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370 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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* What is the instruction for EAWS?
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OPNAVINST 1414.2A
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Who is the SECNAV?
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Gordon England
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Who is the SECDEF?
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Donald Rumsfeld
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* What are the six areas of Naval Doctrine?
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1. Command and Control 2. Operations 3. Warfare 4. Logistics 5. Intelligence 6. Planning
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* Who is the CO of USS Carl Vinson?
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Captain Wren
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* Who is the MCPON?
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MC Scott
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* Who is the CNO?
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ADM Vern Clark
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* Who is the CMC?
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MC Rose
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* State the 3 different methods for controlling bleeding
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Tourniquet, Direct, and Indirect pressure
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* Describe the symptoms for shock
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Rapid, weak pulse; profuse sweating; dilated pupils; pale, cold and clammy skin; etc…
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* How many classes of burns are there?
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3: 1st degree, 2nd degree, and 3rd degree
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* Describe Hypothermia
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Cooling of the body caused by falling temperatures. Limbs are rigid, blue, etc…
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* Who must comply with safety regulations and report safety hazards?
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All Hands
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* How often does the enlisted safety committee convene?
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Monthly
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* What does the Enlisted Safety Committee discuss?
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Safety related concerns and issues involving the command
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* What is the biggest contributor to aviation mishaps?
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Human Error
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* What is a Class A mishap?
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Material property damage of 1 million or more. Could also be death or permanent disability
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* What is a Class B mishap?
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Property damage of $200,000 + but less than 1 million. Could also be permanent partial disability
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* What is a Class C mishap?
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Property damage of $10,000 - $200,000. Could also be 5 lost working days or more.
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* What is a Class D mishap?
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Property damage less than $10,000 or a non-fatal injury that doesn’t meet Class C criteria
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* What is ORM?
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Operational Risk Management
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* How many Fleet Commanders are there?
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4: Atlantic, Pacific, Europe, and MSC(Military Sealift Command)
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* Is the SECNAV a civilian or a military official?
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Civilian
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* Navy commands must have what # of people in order to have a CMC billet?
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250
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* What is the Navy’s Birth Date?
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13 October 1775
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* What is the biggest contributor to aviation mishaps?
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Human Error
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* What is a Class A mishap?
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Material property damage of 1 million or more. Could also be death or permanent disability
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* What is a Class B mishap?
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Property damage of $200,000 + but less than 1 million. Could also be permanent partial disability
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* What is a Class C mishap?
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Property damage of $10,000 - $200,000. Could also be 5 lost working days or more.
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* What is a Class D mishap?
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Property damage less than $10,000 or a non-fatal injury that doesn’t meet Class C criteria
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* What are the 3 levels of war?
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Tactical, Operational, and Strategic
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* What was significant about the Battle of Coral Sea?
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Japanese and American fleets never saw each other. War was fought with planes. The US carrier Lexington was sunk.
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* What was significant about the Battle of Midway?
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American war planes were able to sink all 4 of the Japanese carriers while the US only lost the Yorktown
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* What was significant about 8 May 1911?
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Navy purchased it’s first aircraft(the Triad)
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* What was the first aircraft carrier?
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USS Langley(CV-1)
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* What are the 3 levels of war?
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Tactical, Operational, and Strategic
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* What was significant about the Battle of Coral Sea?
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Japanese and American fleets never saw each other. War was fought with planes. The US carrier Lexington was sunk.
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* What was significant about the Battle of Midway?
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American war planes were able to sink all 4 of the Japanese carriers while the US only lost the Yorktown
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* What was significant about 8 May 1911?
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Navy purchased it’s first aircraft(the Triad)
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* What was the first aircraft carrier?
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USS Langley(CV-1)
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* What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
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FJ-1 Fury
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* What US naval carrier was the first to receive a jet aircraft landing?
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USS Boxer(CV-21)
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* Who was the first naval aviator in space?
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Alan Shepard
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* What rate is an AC?
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Air Traffic Controller
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* What is an AME?
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Aviation Structural Mechanic – Safety Equipment
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* AM’s are divided into how many ratings?
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3: AME, AMS, and AMH
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* What are the 2 enlisted aviation ratings that do not begin with an ‘A’?
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PR and PH
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* What is Bernoulli’s principle?
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When fluid flows through a constricting line the speed increases as the pressure decreases
ple? |
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* What is a Small Craft wind warning?
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Wind speeds below 33 knots
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* What is a Gale warning?
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Wind speeds from 34 to 47 knots
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* What is a Storm warning?
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Wind speeds above 48 knots
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* How fast are the winds during a Hurricane?
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64 knots or more
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* What are the 3 different axis in relation to aircraft aerodynamic terms?
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Longitudinal, Lateral, and Vertical
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* Pitch is movement along what axis?
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Lateral axis
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* Yaw is movement along what axis?
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Vertical axis
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* Roll is movement along what axis?
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Longitudinal axis
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* What are aircraft Slats?
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Attached to leading edge of wing to help control below normal speed landings. Can be extended or retracted.
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* Name some of the components of landing gear
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Strut, Tire, Wheel Brake, Retracting and Extending mechanism
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* Name the 5 basic sections of a jet engine
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Intake, Compressor, Combustion, Turbine, and Exhaust
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* Name the 4 different types of engine systems
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Turbojet, Turbofan, Turboprop, and Turboshaft
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* Why is JP5 used onboard instead of other JP fuels?
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JP5’s minimum flashpoint of 140 degrees F meets naval approval onboard ships
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* What is an NDI inspection?
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Non-Destructive Inspection used to provide 100% evaluation of a part by using liquid penetrant, ultrasound, eddy current, etc…
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* The Pitot-Static on an A/C contains what 3 indicators?
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Altimeter, Airspeed, and Rate-of-Climb indicators
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* What is IFF?
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Identification Friend or Foe
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* What does RADAR stand for?
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Radio Detection and Ranging
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* What does Ohm’s Law state?
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E=IR (Voltage equals Current times Resistance)
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* What is the speed limit within 50’ of an A/C?
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5 MPH
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* What is the speed limit on a runway?
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10 mph
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* What is the towing speed of an A/C?
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5 mph or as fast as the slowest walker
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* Name the 4 categories of tie down requirements
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Initial, Intermediate, Permanent, and Heavy Weather
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* What constitutes a full flight deck uniform?
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Cranial, jersey, goggles, flotation gear, whistle, flight deck shoes, survival light, sound attenuators
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* A runway # of 18 means the approach end of the runway is how many degrees on the magnetic compass?
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175 degrees(if the last digit is a 5 or above round up) or above but no greater than 180
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* A military airport has what color beacons?
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2 alternating white and 1 green
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* A civilian airport has what color beacons?
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1 green and 1 white
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* What is TACAN?
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Tactical Air Navigation – provides pilot with bearing and distance to TACAN station
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* What is a VAQ squadron?
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EA-6B used for electronic countermeasures
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* What modification of the SH-60 Helo do we carry onboard?
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SH-60F
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* VFA squadron is what type of aircraft?
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F/A-18
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* VF squadron is what type of aircraft?
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F-14
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* What is a VP squadron?
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P-3 Orion
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* What is an SH-60F used for?
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Submarine Warfare
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* What is a VS squadron?
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S-3 Viking
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* Both the S-3 and the P-3 can be used for what?
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Antisubmarine warfare
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* What kind of ship is an LCC?
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Amphibious Command Ship
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* What is an AOE ship?
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Oiler/Ammunition Ship
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* Which ship has a floodable deck well?
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LSD
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* What is an LPD ship?
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Amphibious Transport Dock
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* What is an AFS ship?
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Combat Stores Ship
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* What is an ASR ship?
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Submarine Rescue Ship
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* What is an AD ship?
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Destroyer Tender
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* What is an SSBN?
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Ballistic Missile Submarine(Nuclear)
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* What is the difference between an SSBN and a SSN?
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SSBN has a strategic mission and is on constant patrol
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* What does CBR stand for?
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Chemical, Biological, and Radiological warfare
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* What is the designation of the CBR protective mask used onboard?
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MCU-2/P
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* What can be used to treat the initial symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
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Atropine/2 Pan chloride
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* What are the 4 different types of chemical agents?
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Nerve, Blister, Blood, and Choking
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* Of the different types of nuclear explosions which one causes the worst fallout?
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Surface burst
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* What does MOPP stand for?
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Mission Oriented Protective Posture
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* How many MOPP levels are there?
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4
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* At which MOPP level does the ship go to GQ?
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MOPP level 3
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* What does NATOPS stand for?
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Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
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* What is the purpose behind the NATOPS program?
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Standardize procedures for operating naval aircraft to reduce aircraft mishaps and improve combat readiness
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* Under NATOPS, what does the word ‘Shall’ mean?
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A procedure that is mandatory
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* A warning under NATOPS could cause what?
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Injury or death
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* Aircraft assigned under COMNAVAIRLANT are identified by what means?
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First character “A – M”; second character “A – Z”
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* What are the 4 different types of chemical agents?
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Nerve, Blister, Blood, and Choking
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* Of the different types of nuclear explosions which one causes the worst fallout?
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Surface burst
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* What does MOPP stand for?
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Mission Oriented Protective Posture
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* How many MOPP levels are there?
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4
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* At which MOPP level does the ship go to GQ?
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MOPP level 3
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* Which ship has a floodable deck well?
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LSD
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* What is an LPD ship?
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Amphibious Transport Dock
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* What is an AFS ship?
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Combat Stores Ship
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* What is an ASR ship?
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Submarine Rescue Ship
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* What is an AD ship?
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Destroyer Tender
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* Which ship has a floodable deck well?
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LSD
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* What is an LPD ship?
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Amphibious Transport Dock
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* What is an AFS ship?
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Combat Stores Ship
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* What is an ASR ship?
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Submarine Rescue Ship
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* What is an AD ship?
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Destroyer Tender
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* Aircraft assigned to COMNAVAIRPAC are identified by what means?
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First character “N – Z”; second character “A – Z”
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* Who is the XO of CVN-70?
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CDR Manazir
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* What are some of the duties of the Ombudsman?
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Keeps CO informed of problems command families are facing and to provide various services to families
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* What does DAPA stand for?
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Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor
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* What does CMEO stand for?
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Command Managed Equal Opportunity
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* An honorable discharge requires a performance average of at least what?
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2.7
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* A good conduct requires what performance average or above?
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3.0
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* Good conduct awards are given how often?
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Every 3 years
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* Break down this Date Time Group(DTG): 250701ZAUG00
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25 = calendar day; 0701 = time; Z = Greenwich time; AUG = month; 00 = year
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* What part of a naval message is known as the body?
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Text
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* What 4 or 5 digit code on a message stands for the subject of a document?
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SSIC(Standard Subject Identification Code)
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* Page 2 of your service record contains what?
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Emergency data such as beneficiary and addresses
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* What is a Page 13?
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Administrative remarks
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* What is a MOVREP(movement report) used for?
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Lets higher authorities know the location of the ship
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* What are the 5 types of MOVREP’s?
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Departure, Arrival, Position, Cancellation, and Change of Status
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* What is a LOGREQ(logistics requirement) used for?
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Lets a command know prior to a ship pulling into it’s port the logistic requirements needed while the ship is in port
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* What is a SITREP(situation report) used for?
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Used to report crime onboard, sexual harassment, suicide, etc…
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* What does NAMP stand for?
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Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
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* What is the purpose of the NAMP?
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To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards
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* How many volumes to the NAMP?
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5
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* What does Vol. II cover?
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Depot level maintenance
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* Vol. III of the NAMP covers what?
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Maintenance Data Systems(MDS)
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* Vol. V of the NAMP covers what?
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Naval Aviation SOP’s
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* What are the 3 levels of maintenance?
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Organizational, Intermediate, and Depot
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* Who’s the head man in an IMA(Intermediate Maintenance Activity)?
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MO(Maintenance Officer)
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* Which division in an IMA schedules the workload and controls production for the other IMA divisions?
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Production Control
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* How long is a Daily Inspection on A/C good for?
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72 hours provided no flights occur
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* When is a Turnaround Inspection done on A/C?
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Between flights
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* When is a Special Inspection conducted on A/C?
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During prescribed intervals such as 7 days, 28 days, 50 hours, 100 hours, etc…
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* What is an A/C logbook used for?
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Contains history of A/C such as maintenance, flight time, repair and rework, inventory, etc…
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* Who is authorized to sign A/C logbook entries?
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Anyone designated in writing by the CO. It’s usually the MO, Maintenance Senior Chief Petty Officer, and Maintenance Chief Petty Officer
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* What is an IPB?
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Illustrated Parts Breakdown that shows parts plus part #’s for all parts on A/C for which the IPB was issued for
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* What are MIM’s?
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Maintenance Instruction Manuals
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* What is the concept behind the QA(Quality Assurance) program?
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Prevention of the occurrence of defects
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* What is a QAR?
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Quality Assurance Representative
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* Which division in an IMA schedules the workload and controls production for the other IMA divisions?
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Production Control
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* How long is a Daily Inspection on A/C good for?
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72 hours provided no flights occur
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* When is a Turnaround Inspection done on A/C?
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Between flights
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* When is a Special Inspection conducted on A/C?
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During prescribed intervals such as 7 days, 28 days, 50 hours, 100 hours, etc…
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* What is an A/C logbook used for?
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Contains history of A/C such as maintenance, flight time, repair and rework, inventory, etc…
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* What is a CDI and what does he do?
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Collateral Duty Inspector – inspects work to ensure QA compliance
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* What does MMP stand for?
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Monthly Maintenance Plan
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* What is contained in the MMP?
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Upcoming requirements, flight hours, chain of command, upcoming CDI audits, list of qualified CDI’s for each workcenter, etc…
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* What does NALCOMIS stand for?
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Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
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* What is the purpose of NALCOMIS?
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It’s a computer based program used by IMA activities to collect, process, store, review, and report data to support NAMP requirements
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* What is the most valuable form that can be generated on NALCOMIS for use by the workcenter?
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MAF – Maintenance Action Form
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* What kind of data blocks can you find on a MAF?
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WUC: Work Unit Code, JCN: Job Control Number, MCN: Maintenance Control Number, W/D: When Discovered code, T/M: Type Maintenance code
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* What is an SMQ(special maintenance qualification) used for in relation to NALCOMIS?
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Used to grant individuals certain access within NALCOMIS to maintain security
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* What is the responsibility of Material Control?
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To ensure workcenters are able to order and obtain the correct parts to complete the maintenance task
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* What kind of items can be procured with the OPTAR fund?
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Aviation fuel, flight deck shoes, liquid oxygen, liquid nitrogen, consumable office supplies, aerial film, publications, and flight deck PPD
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* What kind of items can be purchased with the Aviation Fleet Maintenance fund?
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Paints, test bench repair parts, oils, MAF bags, condition code tags, consumable tools, flight clothing, and fuels for SE
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* When receiving or sending, what must accompany the material?
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MILSTRIP document DD 1348
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* What is the ICRL and it’s use?
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Individual Component Repair List – shows what the IMA is allowed to repair by part #
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* What is the CRIPL and it’s use?
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Consolidated Remain-In-Place List – contains a list of all parts that do not have to be turned into Supply before the replacement part is ordered
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* How many digits in an NSN?
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13
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* What do the first 4 and last 9 digits in an NSN classify?
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First 4 make up the FSC(Federal Supply Code) and the last 9 make up the NIIN(National Item Identification Number)
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* What does AWP mean?
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Awaiting Parts
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* What is IMRL and it’s purpose?
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IMRL = Individual Material Readiness List. Shows the SE requirements(quantity and type) to support material readiness
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* What does EXREP stand for?
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Expeditious Repair
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* FYI – Items on the EXREP get priority repair due to the A/C not being able to perform part or all of it’s missions
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* What should be submitted if a broken, stolen, or lost tool is discovered?
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* What should be submitted if a broken, stolen, or lost tool is discovered?
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DD Form 200
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* List various forms and items that can be found in the flight packet which are issued to pilots making extended flights
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DD 1348(requisitioning parts), SF 44(Procure supplies), DD 1896 or DD 1897(Procure jet fuel), VIDS/MAF, SF 95(Claim of Damage), SF 94(Statement of Witness), fuel sample log sheets, and MRC’s
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* What are the 6 categories of HM(Hazardous Material)?
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1. Flammables 2. Toxic material 3. Corrosives 4. Oxidizers 5. Aerosols 6. Compressed gases
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* What is the AUL(authorized user list) used for in relation to HM?
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Shows what HM an activity is allowed to acquire for local use
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* What are the PPE requirements when handling HM/HW?
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Eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves
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* Who is the top dog in the Engineering department?
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CHENG(Engineering Officer)
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* What divisions make up engineering?
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A = Auxiliaries, R = Repair, E = Electrical
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* Who is responsible for damage control onboard CVN-70?
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DCA(Damage Control Assistant)
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* Who is responsible for CBR defense?
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DCA
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* Where is steam stored before it goes to the catapults for launch?
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Steam Accumulators on the 01 level
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* What are the ranges of HP and LP air?
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HP = 1,000+ psig/ LP = 0-150 psig
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* What are some uses for LP air?
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Laundry, laboratories, hospitals, pneumatic tools, and various shops
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* What type of switchboards does CVN-70 have?
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450 volt dead-front type
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* Heavy cylinders arranged in pairs are called what in relation to ground tackle?
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Bits
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* A heavy fitting with a smooth surface in which a mooring line may pass is called what?
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Chock
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* How many anchors does CVN-70 have and how much do they weigh?
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2 – each weighs 30 tons
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* Each shot of anchor chain splayed out equals how many feet/fathoms?
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90 feet or 15 fathoms
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* How are the detachable links colored on the anchor chain?
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Red, White, and Blue then back to Red
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* How many shots per anchor chain?
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12 shots
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* What are the parts of a Chain Stopper?
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Pelican Hook, Shackle, Turnbuckle, Toggle Pin
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* What are the ranges of HP and LP air?
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HP = 1,000+ psig/ LP = 0-150 psig
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* What are some uses for LP air?
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Laundry, laboratories, hospitals, pneumatic tools, and various shops
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* What type of switchboards does CVN-70 have?
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450 volt dead-front type
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* Heavy cylinders arranged in pairs are called what in relation to ground tackle?
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Bits
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* A heavy fitting with a smooth surface in which a mooring line may pass is called what?
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Chock
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* What are the ranges of HP and LP air?
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HP = 1,000+ psig/ LP = 0-150 psig
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* What are some uses for LP air?
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Laundry, laboratories, hospitals, pneumatic tools, and various shops
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* What type of switchboards does CVN-70 have?
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450 volt dead-front type
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* Heavy cylinders arranged in pairs are called what in relation to ground tackle?
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Bits
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* A heavy fitting with a smooth surface in which a mooring line may pass is called what?
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Chock
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* How many anchors does CVN-70 have and how much do they weigh?
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2 – each weighs 30 tons
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* Each shot of anchor chain splayed out equals how many feet/fathoms?
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90 feet or 15 fathoms
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* How are the detachable links colored on the anchor chain?
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Red, White, and Blue then back to Red
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* How many shots per anchor chain?
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12 shots
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* What are the parts of a Chain Stopper?
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Pelican Hook, Shackle, Turnbuckle, Toggle Pin
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* What can be used to hold the anchor and chain or to slow the descent of the anchor when being splayed out?
|
Anchor Brake
|
|
|
* What are the 3 methods used for RAS(Replenishment At Sea)?
|
UNREP, VERTREP, and CONREP
|
|
|
* Who orders abandon ship?
|
CO
|
|
|
* How many phases are there for abandoning ship?
|
3 phases
|
|
|
* What are some items that can be found with each inflatable life boat?
|
Signal mirror, flashlight, whistle, food rations, first aid kit, distress signal, and a dye sea marker
|
|
|
* Name some watch personnel you can find on the Bridge
|
OOD, Lookouts, Conning Officer, BMOW, Helmsman, Lee Helmsman, QMOW
|
|
|
* List a few conditions that may warrant an emergency breakaway during UNREP
|
Steering casualty, man overboard, enemy detection nearby, emergency launch or recovery of A/C
|
|
|
* What are the 3 common types of man-overboard recovery?
|
Helo, small boat, and coming alongside
|
|
|
* What is the Oscar Flag used for?
|
Used for man overboard
|
|
|
* What is the Five Flag used for?
|
Breakdown
|
|
|
* What is the Papa Flag used for?
|
Personnel recall back to ship
|
|
|
* What is the Code Pennant Alpha used for?
|
Divers are in the water
|
|
|
* What are the 3 types of visual communications?
|
1. Flags/Pennants/Day Shapes 2. Flashing light 3. Semaphore
|
|
|
* Of the 3 types of visual communications, which one is the most secure and why?
|
Semaphore – much faster, several ships can receive the same message at once, staffs and flags are all that’s required
|
|
|
* List the Administrative Bills
|
Berthing, Maintenance, and Cleaning
|
|
|
* List the Operational Bills
|
Boat Bill, Civil Disaster, Cold Weather, and Darken Ship
|
|
|
* List the Emergency Bills
|
General Emergency, A/C Crash and Rescue, Emergency Steering
|
|
|
* What does the Watch, Quarter and Station bill contain?
|
List of personnel by division, berthing assignment, work space, GQ station, and Watch stations
|
|
|
* How many CONFLAG stations do we have onboard?
|
1 for each hangar bay
|
|
|
* How fast can the deck edge elevator doors be opened or closed?
|
28 seconds
|
|
|
* How fast can the hangar deck ballistic doors(doors that divide the hangar bays) be opened or closed?
|
28 seconds
|
|
|
* Condition I for fixed wing aircraft means what?
|
A/C shall be spotted on the catapult and all flight stations manned up
|
|
|
* Condition II for fixed wing aircraft means what?
|
Flightcrews are to be near A/C
|
|
|
* Condition III for fixed wing means what?
|
Flightcrews geared up and standing by in the ready rooms
|
|
|
* Condition IV for fixed wing means what?
|
Same as Cond. III except minor maintenance can be performed on the A/C
|
|
|
* What is the designation for the A/C tiedown chain and it’s SWL(safe working load)?
|
TD-1A/B: SWL of 10,000 pds
|
|
|
* How many lengths does the ALBAR(Adjustable Length Towbar) come in?
|
9ft, 15ft, 20ft, and 25ft
|
|
|
* How many people does it take to move an A/C and what are their positions?
|
6 - Director, Safety Observer, Wing Walkers x 2, Chockman, and a Brake Rider
|
|
|
* Of the following personnel list the color of jersey worn by each member: 1. Plane captain 2. Chockman 3. Crash and salvage 4. Fuels 5. LOX 6. Plane director 7. LSO 8. Troubleshooter
|
1. Brown 2. Blue 3. Red 4. Purple 5. White 6. Yellow 7. White 8. Green
|
|
|
* Who wears a yellow jersey with a blue vest?
|
Tractor King
|
|
|
* Who wears a white jersey with no cranial?
|
LSO(Landing Signal Officer)
|
|
|
* Who wears a green jersey with a red cranial?
|
Helo LSE(landing signal enlisted)
|
|
|
* What color is the foul line on the flight deck?
|
Alternating red and white segments. Runs parallel to the ship’s runway
|
|
|
* What is the wheel-stop coaming?
|
Raised outer edge of the flight deck
|
|
|
* What is painted on the flight deck to indicate an access ladder?
|
2’’ wide white stripe shaped like a rectangle that’s the same width as the access ladder
|
|
|
* Which upper stage ordnance elevators serve the flight deck?
|
Upper Stages 1, 2, and 4
|
|
|
* What is used to smother a fire in the catapult trough?
|
Steam
|
|
|
* What color is painted on the coaming to indicate a steam smothering valve?
|
18’’ black stripe with the word ‘STEAM’ stenciled in white
|
|
|
* What is used in an emergency when an aircraft cannot make a normal pendant arrestment?
|
Barricade
|
|
|
* What is the designation of the arresting gear engine?
|
MK 7
|
|
|
* How many arresting gear engines do we have onboard CVN-70?
|
1 for each deck pendant and 1 for each barricade
|
|
|
* What is the reeve ratio for the MK 7 arresting gear engine?
|
18:1
|
|
|
* Pads that help minimize damage to the purchase cable and deck pendants are called what?
|
Impact Pads
|
|
|
* The retractable deck sheaves can be operated by what 2 means?
|
Electric motor or handwheel
|
|
|
* The launch bar on an A/C is connected to what in order for the A/C to be catapulted off the deck?
|
Shuttle
|
|
|
* What propels the shuttle forward to launch the A/C?
|
2 pistons assemblies per catapult
|
|
|
* When an A/C is about to be launched, what protects personnel from the hot exhaust gases being emitted from the A/C?
|
JBD(Jet Blast Deflector)
|
|
|
* What stops the shuttle and the piston assemblies once they reach the end of the power stroke?
|
Water Brake Cylinder
|
|
|
* What test can be performed to cycle the catapult and associated components?
|
Catapult No-Load Test
|
|
|
* An enclosure that can be retracted into the deck and houses the catapult-officer control console and monitor control console is called what?
|
ICCS(Integrated Catapult Control System)
|
|
|
* What is FLOLS and who’s responsible for it’s operation?
|
Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System – operated by the Air Boss
|
|
|
* What is one of the worst hazards during thunderstorm flying?
|
Hail
|
|
|
* How many turbulence classes are there?
|
4
|
|
|
* Which turbulence class is the airspeed fluctuation between 5 and 15 knots?
|
Light
|
|
|
* Which turbulence class is the airspeed fluctuation above 50 knots?
|
Extreme
|
|
|
* During Case I flight operations, how high is the cloud ceiling and what is the visibility range?
|
Ceiling = 3,000 ft or more Visibility = 5 Nautical Miles
|
|
|
* What are the conditions for Case II flight operations?
|
Ceiling above 1,000 ft Visibility 5 nm
|
|
|
* What are the conditions for Case III flight operations?
|
Ceiling is below 1,000 ft Visibility 5 nm ½ hr after sunset or ½ hr before sunrise
|
|
|
* How many different controllers are in CATCC?
|
4: Departure, Marshal, Approach, and Final
|
|
|
* What is the term applied when the flight deck is kept ready to launch and recover A/C at short and irregular intervals of time?
|
Flex Deck
|
|
|
* Define the term Ramp Time
|
Time specified by the Air Boss for the first recovering A/C to hit the ramp
|
|
|
* What duties does the LSO(Landing Signal Officer) have?
|
Responsible for visual control of the A/C in the terminal phase of approach immediately prior to landing
|
|
|
* The Bullseye is displayed by what instrumental device installed onboard ships?
|
AN/SPN-41
|
|
|
* The AN/SPN-46 is also known by what other 2 names?
|
PALS(Precision Approach Landing System) or the Easy Rider
|
|
|
* What does TARPS stand for and what A/C is it used on?
|
Tactical Air Reconnaissance Pod, used on the F-14
|
|
|
* In relation to AIMD, what 3 check lists should the jet engine test facility custodians have?
|
Start up, Shutdown, and Emergency procedures
|
|
|
* ALSS stands for what?
|
Aviation Life Support System
|
|
|
* What type of gear can you find in the ALSS rotatable pool?
|
Escape systems, environmental systems, fire extinguishing systems, aircrew clothing, parachutes, life rafts, etc…
|
|
|
* What type of A/C equipment does the AESR(Aeronautical Equipment Service Record) pertain to?
|
Power plants and propellers
|
|
|
* What is SEAOPDET?
|
Sea Operational Detachment
|
|
|
* What 2 corrosion publications does the ERT(Emergency Reclamation Team) use?
|
NAVAIR 01-1A-509 and the NAVAIR 16-1-540
|
|
|
* What are MEPP’s used for?
|
Mobile Electric Power Plant – used to supply electrical power to A/C for testing
|
|
|
* What is the designation of the A/C spotting dolly?
|
A/S32A-33
|
|
|
* What is the max lifting capacity of the A/S32A-33?
|
16,000 pds
|
|
|
* The NS-60 aircraft crash crane has a lifting capacity of how many pounds?
|
60,000 pds
|
|
|
* What are the 2 categories of Aircraft Armament Equipment(AAE)?
|
1. Aircraft Inventory Material 2. Mission-Oriented Material
|
|
|
* What is the difference between both types of AAE?
|
Aircraft Inventory Material is semipermanently attached to the A/C and is transferred along with the A/C. Mission-Oriented Material is assigned to and configured by the AIMD
|
|
|
* The SSC(Supply Support Center) is composed of what 2 sections?
|
1.SRS(Supply Response Section) 2. CCS(Component Control Section)
|
|
|
* SRS is divided into how many units?
|
6
|
|
|
* CCS is divided into how many units?
|
4
|
|
|
* Which unit of SRS is responsible for the verification of requisition data?
|
TRU(Technical Research Unit)
|
|
|
* Which CCS unit is responsible for the processing of all items received from the AIMD after the repair cycle?
|
SSU(Supply Screening Unit)
|
|
|
* What is the FEDLOG(Federal Logistics) used for?
|
Used to cross-reference part #’s and NSN’s, obtain management data, freight standards, and identify the source of supply
|
|
|
* What is the AVCAL used for?
|
Aviation Consolidated Allowance List – list of A/C materials that are needed to support maintenance requirements for a specified mix of A/C for a predetermined period of time
|
|
|
* What instruction covers the Explosives Handling Personnel Qualification and Certification Program?
|
OPNAVINST 8023.2
|
|
|
* How many classifications of HERO is there?
|
1. HERO safe 2. HERO unsafe 3. HERO susceptible
|
|
|
* What is TALD?
|
Tactical Air Launched Decoy
|
|
|
* What are the different guidance systems a missile can incorporate?
|
Active, Passive, or Semiactive
|
|
|
* How many Upper and Lower stage elevators are on CVN-70?
|
4 Upper Stage 6 Lower Stage
|
|
|
* In relation to ordnance, what color identifies high explosives?
|
Yellow
|
|
|
* If the weapon is gray in color and has a red band, what does that signify?
|
The weapon contains an irritant agent
|
|
|
* What does the color brown signify in relation to ordnance?
|
Rocket Motors/Low explosives
|
|
|
* What stations are manned in PRI-FLY?
|
Air Boss, Mini Boss, Sound Powered Phone Talker, FLOLS controller, Status Board Keeper
|
|
|
* What stations are manned in Flight Deck Control?
|
A/C handling officer, Fuels rep, Phone talkers, Elevator operators, CAG rep, GSE trouble shooters, Weapons rep, Corpsmen, Crash and Salvage
|
|
|
* The Catapult and Arresting Gear officer is what division officer?
|
V-2 Division
|
|
|
* What is the name of the cable that spools out of the retractable deck sheaves once the tailhook of the A/C catches the deck pendant?
|
Purchase Cable
|
|
|
* Inside the arresting gear engine the ram acts against what to slow the forward motion of the A/C?
|
Hydraulic Fluid
|
|
|
* The primary control for the FLOLS is in PRI-FLY. Where is the secondary control?
|
FLOLS control room in 03-123-12-Q
|
|
|
* If the FLOLS should ever be inoperable, what device can be used in it’s place?
|
MOVLAS(Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System)
|
|
|
* What television system is used for recording A/C launch and recovery operations under both day and night conditions for post flight analysis and evaluation?
|
ILARTS(Integrated Launch and Recovery Television System)
|
|
|
* Why are there 2 types of arresting barricades?
|
One for jet engine a/c One for prop engine a/c BONUS: One for training
|
|
|
* What division of air department is aviation fuels?
|
V-4
|
|
|
* How often is the Aviation Fuels Security Watch stood when not at flight quarters?
|
24 hours a day
|
|
|
* What are the 3 causes of nearly all a/c handling mishaps/incidents?
|
Poor supervision 2. Disinterest 3. Disregard of applicable handling instructions
|
|
|
* What is METOC and what is their duty?
|
Meteorology and Oceanography – collect, interpret, and disseminate weather info
|
|
|
* What does CATCC stand for?
|
Carrier Air Traffic Control Center
|
|
|
* Who’s in charge of CATCC?
|
AirOps Officer
|
|
|
* Name the positions manned in CATCC
|
Air Ops Officer, Assistant Air Ops Officer, Watch Officer, Supervisor, Plotters, Board Keepers, Launch/Land Recorder
|
|
|
* What are some of the duties of the ATO(Air Transfer Officer)?
|
Safe and orderly handling of all COD/VOD passengers, mail, and cargo arriving or departing the carrier
|
|
|
* What is CDC?
|
Combat Direction Center
|
|
|
* How many warfare modules does CDC encompass?
|
7
|
|
|
* What are the duties of CDC?
|
Detection, evaluation, and reporting of air, surface, and subsurface contacts to the appropriate control stations
|
|
|
* Who gives the orders in CDC?
|
TAO(Tactical Action Officer)
|
|
|
* What are the duties of Strike Ops?
|
Planning daily a/c operations to support the requirements of the Battle Group Commander and writing the Air Plan
|
|
|
* What is CVIC and their responsibilities?
|
Carrier Intelligence Center – brief and debrief pilots, collection and display of intelligence info
|
|
|
* What 3 departments does an IMA (Intermediate Maintenance Activity) normally consist of?
|
AIMD 2. Supply 3. Weapons
|
|
|
* What unit screens all components to determine if the IMA activity has the capability to repair, test, or check the part?
|
AMSU(Aeronautical Material Screening Unit)
|
|
|
* What is METCAL and it’s purpose?
|
Metrology and Calibration Program – ensures items that require a calibration are within established tolerance limits
|
|
|
* What is the SE Misuse/Abuse report?
|
OPNAV 4790/108
|
|
|
* What are the responsibilities of SSC?
|
Processing all items received from the AIMD after the repair cycle
|
|
|
* How many warfare modules does CDC encompass?
|
7
|
|
|
* What are the duties of CDC?
|
Detection, evaluation, and reporting of air, surface, and subsurface contacts to the appropriate control stations
|
|
|
* Who gives the orders in CDC?
|
TAO(Tactical Action Officer)
|
|
|
* What are the duties of Strike Ops?
|
Planning daily a/c operations to support the requirements of the Battle Group Commander and writing the Air Plan
|
|
|
* What is CVIC and their responsibilities?
|
Carrier Intelligence Center – brief and debrief pilots, collection and display of intelligence info
|
|
|
* What are the duties of SRS?
|
Processing material requirements, transmit material requests to other on-station supply processing points as required, and delivery of parts
|
|
|
* List all the divisions in the Weapons Department along with their function
|
G-1: Flight deck, Bomb Farm, Pyrotechnics G-2: Ship’s armory, .50 cal mounts, small arms G-3: Magazine spaces, Bomb assembly and stowage G-4: Weapons elevators G-5: Ordnance Control and Ammo Accounting EOD: Explosive Ord. Disposal
|
|
|
* Which a/c has a radar that is capable of surveying thousands of square miles of air space?
|
E-2C Hawkeye
|
|
|
* What are 2 types of Electronic Countermeasures(ECM)?
|
Passive(cannot be detected) Active(can be detected)
|
|
|
* Which type of radar moves only as necessary to stay fixed on the target?
|
Fire Control radar
|
|
|
* The F-14 has how many seats?
|
2
|
|
|
* The F/A-18 can carry up to how many pounds of ordnance?
|
17,000 pds
|
|
|
* What is the designation of the 20mm a/c gun system?
|
M61A1
|
|
|
* How many barrels does the M61A1 have?
|
6
|
|
|
* What system is used to process acoustic data in real-time or fast-time display?
|
FTAS(Fast Time Analyzer System)
|
|
|
* Which type of a/c houses the MAD system to detect submerged contacts?
|
S-3B
|
|
|
* Which a/c houses the LAMPS Mark III weapons system?
|
SH-60
|
|
|
* Which 2 a/c onboard CVN-70 can be used to carry and launch torpedoes?
|
S-3B and the SH-60
|
|
|
* What is the designation of the primary torpedoes used today?
|
MK-46 and the MK-50
|
|
|
* Which a/c has long-range early warning, and a command-data link to the F-14?
|
E-2C Hawkeye
|
|
|
* On which a/c is the HARM(High Speed Anti-Radiation Missile) the primary surface attack weapon?
|
EA-6B Prowler
|
|
|
* Which a/c employs a long range dipping sonar?
|
SH-60
|
|
|
* What type of ships have powerful radars to detect surface contacts?
|
Surface Combatants’ ship
|
|
|
* What system allows target data to be displayed to other ships equipped with the same system?
|
NTDS(Naval Tactical Data System)
|
|
|
* What does AGM mean in relation to ordnance and give 2 examples
|
Air to Ground Missile: 1. AGM-88(HARM) 2. AGM-84(HARPOON)
|
|
|
* What are the .50 cal mounts used for?
|
Point defense against swimmers and small boats
|
|
|
* How many .50 cal mounts are onboard CVN-70?
|
10
|
|
|
* What does NSSMS stand for?
|
Nato Sea Sparrow Missile System
|
|
|
* What type of sea sparrow missile is used in the NSSMS launchers?
|
RIM-7
|
|
|
* How many NSSMS mounts do we have and how many tubes per mount?
|
3 mounts – 8 tubes each
|
|
|
* What does CIWS stand for?
|
Close-In Weapon System
|
|
|
* How many CIWS mounts does CVN-70 have?
|
4 mounts - #’d 21-24
|
|
|
* What type of ammunition is used in the CIWS mounts?
|
20mm
|
|
|
* What is BFIMA?
|
Battle Force Intermediate Maintenance Activity – includes all members of the battle force than can provide I-level repair capabilities
|
|
|
* What is the organizational breakdown of the carrier air wing?
|
Air Wing 2. Air Wing Commander 3. Air Wing Staff 4. Squadrons
|
