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113 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The oropharynx refers to the area behind the
A. mouth B. nose C. epiglottis D. trachea |
A: mouth
The oropharynx is one of the two parts of the pharynx; the term refers to the part of the airway that is behind the mouth. |
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The purpose of listening with a stethoscope is to determine whether breath sounds are
A. strong and regular B. fast or slow C. noisy or quiet D. present and equal |
D present and equal
You listen through the chest wall with a stethoscope to determine if breath sounds are present and equal on both sides of the chest. |
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Which patient would be most likely to have a barrel chest?
A. male, age 10 months, premature birth and history of respiratory problems B. female, age 6 years, history of asthma C. male, age 48 years, history of emphysema D. female, age 70 years, recent history of pneumonia |
C. male, age 48 years, history of emphysema.
A barrel chest is associated with a long history of respiratory disease, such as bronchitis, emphysema, or chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases. |
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To determine a patient's pulse rate, you would count the number of beats in
A. 15 seconds and multiply by 5 B. 30 seconds and multiply by 2 C. 45 seconds and divide by 3 D. 60 seconds and divide by 2 |
B. 30 seconds and multiply by 2
Pulse rate is the number of beats per minute, determined by counting the number of beats in 30 seconds and multiplying by 2. When taken over thirty seconds, the final pulse rate will be more accurate, as small variations in rate are also taken into account. |
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Which statement about assessing blood pressure is correct?
A. If you obtain one normal reading, it is not necessary to reassess blood pressure. B. A single reading is not as useful as a trend. C. Variation of more than 5 mm HG from normal is significant. D. Palpate blood pressure only in a quiet place. |
B. A single reading is not as useful as a trend.
A single blood pressure reading, unless it is extremely high or extremely low, is not in itself significant. Blood pressure readings are most useful when several are taken in a relatively short time and can be compared between each other and the patient's condition. |
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The quality of a patient’s pulse consists of its strength and its
A. rate B. regularity C. pressure D. perfusion |
B. regularity
The quality of a patient’s pulse refers to strength and regularity, or rhythm. |
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The flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device is preferable to the bag-valve-
mask technique when A. the patient is a trauma victim B. the patient is an infant or small child C. only one EMT is available to ventilate the patient D. the EMT is unable to maintain an open airway |
C. only one EMT is available to ventilate the patient
The flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device is preferred when only one EMT is available; it is never used on infants or small children. |
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Which of the following is a side effect of prescribed inhalers?
A. decreased pulse rate B. wheezing C. drowsiness D. nervousness |
D. nervousness
In addition to nervousness and tremors, side effects of prescribed inhalers may include increased pulse rate and occasional nausea. |
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The tidal volume for an adult male of average size is approximately
A. 200 mL B. 400 mL C. 800 mL D. 1,600 mL |
C. 800 mL
The tidal volume, or amount of air exchanged in one breath, for a male of average size is approximately 800 mL. |
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Which patient is showing early signs of shock?
A. 23-year-old woman: pulse, 104; respirations, 25/min; BP, 118/78; cool, clammy skin B. 45-year-old woman: pulse, 68; respirations, 20/min; BP, 110/72; warm, moist skin C. 5-year-old boy: pulse, 110; respirations, 22/min; BP, 88/52; cool, dry skin D. 60-year-old man: pulse, 76; respirations, 10/min; BP, 96/60; hot, dry skin |
A. 23-year-old woman: pulse, 104; respirations, 25/min; BP, 118/78; cool, clammy skin
Patient A, with elevated pulse and respiratory rate and cool, clammy skin, is showing early signs of decreased tissue perfusion. |
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You should assess skin color by examining an adult patient's
A. extremities B. face C. nailbeds D. palms |
C. nailbeds
Assess skin color in an adult patient by examining the nailbeds, oral mucosa, and conjunctiva. |
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Which set of vital signs is within normal limits?
A. newborn: pulse, 100; respirations, 36/min; BP, 60/30 B. male, age 3: pulse, 98; respirations, 27/min; BP, 84/48 C. female, age 9: pulse, 118; respirations, 24/min; BP, 120/80 D. male, age 24: pulse, 92; respirations, 26/min; BP, 112/70 |
B. male, age 3: pulse, 98; respirations, 27/min; BP, 84/48
Patient B is closest to normal. Remember that the younger the patient, the higher the pulse/respirations and the lower the blood pressure. A single set of vital signs, unless extremely high or extremely low, is not in itself significant. Vital signs are most useful when several sets are available for comparison. |
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Which patient would be described as alert and oriented?
A. 40-year-old woman who appears to be asleep but answers when questioned B. 4-year-old who refuses to tell you his name and wants to be with his mother C. 65-year-old man who grimaces when you pinch the skin on his shoulder but does not answer when you speak to him D. 59-year-old woman who tells you her name but can't remember why you are there |
B. 4-year-old who refuses to tell you his name and wants to be with his mother
An alert child of any age will prefer his or her parent to a stranger and may refuse to answer your questions. |
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When you use the DCAP-BTLS acronym to assess patients for injuries, the P refers to
A. perfusion B. pulse C. punctures D. pressure |
C. punctures
The P in the DCAP-BTLS acronym stands for penetrations or punctures. |
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The best indication that a patient is being ventilated adequately is
A. skin color B. heart rate C. chest rise and fall D. breathing rate |
C. chest rise and fall
Although all the options are indications of adequate ventilation, chest rise is considered to be the best indicator. |
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Which patient's respiratory rate indicates inadequate breathing?
A. 60-year-old woman: 10 respirations/min B. 45-year-old man: 14 respirations/min C. 14-year-old girl: 16 respirations/min D. 7-year-old boy: 21 respirations/min |
A. 60-year-old woman: 10 respirations/min
The normal respiratory rate for an adult is 12-20 respirations/minute. |
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For which patients should you palpate the pulse in the brachial artery?
A. infants only B. infants and children C. infants, small children, and elderly people D. all patients with no palpable radial pulse |
A. infants only
Palpate the brachial pulse in infants only; for all other patients, palpate the carotid pulse if you do not feel a radial pulse. |
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The main purpose of a bulb syringe is to
A. clear large amounts of secretions B. suction newborn infants C. suction unresponsive patients D. clear thick secretions |
B. suction newborn infants
A bulb syringe is used to suction the nose and mouth in newborns and infants up to around 3 or 4 months old. |
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For an adult patient, you would deliver artificial ventilations at the rate of one breath every
A. 2 seconds B. 5 seconds C. 8 seconds D. 10 seconds |
B. 5 seconds
Deliver artificial ventilations to an adult patient at the rate of 1 every 5 seconds, or 12 per minute. |
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Your patient's vital signs are pulse, 96; respirations, 25/min; BP, 90/52. For which patient are these vital signs normal?
A. female, age 2 months B. male, age 5 years C. female, age 16 years D. male, age 27 years |
B. male, age 5 years
This set of vital signs is normal for a child who is approximately 3 to 7 years old. |
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In which situation should you assist a patient with using a prescribed inhaler?
A. Male, age 47; history of severe asthma; respirations 28/min, wheezing; unresponsive B. Female, age 6; history of upper-respiratory infection; respiratory rate 24/min; coughing C. Male, age 69; history of emphysema; difficulty breathing; inhaler was prescribed for his son D. Female, age 14; history of asthma; respirations 24/min; alert |
D. Female, age 14; history of asthma; respirations 24/min; alert
You can help a patient to use a prescribed inhaler if the patient has signs and symptoms of respiratory emergency, if the inhaler was prescribed for that patient, and if the patient is responsive. |
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To ensure that your patient does not consciously change the rate of breathing while you are assessing respirations, you should assess respirations
A. while the patient is engaged in a conversation with another EMT B. after checking the pulse, while your hand is still on the patient's wrist C. only in unresponsive patients D. immediately after entering the scene, before introducing yourself |
B. after checking the pulse, while your hand is still on the patient's wrist
One way to avoid alerting the patient that you are assessing respirations is to do so immediately after assessing the pulse, without removing your hand from the patient's wrist. |
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Most inhalers work by
A. providing moisture B. dilating the bronchioles C. increasing blood flow to the bronchioles D. increasing the respiratory rate |
B. dilating the bronchioles
Inhalers, also called bronchodilators, work by dilating the bronchioles and thus decreasing resistance inside the airways. |
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The nasopharyngeal airway is preferred over the oropharyngeal airway for responsive patients because it
A. is shorter and easier to insert B. can move the tongue out of the airway C. is unlikely to stimulate the gag reflex D. comes in a wide variety of sizes |
C. is unlikely to stimulate the gag reflex
The nasopharyngeal airway is preferable for responsive patients because it is less likely than the oropharyngeal airway to stimulate the gag reflex. |
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Nonreactive pupils may be a sign of
A. poisoning B. respiratory emergency C. head injury D. internal bleeding |
C. head injury
Nonreactive or unequal pupils may be a sign of head injury or neurological problems. |
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Another name for the windpipe is the
A. glottis B. epiglottis C. bronchus D. trachea |
D. trachea
The trachea, the passageway between the pharynx and the bronchi, is commonly known as the windpipe. |
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Your patient is a 68-year-old obese man who lives in an attic room. It is a summer day, and the patient is complaining of weakness, muscle and abdominal cramps, and rapid heartbeat. You should suspect
A. cardiac emergency B. respiratory emergency C. hyperthermia D. hypoglycemia |
C. hyperthermia
Because of the patient's age, the signs and symptoms, and his living conditions, you should suspect hyperthermia. |
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The cool, clammy skin that is a sign of shock results from
A. a rise in the patient's temperature B. the body's attempt to increase the vascular space C. decreased heart rate and blood pressure D. diversion of blood flow to the vital organs |
D. diversion of blood flow to the vital organs
In early shock (decreased tissue perfusion), the body diverts blood flow away from the skin and toward the body's vital organs, resulting in decreased peripheral circulation and cool, clammy skin. |
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Which blood vessel carries oxygen-poor blood to the heart?
A. vena cava B. aorta C. pulmonary artery D. pulmonary vein |
A. vena cava
The vena cava carries oxygen-poor blood from the body to the right atrium, so it can be transported to the right ventricle and from there to the lungs. |
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When using an AED, after delivering the third shock, you should
A. perform CPR for 1 minute B. check the patient's pulse C. analyze the rhythm D. assess ABCs and transport |
B. check the patient's pulse
Check the patient's pulse after delivering the third and sixth shock; if the pulse is absent, continue with the cycle, and if present, check ABCs and transport. |
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A stabbing victim is bleeding profusely from a wound on his upper arm. Your first action should be to
A. apply concentrated direct pressure B. apply diffuse direct pressure C. manage the airway and breathing D. elevate the limb and apply pressure points |
C. manage the airway and breathing
Always manage the airway and breathing before controlling bleeding. |
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Which statement about focused assessment of a patient with cardiac compromise is correct?
A. You cannot determine the degree of cardiac damage in the field. B. You should not ask patients about nitroglycerin use; let them volunteer the information. C. The purpose of the focused history is to determine whether to use the AED. D. Patients usually describe cardiac pain as localized on the right side and moderately severe. |
A. You cannot determine the degree of cardiac damage in the field.
It is impossible to determine the actual degree of tissue damage in the field, so the purpose of the focused assessment is to gather information for the receiving facility. |
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The most important treatment intervention for shock is to maintain an open airway and to
A. provide 100 percent oxygen B. ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask C. provide 100 mL fluid every 15 min D. splint and bandage all wounds |
A. provide 100 percent oxygen
The most important intervention for shock is to provide a high concentration of oxygen; this helps prevent cells from dying due to lack of oxygen. |
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Your patient is bleeding heavily from a single laceration on her leg. You attempt to stop the bleeding with a gloved fingertip placed over the wound but are unsuccessful. Your next step should be to
A. remove the gauze to be sure you have the right spot B. elevate the limb and apply more diffuse pressure C. use pressure points D. apply PASGs |
A. remove the gauze to be sure you have the right spot
Before taking further action in this case, be sure you are applying concentrated direct pressure to the correct location. |
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The purpose of using the PASG for a pelvic injury is to immobilize the pelvis and
A. reduce pain B. reduce internal bleeding C. help clot external bleeding D. lower the patient's blood pressure |
B. reduce internal bleeding
The purpose of using the PASG for a patient with a pelvic injury and signs and symptoms of shock is to immobilize the injury and reduce internal bleeding |
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All of the following are contraindications for administration of nitroglycerin EXCEPT that the patient
A. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mm Hg B. took a previous dose of nitroglycerin 15 minutes ago C. is not mentally alert D. is an infant or child |
B. took a previous dose of nitroglycerin 15 minutes ago
A patient may take up to three doses of nitroglycerin, each dose 3 to 5 minutes apart. |
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All of the following are signs of internal bleeding into the gastrointestinal tract EXCEPT
A. tarry stools B. coffee ground vomit C. bloody urine D. distended abdomen |
C. bloody urine
Signs of internal bleeding into the gastrointestinal tract include bloody vomit or feces, coffee ground vomit, tarry stools, and abdominal distention. |
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Angina differs from a myocardial infarction (MI) because in an attack of angina the
A. patient feels severe chest pain B. pain radiates outward from the heart C. administration of nitroglycerin gives no relief D. heart muscle is not permanently damaged |
D. heart muscle is not permanently damaged
In angina, unlike an MI, the reduced blood flow to the heart does not result in permanent damage. |
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Most of the cases of inappropriate shocks delivered by an AED have been caused by
A. faulty wiring B. stale batteries C. malfunctioning computers D. human error |
D. human error
Almost all documented cases of inappropriate shocks have been attributed to human error, such as using the AED in a moving vehicle or shocking a patient with a pulse. |
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When treating a patient who has suffered an electrical burn, you should be alert for the possibility of
A. cardiac arrest B. internal bleeding C. heat shock D. allergic reaction |
A. cardiac arrest
Electrical burns are frequently more serious than they appear from the entrance and exit wounds. Cardiac instability occasionally accompanies electrical injuries. You should be alert for the possibility of cardiac arrest and be prepared to use the AED. |
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How often should you assess the vital signs of a patient with altered mental status?
A. every 5 minutes B. every 10 minutes C. every 15 minutes D. only when you note a change in mental status |
A. every 5 minutes
Assess the vital signs of a patient with altered mental status every 5 minutes. |
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Rapid onset of altered mental status in a diabetic patient often results when the patient
A. takes an extra dose of insulin B. gets too much exercise C. skips a meal D. drinks alcohol |
C. skips a meal
Rapid onset of altered mental status in diabetic patients is associated with hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. This most commonly occurs when patients take their normal dose of insulin but skip a meal. |
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The sling and swathe is used to protect an injury to the
A. hip B. shoulder C. neck D. elbow |
B. shoulder
The sling and swathe is used to immobilize both the arm and shoulder in patients with a shoulder injury. |
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When dealing with an obviously mentally unstable patient, you should NOT
A. consider using restraints B. be alone with the patient C. request police backup D. talk to the patient |
B. be alone with the patient
For both safety and legal reasons, never remain alone with a patient whose behavior is unstable. |
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Your patient is a 19-year-old male who has been in a motorcycle crash. Vital signs are: pulse, 102 and weak; respirations, 28, shallow; BP 116/78. He has suspected spinal injury, as well as a deformed, swollen, painful right foot. Blood loss is not significant. Your care should focus on
A. immobilizing the injured foot in position of function B. immobilizing the patient and transporting him rapidly C. opening the airway and ventilating the patient D. applying the PASG and inflating all compartments |
B. immobilizing the patient and transporting him rapidly
For a patient who is showing signs of shock as well as possible spinal injury, care focuses on immobilization and rapid (but smooth) transport, rather than on caring for extremity injuries. |
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You would place your patient's foot in a position of comfort by
A. supporting the sole B. placing a roll of gauze under the sole C. pointing the toes D. flexing the foot |
A. supporting the sole
Place the foot in a position of comfort by supporting the sole so that the foot is held at a 90-degree angle from the lower leg. |
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Your patient is a 23-year-old man who has suffered possible spinal trauma while playing football. He is still wearing his sports helmet as you begin your initial assessment. You should remove the helmet if it
A. allows no movement of the head B. prevents you from assessing the airway C. permits you to immobilize the spine D. permits you to administer oxygen as needed |
B. prevents you from assessing the airway
Leave a helmet in place if it fits well, does not interfere with assessment or administration of oxygen, and the patient is not in cardiac arrest. |
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Which bone requires the greatest force to break it?
A. fibula B. femur C. radius D. ulna |
B. femur
The femur, or thigh bone, because it is extremely long and thick and well-protected by muscles, can only be broken with great force. Therefore, you should suspect a serious mechanism of injury when you encounter a patient with a possible fractured femur. |
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Your patient has a painful deformity of the right lower leg. The pulse in the right posterior tibial artery is missing. Before splinting the injured leg, you should
A. use gentle traction to attempt to align the limb B. apply a tourniquet to stop internal bleeding C. check the right brachial pulse as well D. place the right foot in the position of function |
A. use gentle traction to attempt to align the limb
When a pulse is missing distal to an injury, attempt to align the limb with gentle traction. Bringing the limb into alignment may relieve pressure on the blood vessels and restore circulation. |
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Which patient is most likely to be suffering from hypothermia?
A. 79-year-old woman: living in unheated house, outside temperature 40 degrees B. 65-year-old man: walking briskly, outside temperature 26 degrees C. 43-year-old woman: swimming actively, outside temperature 85 D. 10-year-old child: swimming actively, outside temperature 78 degrees |
A. 79-year-old woman: living in unheated house, outside temperature 40 degrees
Elderly persons are especially prone to hypothermia, even when the temperature is not extremely cold. |
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Any time a patient is found unresponsive in the water, you should first suspect
A. cardiac arrest B. spinal injury C. diabetic emergency D. allergic reaction |
B. spinal injury
The incidence of spinal injury in near-drowning victims is extremely high; always suspect spinal injury when a patient is found unresponsive in the water. |
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Patients who are in a diabetic emergency often appear to bystanders to be
A. drunk B. high C. dead D. crazy |
A. drunk
Diabetic emergency produces symptoms such as slurred speech, a staggering gait, and altered mental status. These symptons make patients appear drunk. |
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Your patient is a girl, age 2, who has injured her leg. The best way to calm her while you are examining her is to
A. explain what you are doing in technical language B. tell her that if she doesn't cooperate she won't get better C. examine her while she is on her parent's lap D. avoid telling her that the exam will hurt |
C. examine her while she is on her parent's lap
Calm a toddler by allowing her to remain with her parent and by explaining what you are doing in simple language. Warn her if something will hurt. |
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When administering oxygen via the blow-by method to a child, the flow rate should be set at
A. 5 L/min B. 10 L/min C. 15 L/min D. 20 L/min |
B. 10 L/min
When administering oxygen to a small child via the blow-by method, set the flow rate at 10 L/min; the correct rate for an infant would be 5 L/min. |
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The correct procedure for inserting an oral airway in an infant or child is to
A. use a tongue depressor to move the tongue forward, and insert the airway right side up B. tip the head back and open the mouth wide, and then rotate the airway on insertion C. lubricate the tip of the airway with sterile saline, and insert it until you feel resistance D. insert the airway with the bevel toward the base of the throat, pushing gently if you feel resistance |
A. use a tongue depressor to move the tongue forward, and insert the airway right side up
When inserting an airway in an infant or child, use a tongue depressor and avoid rotating the airway. |
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When ventilating an infant or small child with a bag-valve-mask, choose a bag with a volume of
A. 100-200 mL B. 450-750 mL C. 1000 mL D. 1600 mL |
B. 450-750 mL
The correct bag volume for an infant or small child ranges from 450 to 750 mL; 1000-mL bags are the right size for older children and adolescents. |
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The first stage of labor ends when
A. regular contractions begin B. the baby is born C. the placenta is delivered D. the cervix is fully dilated |
D. the cervix is fully dilated
The first stage of labor begins when contractions start and ends when the cervix is fully dilated. |
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Your patient is a 19-year-old woman who is experiencing profuse vaginal bleeding. Which question should you ask the patient during the SAMPLE history?
A. What's causing the bleeding? B. Has this ever happened to you before? C. Could you be pregnant? D. Are you scared? |
C. Could you be pregnant?
In a case of vaginal bleeding, it is important to find out if the patient is pregnant, since she may be experiencing a miscarriage or complication of pregnancy. |
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When is it normal for the baby's head to rotate in the birth canal?
A. during crowning B. right before the head delivers C. right after the head delivers D. as the body delivers |
C. right after the head delivers
The baby's head usually emerges face down, and the head rotates just after it emerges. |
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Fontanelles are the
A. strong contractions that signal the end of labor B. soft spots on an infant's head C. blood vessels in the umbilical cord D. special forceps doctors use to assist at a delivery |
B. soft spots on an infant's head
The fontanelles are the soft spots on the baby's head where the bony parts of the skull have not yet grown together, allowing the head to contract somewhat during delivery. |
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You would place your hand on a pregnant woman's abdomen during contractions in order to determine
A. the strength of the contractions B. the duration of the contractions C. the size of the fetus D. the fetal heart rate |
A. the strength of the contractions
If the mother's abdomen feels hard during the contractions, they are strong and birth is more likely to happen quickly. |
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Which of these situations is a true emergency that cannot be managed in the field?
A. breech presentation B. meconium in the amniotic fluid C. multiple births D. limb presentation |
D. limb presentation
A limb presentation, in which an arm or leg is the presenting part, is a true emergency situation that cannot be managed in the field. Place the mother with her pelvis elevated, exert gentle pressure on the baby's body, and transport the mother in this position. |
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An infant who has a pink body and blue extremities, a pulse rate of 110/min, moderate muscle tone, good respirations, and who cries when you suction the nose, has an APGAR score of
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
D. 8
The APGAR score would equal 8, or 1 point for Appearance (skin color), 2 points for Pulse rate, 2 points for Grimace, 1 point for Activity, and 2 points for Respirations. |
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When suctioning an infant or small child, the vacuum should be no stronger than
A. 40 to 80 mm Hg B. 80 to 120 mm Hg C. 240 to 280 mm Hg D. 280 to 320 mm Hg |
B. 80 to 120 mm Hg
When used for an infant or child, the suction pump should generate no more than 80 to 120 mm Hg pressure. |
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Your patient is an adult male who was found unconscious. He has no identification, and no one else is nearby. When you care for this patient, you are acting under the legal doctrine of
A. expressed consent B. eminent domain C. advance directives D. implied consent |
D. implied consent
Implied consent means that you assume that any rational person would consent to care under the circumstances. |
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The purpose of encoders and decoders in a radio system is to
A. avoid transmitting over other users on the same frequency B. reduce unnecessary radio traffic C. extend the range of communications D. communicate only with the base station |
B. reduce unnecessary radio traffic
The purpose of encoders and decoders, which block out transmissions not intended for the specific unit, is to reduce unnecessary radio traffic on a frequency. |
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During the scene-size-up, you should determine whether the scene is safe to enter and whether
A. you need any additional help B. you have the proper supplies C. you are in contact with dispatch D. the patient is sick or a trauma victim |
A. you need any additional help
During scene size-up, determine whether the scene is safe for you to enter and whether you will need back-up from additional EMS units or other services. |
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The acronym PERL is used to describe
A. bone density B. administration of oral glucose C. a patient's mental status D. pupil size and reactivity |
D. pupil size and reactivity
PERL is used on written records to mean Pupils Equal and Reactive to Light. |
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You should wear a high-efficiency particulate air (H.E.P.A.) respirator when you transport a patient with
A. AIDS B. severe bleeding C. shock D. tuberculosis |
D. tuberculosis
High-efficiency particulate air respirators are worn when in a confined area with patients whose diseases are spread through the air, such as tuberculosis. |
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It is necessary to wear a mask and eye protection when
A. transporting a patient B. suctioning a patient C. splinting a closed injury D. administering oxygen |
B. suctioning a patient
Wear a mask and eye protection when there is high probability of splattering, such as when suctioning a patient. |
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To be effective at preventing the spread of disease, hand-washing should last for at least
A. 5 to 10 seconds B. 10 to 15 seconds C. 15 to 30 seconds D. 30 seconds to 1 minute |
B. 10 to 15 seconds
Hand-washing should last for at least 10 to 15 seconds to be effective at stopping the spread of disease. |
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As an EMT-Basic, you can demonstrate positive professional attributes by maintaining a professional appearance and
A. carrying out the functions of a paramedic in the field whenever possible B. training bystanders to serve as EMTs in the field C. continually updating your knowledge and skills D. carrying out biomedical research to upgrade the profession |
C. continually updating your knowledge and skills
Positive professional attributes include maintaining a professional appearance and continually updating your knowledge and skills. |
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Placing a patient in the recovery position allows
A. patients to breathe more deeply B. secretions to drain more easily C. the EMT to position the airway D. the EMT to provide basic life support |
B. secretions to drain more easily
The recovery position, with the patient on the left side with the left arm under the head, allows secretions to drain more easily. |
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In which situation are gloves alone sufficient body substance isolation protection?
A. when assisting in childbirth B. when suctioning C. when stopping minor bleeding D. when transporting a patient with tuberculosis |
C. when stopping minor bleeding
Gloves alone are sufficient protection when your patient has minor bleeding; for severe bleeding, a gown, mask, and eyewear should be worn as well. |
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In some circumstances, you may legally provide confidential patient information to the receiving hospital, law enforcement agencies, or the patient's
A. insurer B. relatives C. employer D. spouse |
A. insurer
You may legally provide confidential information to the receiving facility, to law enforcement agencies or a court, and to the patient's insurance company. |
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Fontanelles are the
A. strong contractions that signal the end of labor B. soft spots on an infant's head C. blood vessels in the umbilical cord D. special forceps doctors use to assist at a delivery |
B. soft spots on an infant's head
The fontanelles are the soft spots on the baby's head where the bony parts of the skull have not yet grown together, allowing the head to contract somewhat during delivery. |
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You would place your hand on a pregnant woman's abdomen during contractions in order to determine
A. the strength of the contractions B. the duration of the contractions C. the size of the fetus D. the fetal heart rate |
A. the strength of the contractions
If the mother's abdomen feels hard during the contractions, they are strong and birth is more likely to happen quickly. |
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Which of these situations is a true emergency that cannot be managed in the field?
A. breech presentation B. meconium in the amniotic fluid C. multiple births D. limb presentation |
D. limb presentation
A limb presentation, in which an arm or leg is the presenting part, is a true emergency situation that cannot be managed in the field. Place the mother with her pelvis elevated, exert gentle pressure on the baby's body, and transport the mother in this position. |
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An infant who has a pink body and blue extremities, a pulse rate of 110/min, moderate muscle tone, good respirations, and who cries when you suction the nose, has an APGAR score of
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
D. 8
The APGAR score would equal 8, or 1 point for Appearance (skin color), 2 points for Pulse rate, 2 points for Grimace, 1 point for Activity, and 2 points for Respirations. |
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When suctioning an infant or small child, the vacuum should be no stronger than
A. 40 to 80 mm Hg B. 80 to 120 mm Hg C. 240 to 280 mm Hg D. 280 to 320 mm Hg |
B. 80 to 120 mm Hg
When used for an infant or child, the suction pump should generate no more than 80 to 120 mm Hg pressure. |
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Your patient is an adult male who was found unconscious. He has no identification, and no one else is nearby. When you care for this patient, you are acting under the legal doctrine of
A. expressed consent B. eminent domain C. advance directives D. implied consent |
D. implied consent
Implied consent means that you assume that any rational person would consent to care under the circumstances. |
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The purpose of encoders and decoders in a radio system is to
A. avoid transmitting over other users on the same frequency B. reduce unnecessary radio traffic C. extend the range of communications D. communicate only with the base station |
B. reduce unnecessary radio traffic
The purpose of encoders and decoders, which block out transmissions not intended for the specific unit, is to reduce unnecessary radio traffic on a frequency. |
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During the scene-size-up, you should determine whether the scene is safe to enter and whether
A. you need any additional help B. you have the proper supplies C. you are in contact with dispatch D. the patient is sick or a trauma victim |
A. you need any additional help
During scene size-up, determine whether the scene is safe for you to enter and whether you will need back-up from additional EMS units or other services. |
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The acronym PERL is used to describe
A. bone density B. administration of oral glucose C. a patient's mental status D. pupil size and reactivity |
D. pupil size and reactivity
PERL is used on written records to mean Pupils Equal and Reactive to Light. |
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You should wear a high-efficiency particulate air (H.E.P.A.) respirator when you transport a patient with
A. AIDS B. severe bleeding C. shock D. tuberculosis |
D. tuberculosis
High-efficiency particulate air respirators are worn when in a confined area with patients whose diseases are spread through the air, such as tuberculosis. |
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Fontanelles are the
A. strong contractions that signal the end of labor B. soft spots on an infant's head C. blood vessels in the umbilical cord D. special forceps doctors use to assist at a delivery |
B. soft spots on an infant's head
The fontanelles are the soft spots on the baby's head where the bony parts of the skull have not yet grown together, allowing the head to contract somewhat during delivery. |
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You would place your hand on a pregnant woman's abdomen during contractions in order to determine
A. the strength of the contractions B. the duration of the contractions C. the size of the fetus D. the fetal heart rate |
A. the strength of the contractions
If the mother's abdomen feels hard during the contractions, they are strong and birth is more likely to happen quickly. |
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Which of these situations is a true emergency that cannot be managed in the field?
A. breech presentation B. meconium in the amniotic fluid C. multiple births D. limb presentation |
D. limb presentation
A limb presentation, in which an arm or leg is the presenting part, is a true emergency situation that cannot be managed in the field. Place the mother with her pelvis elevated, exert gentle pressure on the baby's body, and transport the mother in this position. |
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An infant who has a pink body and blue extremities, a pulse rate of 110/min, moderate muscle tone, good respirations, and who cries when you suction the nose, has an APGAR score of
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
D. 8
The APGAR score would equal 8, or 1 point for Appearance (skin color), 2 points for Pulse rate, 2 points for Grimace, 1 point for Activity, and 2 points for Respirations. |
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When suctioning an infant or small child, the vacuum should be no stronger than
A. 40 to 80 mm Hg B. 80 to 120 mm Hg C. 240 to 280 mm Hg D. 280 to 320 mm Hg |
B. 80 to 120 mm Hg
When used for an infant or child, the suction pump should generate no more than 80 to 120 mm Hg pressure. |
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Your patient is an adult male who was found unconscious. He has no identification, and no one else is nearby. When you care for this patient, you are acting under the legal doctrine of
A. expressed consent B. eminent domain C. advance directives D. implied consent |
D. implied consent
Implied consent means that you assume that any rational person would consent to care under the circumstances. |
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The purpose of encoders and decoders in a radio system is to
A. avoid transmitting over other users on the same frequency B. reduce unnecessary radio traffic C. extend the range of communications D. communicate only with the base station |
B. reduce unnecessary radio traffic
The purpose of encoders and decoders, which block out transmissions not intended for the specific unit, is to reduce unnecessary radio traffic on a frequency. |
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During the scene-size-up, you should determine whether the scene is safe to enter and whether
A. you need any additional help B. you have the proper supplies C. you are in contact with dispatch D. the patient is sick or a trauma victim |
A. you need any additional help
During scene size-up, determine whether the scene is safe for you to enter and whether you will need back-up from additional EMS units or other services. |
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The acronym PERL is used to describe
A. bone density B. administration of oral glucose C. a patient's mental status D. pupil size and reactivity |
D. pupil size and reactivity
PERL is used on written records to mean Pupils Equal and Reactive to Light. |
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You should wear a high-efficiency particulate air (H.E.P.A.) respirator when you transport a patient with
A. AIDS B. severe bleeding C. shock D. tuberculosis |
D. tuberculosis
High-efficiency particulate air respirators are worn when in a confined area with patients whose diseases are spread through the air, such as tuberculosis. |
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Of the following, which body fluid has the most potential to transmit blood-bourne diseases?
a. nasal discharge b. vomitus c. amniotic fluid d. feces |
c. amniotic fluid
Fluids containing blood have the highest potential for disease transmission. |
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What is the best method to assess circulation in an infant?
a. Palpate the carotid pulse. b. Palpate the brachial pulse. c. Palpate the radial pulse. d. Observe capillary refill time. |
b. Palpate the brachial pulse.
Assess circulation in an infant by palpating the brachial pulse in the upper arm. The carotid and radial pulses are difficult to locate in infants. Capillary refill time shows that the patient has impaired circulation, but it is not the first tool to use in assessing circulation because it is affected by external factors (like the environment) as well as internal factors like poor perfusion. |
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Which of the following is a sign of increased pressure in the circulatory system?
a. flat neck veins b. palpable carotid pulse c. distended jugular veins d. decreased radial pulse |
c. distended jugular veins
A supine patient may or may not have jugular veins that are prominent enought to palpate. However, even if the neck veins are normally present when an individual is supine, they will not be engorged in blood and overly firm to the touch. This is what is meant by the phrase distended neck veins. Distended neck veins (in any position) are a sign of increased circulator pressure. The carotid pulse should always be palpable. A decreased radial pulse may indicate hypovolemic shock or an injured extremity. |
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You are using the OPQRST acronym to assess a responsive medical patient. What question would you ask to assess the P component?
a. What were you doing when the pain started? b. Can you describe the character of the pain for me? c. What makes the pain feel worse or better? d. On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rank the pain? |
c. What makes the pain feel worse or better?
The P component of the OPQRST acronym refers to provocation or palliation, or what makes the pain feel worse or better. |
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What is the first step in the physical assessment of an unresponsive medical patient?
a. Perform the initial assessment b. Assess a complete set of vital signs c. Position the patient to protect the airway d. Obtain SAMPLE history from a family member |
a. Perform the initial assessment
You should perform the initial assessment first, because the unresponsive patient cannot direct you to the specific complaint. Vital signs are completed during your second phase of patient assessment after you determine treatment priority and have a baseline ABC assessment. You cannot determine the appropriate course o f treatment of any airway problem (including the need for positioning-choice c) until you have first assessed the airway. The SAMPLE history is important information to gather, but it should never come before any treatment that may be needed to correct an ABC abnormality. |
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Where is a detailed physical exam typically performed?
a. at the scene of the accident or injury b. in the hospital emergency department c. in the ambulance during transport d. in the triage are of the trauma center |
c. in the ambulance during transport
The detailed physical assessment is usually performed in the back of the ambulance during transport; its purpose is to reveal hidden injuries that escaped the initial rapid assessment |
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The purpose of the ongoing assessment is to re-evaluate the patient’s condition and to
a. find any injuries missed during the initial assessment b. reassure the patient that you are still caring for him or her c. check the adequacy of each intervention performed d. protect the EMT against liability from malpractice |
c. check the adequacy of each intervention performed
The purpose of ongoing assessment is to check the adequacy of your initial interventions. The detailed examination is designed to find missed injuries. |
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A condition of the eye in which the internal pressure increases and the patient’s sight worsens is called
a. cataracts b. glaucoma c. Marfan syndrome d. pinkeye |
b. glaucoma
In glaucoma, high pressure distorts the optic disk and damages the optic nerve if the aqueous humor is not removed rapidly enough |
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The first step in artificial ventilation with a bag-valve-mask unit in patients with no suspected trauma is to
a. position the mask correctly on the face using both hands b. place the patient’s head in a hyperextended, sniffing position c. insert an airway adjunct and select the correct mask size d. have an assistant squeeze the bag until the patient’s chest rises |
b. place the patient’s head in a hyperextended, sniffing position
Correct order of steps would be b,c,a,d |
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When suctioning a patient, how far should you insert a soft suction catheter?
a. as far as you can see b. as far as the base of the tongue c. until resistance is encountered d. past the vocal cords |
b. as far as the base of the tongue
Choice a is correct for a rigid catheter, choice c is the correct method for inserting an oropharyngeal airway, and choice d is applicable only to endotracheal intubation |
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If a patient has a radial pulse, you can expect a systolic blood pressure of at least
a. 100 mm Hg. b. 80 mm Hg. c. 60 mm Hg. d. 70 mm Hg. |
b. 80 mm Hg.
While only an estimate, it is assumed that a blood pressure of at least 80 mm Hg would be required in order to palpate a pulse at the wrist |
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A patient should receive high-flow oxygen if he or she exhibits
a. fever b. anxiety c. dehydration d. cyanosis |
d. cyanosis
Cyanosis, or a bluish coloration of the mucus membranes and skin, is caused by inadequate oxygen supply to the body tissues; the other choices are unrelated to oxygen supply |
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A bulb syringe is used to suction infants up to the age of
a. 1 month b. 3-4 months c. 6-8 months d. 1 year. |
b. 3-4 months
A bulb syringe is used to suction an infant’s nasal passage or mouth and is generally used with infants up to 3-4 months. If you are using mechanical or hand-powered suction equipment in infants of this age, be very careful to use the lowest possible pressures needed to accomplish the job. |
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The right ventricle pumps blood into the
a. body via the aorta b. lungs via the pulmonary vein c. lungs via the pulmonary artery d. left atrium |
c. lungs via the pulmonary artery
The right ventricle receives oxygen-poor blood from the right atrium. It then pumps the blood to the lungs via the pulmonary artery, where it receives oxygen and releases carbon dioxide |
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A bystander is performing CPR when you arrive. You evaluate the scene, practice body substance isolation, and begin your initial assessment by having the bystander
a. verify pulselessness b. continue CPR. c. stop CPR d. provide a history of cardiac arrest |
c. stop CPR
Having the bystander stop CPR will allow you to reassess the patient’s ventilatory and circulatory status. This will tell you whether you need to continue CPR or whether the patient has regained a pulse or is breathing |
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Your patient is restless, anxious, and complaining of thirst. She exhibits increased heart rate and pale, clammy skin. You should do all the following EXCEPT
a. maintain an open airway and provide oxygen b. elevate her legs if not contraindicated c. cover the patient with a blanket to keep her warm d. give the patient small amounts of liquid to drink |
d. give the patient small amounts of liquid to drink
This patient has the classic signs and symptoms of shock. Do not offer anything to eat or drink to a patient you suspect of being in shock, since surgery may be necessary later. |
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What is the reason for stopping CPR before applying the AED?
a. to give the patient a chance to breathe on his or her own b. to allow the ACLS system to take over patient care c. to allow the EMT to verify pulselessness and apnea d. to allow other rescuers to get out of the way |
c. to allow the EMT to verify pulselessness and apnea
Stop CPR briefly to verify pulselessness and apnea. Once you have the leads ready for placement on the chest wall, you should stop CPR, clear away from the patient, attach the AED leads, and perform the initial analysis. Resume CPR after the first round of shocks if they were unsuccessful and the patient persists in pulselessness. Stop CPR again every time you deliver shocks. |
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What does Newton’s second law of motion explain?
a. an object will remain at rest or continue to move at a constant velocity unless a resultant force acts on it. b. net force on an object is proportionate to its mass multiplied by its acceleration c. for every force acting on an object, the object will exert an equal yet opposite force on its cause d. what goes up must come down |
b. net force on an object is proportionate to its mass multiplied by its acceleration. Choice a describes Newton’s first law, and choice c describes his third law.
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