|
How soon after appointment must you provide additional duty GSU/FOB EO personnel the required training |
With in 60 days of appointment |
|
What document binds the GSU commander with the hose-base agency |
Host-tenant support agreement |
|
What agency normally functions as the primary point of contact on host-tenant support agreements |
LRS |
|
What are the 2 AEF fundamental principles |
Provide trained and ready air and space forces for national defense Meet national commitments through a structured approach which enhances total force readiness and sustainment |
|
What dramatically changed the way the AF tasks combat resources |
AEF construct |
|
What does the MISCAP provide |
Readiness info to deploy, manage, and sustain AEF Operations |
|
Where are taskings found |
Time phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) |
|
What system must be updated to ensure EO personnel are ready for deployment |
ART |
|
Once the UTC is coded, who has the authority to make changes |
Commander |
|
What is the ART used for |
Identify 'the people' piece of deployment |
|
What system gives you the overall picture of your deployment status |
SORTS |
|
What is the key to success for deployed EO forces |
Flexibility |
|
Who can you turn to for the most up to date info regarding deployed EO operations |
Someone who recently returned from deployment |
|
What is your focus if you are directly supporting combat operations |
Identifying, preventing, and neutralizing actual or potential human relations incidents |
|
What are the two areas that fall under the purview of EO? |
Unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment |
|
Define unlawful discrimination |
Discrimination based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, sexual harassment, sexual orientation that is not otherwise authorized by law or regulation. |
|
When reviewing the allegations of unlawful discrimination, what four areas must you review closely |
Was there an action? Was the act based on EO purview? Did the act result in unfair treatment or deprive of rights? Was the act supported by law or regulation? |
|
Define sexual harassment |
A form of sex discrimination involving unwelcome sexual advances requests for sexual favors, and other verbal and physical conduct of sexual nature explicitly or implicitly quid pro quo or hostile workplace. |
|
What are the two forms of sexual harassment |
Quid pro quo and hostile work environment |
|
What is suggested by Quid Pro Quo |
Do this, get that Demanding sexual favors in exchange or as condition to employment |
|
Where is the focus in quid pro quo form of sexual harassment |
Who is making the advances |
|
What 6 area must you consider when determining whether sexual harassment conduct is severe or pervasive |
Verbal/non-verbal Frequency Conduct hostile or offensive Is offender supervisor or co-worker Others perpetuated harassment Directed at more than one individual |
|
who may file a military EO complaints |
Military member, their family, retirees |
|
How must you handle complaints that involve suspected criminal activities such as assault, sexual assault, rape, child abuse, molestation, or incest |
Immediately refer to OSI/SFS and coordinate with SJA |
|
Why must you refer complaints against the EO office's chain of command such as the EO director, vice commander, or the installation commander? |
Conflict of interest or create perception of bias |
|
To what agency do you refer complaints alleging reprisal? |
Wing IG |
|
What is the second leading cause of death among active duty members |
suicide |
|
What must you do when conducting interviews during complaint clarification or when acting as SME for an IG investigation |
Pay close attention to warning signs of suicide |
|
Who makes the determination for referral or appropriate action to ensure the distraught individual's safety? |
Unit commander |
|
What action must you take to ensure the distraught individual does not leave your office unaccompanied? |
Wait for someone in their chain of command to respond and escort individual |
|
Who must provide the EO office a written memorandum regarding MEO issues worked within the unit, to include CDI's? |
Commanders |
|
how often must the EO director disseminate a reminder to all commanders/agency chiefs soliciting information on CWI's? |
Monthly |
|
What information is the unit commander required to provide the EO office on the CWI worksheet? |
DOI, dtae issues presented to leadership, who conducted investigation, substantiated or not, date resolved, category of unlawful discrimination, relationship of offender to complainant, demographics, allegations, corrective actions. |
|
Who must initiate a CDI once a GCMCA notification has occurred? |
Commander |
|
What are you required to provide the IO when serving as SME? |
Information on your role in assisting the IO to conduct investigation and to provide assistance throughout. |
|
When reviewing the ROI, what must you ensure are included as part of the official Air Force record? |
Key facts and supporting documentation |
|
What AF form is used to document SME assistance? |
1271 |
|
Who will ensure EO involvement is recorded during the review and assessment of the case? |
EO director |
|
What type of assistance provides advice on how to resolve a general workplace dispute |
Non-EO assistance |
|
What type of assistance answers questions regarding how to file an EO complaint? |
EO general assistance |
|
What type of assistance facilitates non-EO concerns? |
Non-EO ADR |
|
What is the purpose of the informal MEO complaint process? |
Members to resolve allegations of unlawful discrimination without filing a formal complaint |
|
List the 5 available options an individual may use to resolve allegations of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment informally |
write a letter, use a co-worker, lodge informal complaint, use chain of command, use facilitation process |
|
What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory and sexually harassing practices? |
Chain of command |
|
What authority does the commander possess to address allegations of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment |
Inherent authority to conduct investigation |
|
At least how often must you follow up on informal complaints? |
At least every 5 duty days |
|
When is an informal complaint officially closed? |
On the date the last follow up has been conducted and no further action is required |
|
What AF form is an anonymous complaint documented on when there are sufficient details? |
1587-1 |
|
List the required briefing items you must give the individual before he or she files a complaint |
inform of available options, 60 day time limit, no confidentiality, Explain processing procedures, complaint cannot be withdrawn, case file subject to FOIA and PA |
|
What must you ensure before accepting formal MEO complaints? |
Ensure complainant is alleging unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment |
|
Who must be immediately notified of MEO complaint against 06 or civilian equivalent? |
Installation commander and IG |
|
What are the required actions you must take before beginning your complaint clarification? |
Apprise unit commanders, inform alleged offender CC to brief AO, inform EO of date AO briefed, Advise CC of requirement to conduct complaint clarification, request interviews be scheduled by shirt or EO, EO will provide CC with update of complaint |
|
What is the purpose of complaint clarifications? |
To gather information to determine whether allegations are supported by preponderance of credible evidence. |
|
As an EO adviser, how does the complaint clarification help you? |
Helps to substantiate or not substantiate a claim |
|
At a minimum, who will you interview during a complaint clarification? |
Individuals who may have info about the complaint - complainant, witness, alleged offender |
|
What 6 steps must you take in preparation for conducting complaint clarification? |
Frame your questions, schedule interviews, review if you need to interview civilian employees, coordinate allegations ad interview questions with SJA, prepare location for interview, have a copy of Article 31 Rights Advisement. |
|
What must you do during your initial contact with the witnesses, alleged offender, or complainants to set the stage and predetermine the success of your interview? |
introduce yourself ,clarify your role, explain the purpose of the interview |
|
What is the benefit of allowing individuals to ask questions about matters that may be confusing or threatening to them during the complaint clarification? |
Helps establish relationships of mutual trust and respect |
|
When is silence during the complaint clarification interview constructive? |
If it doesn't make anyone uncomfortable |
|
As a general rule, when is a complaint clarification interview completed? |
When alleged offender in interviewed |
|
How many duty days does the EO office have to complete its portion of the unlawful discrimination complaint clarification? |
9 duty days, 3 UTAs |
|
How many duty days does the SJA have to complete the legal review of the unlawful discrimination complaint clarification? |
6 duty days |
|
Upon receipt of the unlawful discrimination complaint clarification, what must the commander provide the EO office within 5 duty days? |
Letter of intended action |
|
In general, the unlawful discrimination complaint clarification process must be completed within how many duty days? |
20 |
|
Throughout the entire unlawful discrimination complaint clarification process what must you do to ensure the complainant is kept abreast of the complaint? |
Contact complainant every duty days. |
|
At a minimum, what information must be provided within the clarification report? |
Installation SJA and AO's commander will be included in the Memo, Identify clarification report #, Date report was initiated, Demographics list of all people interviewed, framed allegations and findings, provide picture of preponderance of evidence, recommendations. |
|
How often is the installation commander required to review closed complaints? |
monthly |
|
When must you follow up with the complainant to make sure reprisal has not occurred? |
30 calendar days after complainant signs block 29 |
|
When must you follow up with the unit commander if intended action was provided |
30 calendar days |
|
To the extent practical, within how many hours must a commanding officer receiving sexual harassment complaints forward a detailed description of the allegations to the next superior officer? |
72 hours |
|
Who should be identified on the commander's appointment letter as the point of contact to assist the IO during the complaint investigation? |
EO office. |
|
What is the EO office's role once the IO has completed his or her investigation of a sexual harassment complaint? |
Review ROI |
|
What is the preferred method to resolve formal military complaints under Title 10 USC Section 1651 |
Military EO complaint process |
|
Within how many days will the EO office process sexual harassment complaints? |
14 duty days |
|
What actions must the EO office take within the first 72 hours after receipt of a complaint of sexual harassment made to the EO office? |
Begin clarification, inform complainant that it began, forward synopsis to GCMCA, initial and follow-up reports, submit final report to GCMCA |
|
How many days is the EO office given to complete the sexual harassment complaint clarification? |
6 duty days/3 UTAs |
|
When is a sexual harassment complaint considered closed? |
When all actions, including corrective, have been taken. |
|
Who must coordinate and approve EO complaints involving other installations? |
MAJCOM |
|
WHen personnel are not available to be interviewed or cannot provide written statements, what may the EO adviser do to conduct complaint clarification? |
Use telephone |
|
Who must be briefed prior to conducting telephonic interview? |
CC/Shirt |
|
What mandates that all services and Defense Agencies include Joint Service MEO complaint processing in their programs? |
Defense Equal Opportunity Council Task Force |
|
What is the best source for information to help you process a Joint Service MEO complaint? |
AFI 36-2706 and DODD 1350.2 |
|
Who should advise complainants that they have the option of referring the matter to their service for resolution? |
Host services EO director or equivalent |
|
What regulates the processing of EEO complaints? |
29 CFR Part 1614 |
|
How many days does the complainant have to file a formal complaint after receipt of the Notice of Right to File a Discrimination Complaint from the EO Counselor? |
15 Calendar Days |
|
The agency has within how many days of the filing of the complaint to conduct an impartial investigation of the complaint if the parties do not agree in writing to extend the time period? |
180 calendar days |
|
What must you disclose to bargaining employees during the initial interview? |
Their right to representation |
|
When can the identity of a complainant be revealed |
When formal complaint is filed or complainant gives written permission |
|
Explain the two filing options under the basis of age |
Formal complaint under 29 CFR part 1614 or bypass the administrative process and go directly to file a civil action. |
|
What options does a complainant with claims of sex-based wage discrimination have under the Equal Pay Act? |
Go directly to a court of competent jurisdiction |
|
When does the EEO complaint inquiry begin? |
When EEO begins to gather info after meeting with the aggrieved. |
|
Who serves as a bridge for the aggrieved and management officials during the pre-complaint process? |
EO Counselor |
|
How long can the informal counseling period be extended with consent of the complainant? |
90 calendar days |
|
What is the objective of the limited inquiry? |
Define the issues and attempt resolution at the lowest level |
|
What purpose does the limited inquiry serve? |
Obtain information to determine jurisdictional questions and ensure formal complaint is filed and is performed regardless of choosing ADR |
|
What are the 5 specific responsibilities you are in charge of ensuring compliance with federal and EEOC standards, during the limited inquiry? |
set initial interview with aggrieved, discuss resolution possibilities, discuss rights and responsibilities, conduct final interview, prepare written report. |
|
What term is used to refer to an individual's protected status |
Basis |
|
What does the term 'race' mean |
an individual's origins in Africa, north and south America, Asia, Europe, and elsewhere in the world |
|
What two court cases should EO counselors be familiar with in regards to transgender and sexual orientation? |
Macy v. Department of Justice David Baldwin v. Department of Transportation |
|
What is not important when considering religion as a protected basis? |
Whether they comport to standard notions of religion or norms associated with established religions |
|
What did the ADEA abolish in the federal sector |
mandatory retirement |
|
Name 6 fundamentally valuable roles that you should hone when it comes to conducting the initial interview with the counselee during the EEO inquiry? |
Educator, information giver, facilitator, translator, messenger, suggestion maker |
|
What are the 5 most common types of questions during the inquiry and records gathering |
Open ended, closed, opinion, follow up, leading |
|
List the 8 characteristics of a successful interviewer |
prepare/plan interview, maintains control of interview, do not assume what the party knows, treats parties with respect, listens, neutral/objective, flexible, do not reveal what you know. |
|
What are the 3 basic theories of discrimination |
disparate impact disparate treatment failure to accomodate |
|
What seven areas of dicussion should you have with an RMO |
Explain allegations, answer questions, give opportunity to present position, get sense of relationship, the agency can't be forced into agreement, do not pre-judge RMO, no confidentiality - need to know only. |
|
List the 6 tips that prove helpful in dealing with a difficult agency official |
direct eye contact, firm but polite/professional conduct, do not apologize, listen actively, empathize, ask follow up questions. |
|
What must the DD 2655 contain |
specific issues addressed |
|
Who must sign the DD 2655 |
Complainant or their attorney |
|
Who must conduct the final interview and issue the Notice of Right to File within 30 days of the date the complainant brought the dispute to the EO counselor's attention? |
EO counselor |
|
What do you not inclued in the counselor's report? |
summary of resolution attempts or opinions as the whether discrimination occurred |
|
When must you submit the counselor's report to the EO director? |
within 5 calendar days from the date the formal complaint is filed |
|
At a minimum, what contents must the counselor's report include? |
Precise description of claim, specific info bearing on timeliness of contact, why process is untimely (if applicable), whether an attempt was made to resolve conflict, pertinent documents |
|
What is the purpose of the acknowledgement letter? |
Allows the complainant to know the claim was received and is being processed and informs of the next steps |
|
What is the EO director or the EO office's role in preparing the case for the formal process? |
Clarify if complaint is eligible under MSPB jurisdiction, obtain written determination, coordinate with CPS and HRO to determine if identical issues were filed under a NGP |
|
How long does the EO director have to deliver the acceptance or dismissal letter to a complainant? |
30 days from date of filing |
|
What is the EO director's responsibility to the complainant if the agency has dismissed some or all of the claims? |
Notify the complainant i writing and provide rationale for determination |
|
If the EEO agency accepts a claim, it is required to do what? |
Investigate and provide ROI |
|
What are the negative impacts of fragmentation for the complainant and for the agency/commission? |
Compromise complainants ability to present an integrated claim substantially increase workload of agency/ commission |
|
Which division of the EEO agency investigates accepted claims? |
IRD |
|
Name the 2 choices the complainant has at the conclusion of the investigation by the IRD |
request a hearing or the agency issues FAD as to whether discrimination occurred |
|
At the conclusion of the IRD investigation, list the documents AFCARO provides to complainants and their designated representatives |
Sanitized ROI and notice of hearing rights |
|
Explain what happens if the investigation is not completed in 180 days without a granted extension |
Issued sanctions fro failure to comply |
|
How soon must a complainant submit a request for a hearing from the EEOC AJ |
30 days from the day they receive notice about hearing rights |
|
When and why would an agency file an appeal to the EEOC AJ? |
Within 40 days of receipt of heaing and AJ's decision, if the agency disagrees with any part of the AJ's decision. They must appeal to the EEOC |
|
When can a complainant file a civil action in the federal court? |
Within 90 days of receipt of final action, after 180 days from date of filing, within 90 days of receipt of commissions final decision, after 180 days from the date of the filing of an appeal |
|
Define a mixed complaint |
Complaint of employment discrimination based on covered categories related to or stemming from an action that may be appealed to the MSPB. |
|
What is meant by "election" |
Whichever action the complainant filed first |
|
Define mixed case appeal |
an appeal filed directly with MSPB that alleges that an appealable agency action was effected because of unlawful discrimination |
|
If an appeal is first filed with MSPB and the agency does not dispute whether the case is appealable to the MSPB, you must advise the complainant of what? |
They must inform MSPB of discrimination claims, the agency must dismiss EEO claim on same matter, they may appeal MSPB decision to the EEOC |
|
Who can be represented in a class complaint |
Group of employees, former employees, or applicants for employment who allege to be adversely effected by the agency |
|
In a class complaint, what is meant by agent of the class? |
Member who acts for the class during processing |
|
What are the four stages in defining a class complaint |
Establishment of a class complaint, determine whether to certify complaint, get recommendation from AJ on the merits of the claim (assuming it is certified), determination of claims for relief. |
|
What is the underlying principle in the negotiated grievance procedure |
An aggrieved employee who has a choice of forums in which to proceed cannot go forward in more than one unless the agency is exempt from coverage |
|
What action must be taken if an employee first files a grievance and thereafter, files a complaint of discrimination on the same claim? |
Complaint must be dismissed without prejudice to complainants right to proceed through negotiated grievance procedure. |
|
What must the dismissal of the complaint advise the complainant |
of their obligation to raise discrimination claims in the grievance process and of the right to appeal final grievance decision |
|
Define ADR according to the AF mediation compedium |
alternative means of dispute resolution used to resolve an issue in controversy in which a neutral party is appointed and specific parties participate |
|
Does ADR replace traditional complaint resolution methods |
No |
|
Name the 5 references that apply to monetary aspects of ADR |
The Back Pay Act, The Civil Rights Act of 1964, The Civil Rights Act of 1991, The Civil Service Reform Act, The Contract Disputes Act |
|
What dos the Equal Employment Management Directive (MD-110) require of all federal agencies? |
To make ADR available during pre-complaint and formal stages of EEO process |
|
What is one of the most helpful tools at your disposal concerning ADR for AF civilian disputes? |
Air Force Mediation Compendium |
|
What is the primary purpose of ADR? |
Prompt and fair resolution for disputes that involve complaints of unlawful discrimination |
|
Name the 4 core principles of the ADR program |
Fairness, Training, Flexibility, Evaluation |
|
What is the importance of flexibility in the ADR program? |
Allow agencies to adapt to changing circumstances that could not have been anticipated or predicted |
|
What do the standards of conduct do for mediators in AF workplace disputes? |
Serve as an ethical guide, inform parties of what they should expect, promote public confidence in mediation |
|
List the 6 standards of conduct |
Self determination, impartiality, conflicts of interest, competence, confidentiality, quality of the process |
|
What is the most powerful component of mediation |
confidentiality |
|
What makes IBN preferable to the traditional position -based negotiation? |
Parties are more likely to reach resolution when their respective interests are met |
|
What is an interest? |
Basic needs to be satisfied |
|
Where do neutrals come from |
Internal collateral duty AF mediators, supplemented by contract mediators, mediators from IRD, DOD civilian personnel management service, and other federal agency mediators. |
|
Is every base required to have a locally developed ADR plan |
Yes |
|
Name at least 3 venues for marketing the ADR program |
Briefings, articles in the base paper, base website, pamphelts |
|
What is a workplace dispute? |
Written or oral, formal or informal, claim or issue in controversy that arises out of existing or perspective employment relationships |
|
What are the 2 IT systems discussed for ADR reporting |
ADR Entellitrack and AF EO IT database |
|
What does the EEOC require agencies to do for ADR? |
Establish programs and make reasonable efforts to settle disputes as early as possible |
|
Which office develops the AF ADR policy and manages the AF ADR Program |
SAF/GCR |
|
Who has the overall responsibility for the ADR program |
Installation commander |
|
Name 4 responsibilities of the EO director in the ADR process |
Make ADR available Assists ADR manager Review settlement agreements Communicate with ADR manager |
|
Who provides technical assistance and should be made available on telephone standby when ADR proceedings are underway? |
ADR support providers |
|
Can you participate in formal cases, clarification, inquiries, or inquiry assistance when you are assigned as a neutral |
No |
|
Does every installation have a bargaining unit/union? |
No |
|
What are the two ways unions can participate in the workplace mediations? |
as designated representative of employee as representative of bargaining unit |
|
Basic mediation training prepares you for what type of disputes |
Work place disputes EEO complaints Employee grievance and appeals Labor management negotiations and impasses Unfair labor practice |
|
What are three mediation refresher training topics |
Standards of conduct, confidentiality, drafting settlement agreements |
|
What is a free online course created to fulfill your 8 hours of mediation refresher training |
AF avatar |
|
What are the goals of the voluntary mediation certification process |
Recognize mediation skills, provide sufficient dispute resolution skills, and improve skills of ADR managers |
|
What are the 4 basic mediation certification levels |
I Basic, II Intermediate, III Advanced, IV Master |
|
What office is the certification authority for the mediation certification level |
SAF/GCR |
|
What are some of the requirements to achieve a level I Basic mediation certification |
Complete mediation course, demonstrate mediation characteristics and standards of conduct, be appointed by installation commander, refresher training, participate in 3 mediations |
|
|
|