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355 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
State the three objectives of first aid.
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save life, prevent further injury, and prevent infection.
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state the methods of controlling bleeding.
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direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and as a last resort, tourniquet.
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what are the 11 principle point on each side of the body?
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facial artery (jaw), superficial temporal(temple), subclavian (collar bone), common carotid (neck), brachial (inner elbow), radial/ulnar (wrist), femoral (upper thigh), iliac (groin), popliteal (knee), anterior/posterior tibial (ankle)
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____ is a disruption of the circulatory system.
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shock
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what are the symptoms of shock?
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vacant or lackluster eyes, shallow or irregular breathing, cold, pale skin, nausea, and weak or absent pulse.
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describe the treatment for shock
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lay the victim down with the feet elevated 6-12 inches. cover them to maintain body heat.
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what are the 3 classifications of burns?
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superficial, partial thickness, and full thickness
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describe a superficial burn.
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mildest, producing redness, increased warmth.
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describe a partial thickness burn.
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red and blistered skin.
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describe a full thickness burn.
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destroyed tissue, skin and bone in severe cases.
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________ is a serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart and lungs.
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Heat exhaustion
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describe the symptoms of heat exhaustion.
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the skin is cool, moist, and clammy, and the pupils dilated and normal or subnormal body temp.usually the victim is sweating profusely.
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describe the treatment for heat exhaustion.
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move the victim to a cool or air conditioned area; loosen clothing; apply cool wet cloths.
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describe heat stroke
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the body's cooling mechanism has completely shut down and has lost the ability to sweat- need to cool fast.
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state the difference between an "open" and "closed" fracture.
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a "closed" or "simple" fracture is entirely internal, the bone is broken. an "open" or "compound" fracture is one in which there is an open wound in the tissue or skin.
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describe personnel rescue for electric shock.
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DO NOT TOUCH. turn off the current immediately, if cannot find the switch, try to remove the wire from the victim with a non-conducting object.
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describe treatment for electric shock
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administer artificial ventilation. if no pulse, start CPR immediately. get the victim to a medical facility immediately.
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describe the methods for clearing an obstructed airway.
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finger sweep only if you see the object, abdominal thrust, reclining thrust.
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____ is cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to cold moisture, snow or ice. the victim may appear pale and uncoscious, and may even be taken for dead.
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hypothermia
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______ is ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
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superficial frostbite.
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_____ is ice crystals forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees.
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deep frostbite
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define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety Program.
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the primary objective is to preserve human and material resources.
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safety responsibilities of the commanding officer?
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absolute responsibility for the safety of crew.
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the ____ ____ ____ is the principle advisor to the CO on all aviation safety matters.
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Aviation Safety Officer
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The ____ ____ ____ is the principle advisor to the CO n all ground safety matters.
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Ground Safety Officer
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the ___ _____ ensures that all persons within the dept. and all other others concerned strictly observe all safety precautions.
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Department Head
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the ____ ____ will ensure that personnel comply with all safety instructions.
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Division Officer
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the ____ ____ is a central point for all safety related matters or concerns within a work center.
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Safety Petty Officer
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____ ____ will comply with established safety standards, and report hazards and mishaps in accordance with their Command Safety Program.
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All hands
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explain the functions of the Safety Council/ Enlisted Safety Committee.
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to set goals, manage assets, and review safety related recommendations.
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Almost a part of every mishap; causes an alarmingly high number of mishaps:
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human error
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includes improper maintenance, improper priority assignments on work requests, or lack of proper quality assurance:
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maintenance and support factors
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mishaps can result from an improper level of supervision or failure to require personnel to meet personnel qualification standards:
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administrative and supervisory factors
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faulty designs, defective manufacture, or repair:
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material failures or malfunctions
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extreme exposure to heat, cold, vibration, noise, illumination, radiation, or atmospheric contaminants:
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environmental factors
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the resulting total cost of reportable material property damage is $1,000,000 or more; or an injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.
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Class A mishap
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the resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $200,00 or more, but less than $1million; or an injury or occupational illness reults in permanent partial disability, or 3 or more personnel are hospitalized.
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Class B mishap
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reportable material or property damage is $10,000 or more, but less than $200,000. non-fatal injury.
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Class C mishap
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the reulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is less than $10,000 or a non-fatal injury (no time lost or first aid case) that does not meet the criteria of a Class C mishap
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Class D mishap
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to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel systems:
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Aviation Gas-Free Engineering Program (AVGFE)
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to cause life-threatening electric shock, burns, bioligical changes, and cataracts, premature or unwanted activation of electro-explosive devices in ordinance:
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hazards of Radio Frequency (RF)
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___ ___ ___ are used to devote time to safety training, awareness, and enhancement of the command safety climate.
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safety stand downs
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___ ___ ___ is a systematic, decision making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.
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Operational Risk Management (ORM)
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what are the 5 steps of ORM?
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Identify hazards, assess hazards, make risk decisions, implement controls, and supervise
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An _____ chain from the president through the secretary of defense to a commander of a unified or specified command to the assigned operational forces.
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Operational
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an _____ chain through the secretary of the navy and the chief of naval operations to the operating forces
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Administrative
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what are the six areas of naval doctrine?
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naval warfare, naval intelligence, naval operations, naval logistics, naval planning, naval command and control
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___ ___ describes the inherent nature and enduring principles of naval forces
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naval warfare
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___ ___ points the way for intel support in meeting the requirements of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.
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naval intelligence
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___ ___ develops doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and Marine Corps expeditionary maritime traditions.
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naval logistics
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___ ___ examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities and operational planning in the joint and multinational environment.
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naval planning
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___ ___ and ___ provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information needs of commanders, forces, and weapon systems
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naval command and control
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how does naval aviation support warfare?
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reconnaissance/ surveillance, antisubmarine, amphibious assault, logistics support, search and rescue, and mine warfare
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___ and ___ includes the search for and interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy, used in support of military operations and tasks.
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reconnaissance and surveillance
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___ is used to locate and destroy submarines in naval aviation.
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antisubmarine
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an ___ ___ involves taking of an area of land where the land and sea meet.
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amphibious assault
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___ ___ involves the transport of troops, personnel, and cargo or equipment where needed by the miltary
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logistics support
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naval aircraft and helicopters may be assigned to ___ and ___ of downed, stranded, or disable military personnel either by land or sea.
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search and rescue
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___ ___ is the use of ships, aircraft, submarines, and helicopters to locate and destroy enemy mines.
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mine warfare
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state and describe the three levels of war:
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1) tactical- the details of individual engagements
2) operational- concerns forces collectively in a theater 3) strategic- focuses on supporting national goals |
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explain how Naval Intelligence Operations, more than any other service, support peace time operational decision making.
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intelligence is central to the decision making process and enhances training.
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state the mission of Naval Logistics
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provide and sustain operational readiness
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state the importance of planning to Naval Operations
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responses to a situation threatening U.S. interests.
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7-8 May 1942: first aviation battle vs. Japanese, aircraft were carrier based
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Battle of Coral Sea
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3-5 June 1942: Loss of 4 Japanese carriers and large amount of aircraft was the turning point in the pacific
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Battle of Midway
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13-15 November 1942: Sullivan Brothers died-5
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Battle of Guadalcanal
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what is the significance of 8 May 1911 as it applies to Naval Aviation
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Captain W.I. Chambers prepared requisitions for two Glenn Curtiss biplanes, cost $5500 and was the birth of Naval Aviation
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what was the first aircraft carrier?
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U.S.S. Langley
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what was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
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FJ-1 Fury, 10 March 1948 made its first carrier landing on the USS Boxer (CV-21)
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who was the first naval aviator in space?
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5 May 1961; Alan Shephard
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an object to remain at rest or to continue is motion unless acted upon by and outside force:
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inertia
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the rate of change of the speed and/or velocity of matter with time:
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acceleration
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the rate of movement or motion in a given amount of time:
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speed
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the quickness or speed of an object in a given time; such as miles per hour:
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velocity
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an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by and outside force:
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Newton's first law
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an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or accleeration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved:
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Newton's second law
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states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction:
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Newton's third law
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states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and and its pressure decreased.
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Bernoulli's Principle
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destructive weather poses a significant threat to personnel, aircraft, ships, installations, and other resources:
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wind warning
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warning for harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34 to 47 knots.
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Gale
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warning for harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 48 knots or greater
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storm
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warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 33 knots or less
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tropical depression
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warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34 to 63 knots.
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tropical storm
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warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 64 knots or greater
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hurricane/ typhoon
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small scale storms, invariably produced by a cumulonimbus cloud and always accompanied by lightening and thunder.
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thunderstorms/tornado warnings
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a violently rotating column of air, usually in the form of a funnel, extending from a thunderstorm cloud to the ground
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tornado
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thunderstorms are within 3 miles of the airfield, or in the immediate area
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thunderstorm warning
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thunderstorms with wind gusts to 50 knots or greater and/or hail of 3/4 inch in diameter or greater is forecast to impact the warning area
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severe thunderstorm warning
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tornadoes have been sited or detected by RADAR in or adjacent to the warning area, or have a strong potential to develop in the warning area.
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tornado warning
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the force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. it counteracts the effects of weight.
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lift
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the force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft.
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weight
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the force that tends to hold an aircraft back. this is caused by the disruption fo the air about the wings, fuselage or body, and all protruding objects on the aircraft.
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drag
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the firce developed by the aircraft's engine, and it acts in the forward direction. this must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained.
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thrust
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an imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail.the axizs about which roll occurs
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longitudinal axis
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an imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings and about which pitch occurs
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lateral axis
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an imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft.l the movement associated with this axis is yaw.
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vertical axis
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state the three primary movements of aircraft about the axis
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pitch, yaw, and roll
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what are the primary flight controls for a fixed wing aircraft?
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1. lateral control, 2. longitudinal control 3. directional control
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what are the primary flight controls for a rotary wing aircraft?
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1. cyclic pitch 2. collective pitch 3. rotary rudder
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this gives the aircraft extra lift or reduce the landing speed:
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flap
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this is used to decrease wing lift
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spoiler
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this is hinged or movable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircraft
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speed brakes
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these are movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing. at low airspeeds, this improves the lateral control handling characteristics at airspeeds below the normal landing speed.
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slats
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provides stability of the aircraft about its lateral axis.
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horizontal stablizer
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maintains the stability of the aircraft about its vertical axis
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vertical stabilizer
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this counteracts the torque action fo the main rotor by producing thrust in the opposite direction, also controls the yawing action of the helicopter
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tail rotor
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the angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow of air
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angle of attack
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a method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power by making use of the reversed airflow up through the rotor system to reduce the rate of decent
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autorotation
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list the components of a basic hydraulic system:
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a reservoir, pump, tubing, selector valve, and an actuating unit
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what are the main components of landing gear?
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shock strut assembly, tires, wheel brake assembly, retracting and extending mechanism, side struts and supports
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state the safety precautions used when servicing aircraft tires on aircraft
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always approach the tires from fore and aft. when inflating, stand off to the side. deflate when removing from aircraft.
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state the 5 basic sections of a jet engine:
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intake, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine section, exhaust
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describe the intake of a jet engine:
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allows outside air or ambient air to enter the engine
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describe the compressor of a jet engine:
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provides high -pressure air to the combustion chamber
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describe the combustion chamber of a jet engine:
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fuel combine with the compressed air, then burned
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describe the turbine section of a jet engine
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drives the compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion gases
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describe the exhaust of a jet engine
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direct exhaust gases away from aircraft
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projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity (jets):
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turbojet
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delivers power through a shaft to drive transmission (helicopters):
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turboshaft
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propulsion is accomplished by the conversion of the gas-energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller:
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turboprop
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basically the same as a turbo prop except that the propeller is replaced by a duct enclosed axial-flow fan.
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turbofan
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this is used during takeoff and combat maneuvering to boost the normal thrust rating of a gas turbine engine through additional burning of the remaining unused air in the exhaust section:
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afterburner
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has a flamespread rate of 700-800 feet per minute and a low flashpoint of -10 degrees F or -23 degrees C
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JP4 - F40
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has a flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 140 degrees F or 60 degrees C.
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JP5 - F44
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has a flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 100 degrees F or 40 degrees C
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JP8 - F34
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describe the 3 hazards associated with jet fuel.
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eye, skin irritant, inhalation hazard
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desribe the symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation:
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nausea, dizziness, and headaches. fuel vapor inhalation can cause death.
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these power units furnish electrical power when engine-driven generators are not operating or when external power is not available
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Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
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these methods may include visual, optical, liquid penetrant, magnetic partivle, eddy current, ultrasonic, radiographic, etc.
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methods for Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI)
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this includes some of the instruments that operate on the principle of the barometer.the three indicators are the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and the rate-of-climb indicator
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pitot-static
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this displays the speed of the aircraft in relation to the air in which it is flying:
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airspeed indicator
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this shows the height of the aircraft above sea level
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altimeters
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this indicator shows the rate at which an aircraft is climbing or descending.
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rate-of-climb
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shows the pilot the relative position of the aircraft compared to the earth's horizon.
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attitude indicator
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this showsthe correct execution of a turn and bank. it also shows the lateral attitude of the aircraft in straight flight.
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turn and bank indicator
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these systems and instruments dirct, plot, and control the course or position of the aircraft. these may include the radios, transmitters, TACAN, LORAN, etc.
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navigation
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this is an electronic system that allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically before approaching near enough to threaten the security of other naval units.
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identification friend or foe (IFF)
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this is mounted on the instrument panel. the face of it is read like the dial of a gauge.
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magnetic (standby) compass
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a radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually possible
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radio detection and ranging (RADAR)
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radio equipmet does not require interconnecting wires between the sending and receiving stations
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communication systems
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free-falling explosive weapon and may be unguided or "smart" or guided:
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bombs
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weapon containing an explosive section and a propulsion section. is unable to change its direction of movement once fired.
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rockets
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a vehicle containing an explosive section, propulsion section, and guidance section. it is able to change direction or movement after being fired
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missiles
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an underwater explosive put into position by surface ships, submarines, or aircraft
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mines
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self-propelled underwater missiles used against surface and underwater targets
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torpedoes
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protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value.
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circuit breaker
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a protective device inserted in-line with a circuit
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fuse
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E=IR
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Ohm's Law
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the "driving force" behind current. designated by the letter (E).
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voltage
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the flow of electrons. designated by the letter (I)
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current
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the opposing force to the flow of electrons. designated by the letter (R)
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resistance
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name the 4 categories of tie down requirements
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initial-4, intermediate-8, permanent-12, heavy weather-16-18
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state the purpose of the emergency shore based recovery equipment
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this is to minimize the chance of an accident that could cause injury to the pilot and crew or damage to the craft
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what is the purpose of the MA-A1 barrier
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designed to stop aircraft not equipped with tail hooks but the aircraft must have a nosewheel for the barrier to be effective
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what is the minimum PPE on the flight line and ramp areas during flight operations?
|
cranial, jersey, goggles, sound attenuators, flight deck shoes, flotation gear, survival light, whistle
|
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describe the runway numbering system:
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runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees.
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these markings designate the landing area:
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threshold markings
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runway lights are installed to provide visual guidance at night under low-visibility conditions during aircraft takeoff and landing operations. taxiway lights are blue.
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runway/taxiway marking system
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an area where ordnance is changed from a state of a safe condition to a state of readiness and vice versa
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arm/dearm areas
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provides a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft.
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overrun area
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required for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft
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parking apron
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provides a method for prompt issuance of wind directions and velocities to pilots
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wind indicator
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when the airport is below VFR weather conditions, the this is used to identify the airport's location during darkness and daylight hours.
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airfield rotating beacon
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a coordination device between the radar controller and the control tower
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tower visual communications
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____ uses a bearing determining system to determine aircraft position and distance from a ____ station. the primary navigation aid used by carrier based aircraft.
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tactical air navigation (TACAN) system
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within the ship damage control organization is the crash, salvage, and rescue team. this team is the flight deck repair team
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crash/rescue team
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a paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated. a minimum of one area is provided at each airport
|
compass calibration pad
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a deignated area which is used for the servicing of aircraft with liquid oxygen (LOX)
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liquid oxygen (LOX) exchange area
|
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AE (aviation capable ship)
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ammunition ship
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AO/AOE (aviation capable ship)
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oilers/oiler and ammunition support ships
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CG (aviation capable ship)
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guided missile cruiser
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CV/CVN (aviation capable ship)
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carrier/nuclear powered carrier
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DD/DDG (aviation capable ship)
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destroyer/ guided missile destroyer
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FFG (aviation capable ship)
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guided missile frigates
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LCC (aviation capable ship)
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amphibious command ship
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LHA (aviation capable ship)
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amphibious assault ship
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LHD (aviation capable ship)
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amphibious warfare ship
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LPD (aviation capable ship)
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amphibious transport dock
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LSD (aviation capable ship)
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dock landing ship
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MCS (aviation capable ship)
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mine countermeasures support ship
|
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intentional use of lethal or nonlethal chemical agents to produce casualties
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chemical warfare
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intentional use of living organisms to disable or destroy people or their domestic animals, to damage their crops, and/or to deteriorate their supplies
|
biological warfare
|
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the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury and death in man
|
radiological warfare
|
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gas mask, it protects your face, eyes, nose, throat and lungs from inhaling CBR agents
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MCU-2/P protective mask
|
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an overgarment that is treated with chemicals that neutralize blister agent vapors and sprays but do not stop penetration by liquid agents
|
chemical protective overgarment
|
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worn over other types of clothing, wet-weather clothing protects impregnated and ordinary clothing and skin from penetration by liquid agents and radioactive particles
|
wet-weather clothing
|
|
used for specific therapy for nerve agent casualties. issued in automatic injectors for intramuscular injection self-aid or first aid
|
Atropine/ 2 Pan chloride (oxime) autoinjector
|
|
the self-reading pocket dosimeter is an instrument about the size and shape of a fountain pen. measures exposure to radiation over a period of time, not dose rates at any given time
|
IM-143 pocket dosimeter
|
|
this is in the nonself-reading category; is the high-range casualty dosimeter, which must be placed in a special radiac computer-indicator to determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed.
|
DT-60 personnel dosimeter
|
|
list the 4 types of chemical casualty agents and their physical symptoms:
|
a. choking agents
b. nerve agents c. blood agents d. blister agents |
|
in a nuclear explosion, the point of detonation is at an altitude in excess of 100,000 feet
|
high altitude air burst
|
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immediately after a nuclear explosion, a huge, intensely hot fireball is formed. the fireball does not touch the earth's surface.
|
air burst
|
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produces the worst fallout in a nuclear explosion. the fireball touches the ground. vast amounts of surface material is vaporized and taken into the fireball.
|
surface burst
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in a nuclear explosion, it creates a large bubble or cavity, which, upon rising to the surface, expels steam, gases , and debris into the air with great force.
|
shallow underwater burst
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burns caused by a nuclear explosion are primary and secondary. primary burns are a direct result of the thermal radiation from the bomb. blindness is normally of a temporary nature.
|
flash burn/blindness
|
|
particles must be taken into the body through ingestion or cuts.
|
alpha radiation
|
|
dust or dirt, come in contact with the skin or inside the body. will cause skin burns.
|
beta radiation
|
|
can pass right through a body without ever touching it.
|
gamma rays
|
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captured in atoms of various elements in the body, atmosphere, water or soil
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neutrons
|
|
produced by high altitude, air and surface bursts. these large transient currents may burn out electronic or electrical equipment. the electric field component may also produce transient signal overloads and spurious signals on communication nets and in computer-driven systems.
|
electromagnetic pulse (EMP)
|
|
the loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack.
|
blackout
|
|
instructions prescribe general flight and operating instruction and procedures applicable to the operation of all naval aircraft and related activities.
|
NATOPS
|
|
what does the acronym NATOPS stand for?
|
naval air training and operating procedures standardization
|
|
explain general aircraft prestart precautions
|
a. aircraft shall be chocked and the parking brake set
b. check for FOD c. ensure area clear of personnel |
|
an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed
|
WARNING
|
|
an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed
|
CAUTION
|
|
an operating procedure, practice or condition, etc., that must be emphasized
|
NOTE
|
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means a procedure that is mandatory
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SHALL
|
|
means a procedure that is recommended
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SHOULD
|
|
means procedure is optional. may include "need not".
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MAY
|
|
indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
|
WILL
|
|
this is intended to evaluate individual and unit compliance by observing and grading adherence to NATOPS procedures.
|
NATOPS evaluation
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state the purpose of master flight files
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the master flight files shall be the only official flight record of naval aircraft
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record of emergency data (beneficiary)
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Page 2
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Enlisted Qualifications History, for enlisted members. it is a chronological history of occupational and training related qualifications, awards, and commendations.
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Page 4
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administrative remarks in member's record
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Page 13
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a monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel. lists all individuals assigned and provides a summary of the present and future manning status.
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enlisted distribution verification report (EDVR)
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court memorandum; page 7 of the enlisted service record. it shall be used to record court-martial and nonjudicial punishment, which affect pay.
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report and disposition of offense
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used by any unit to provide the national command authorities and appropriate naval commanders with immediate notification of any accidental or unauthorized incident involving a possible detonation of a nuclear weapon which could create the risk of outbreak of nuclear war.
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operational report (OPREP)
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this is the primary source of location information concerning ships
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movement report (MOVEREP)
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submitted by a ship prior to entering a port to notify the proper commands of its logistics requirements while visiting that particular port. it should be transmitted to arrive at the destination port no later than 48 hours prior to the ship's arrival.
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logistical requirements (LOGREQ)
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lets upper chain know what status of command qualifications is and a need for training requirements
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status of requirement and training support (SORTS)
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used by any commanding officer, officer-in-charge, or other commander to provide apporpreate operational commanders and higher authority with timely notification of any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria.
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situation report (SITREP)
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concepts, policies, organizations, maintenance support procedures, and organizational and intermediate level maintenance. (NAMP)
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Vol. I
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depot level maintenance (NAMP)
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Vol. II
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maintenance data systems (MDS) (NAMP)
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Vol. III
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aviation 3M data processing requirements (NAMP)
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Vol. IV
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what volume of the NAMP is the NAMSOP in?
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Vol. V
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what are the three levels of aviation maintenance?
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organizational
intermediate depot |
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maintenance, which is performed by an operating unit on a day-by-day basis in support of its own operations (upkeep)
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organizational maintenance
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consists of on and off equipment material support
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intermediate maintenance
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rework maintenance is also known as?
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depot level maintenance
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this person is responsible for the accomplishment of the department mission:
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maintenance officer (MO)
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assistant head of the maintenance department. he/she shall assist the MO in the performance of duties and keep the MO fully informed oof matters concerning the department. he receives the same training, and is qualified under the same guidelines as the MO.
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aircraft maintenance officer (AMO)
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this person is responsible for the overall production and material support of the department:
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maintenance/material control officer (MMCO)
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this person is a supply corps officer assigned to a deployable squadron. they manage the tool control program:
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material control officer (MCO)
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they will strive to maintain full mission capable aircraft:
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maintenance control
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they will strive to process items reveived to keep all non-mission capable and partial-mission-capable parts processed and back to the respective command in a timely fashion.
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production control
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they will provide all administrative functions of the maintenance department including the preparation of messages, processing of incoming messages and reports, maintaining instructions, etc.
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maintenance administration
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this is the single-source document for recording flight data and is applicable in specific areas to aircraft simulators.
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NAVFLIRS
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what does NAVFLIRS stand for?
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naval flight records subsystem
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1. a statistical description of the flight pertaining to the aircraft and crew members
2. a record of all logistic actions performed during the flight. 3. a record of weapons proficiency 4. a record of training areas utilized and other miscellaneous data. |
NAVFLIRS
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this person has duties and responsibilities that are established by U.S. Navy regs, general orders, customs, and tradition. they are ultimately responsible for those under his or her command and their actions
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commanding officer (CO)
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this person is the direct representative of the CO
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executive officer (XO)
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this person is the enlisted advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of policies pertinent to morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization and training of all enlisted personnel.
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command master chief/ senior chief
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this person is the representative of the CO in matters pertaining to the department
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department head
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what does CMEO and EOPS stand for?
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command managed equal opportunity officer/ equal opportunity program specialist
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this person is responsible under the department head, for the duties assigned to the division and for the conduct of subordinates.
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division officer (DIVO)
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the person assists the divo in administering, supervising, and training division personnel
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leading chief petty officer (LCPO)
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this person will assist the LCPO and DIVO
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leading petty officer (LPO)
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his or her primary job is to respond to the hour-by-hour work center functions
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work center supervisor
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this person runs the ship or squadron's career counseling program, and makes sure that current programs and opportunities are available to all crewmembers
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command career counselor
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this person is the link between the command and families of command personnel. the CO appoints them after consultations with various advisors
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ombudsman
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they provide financial counseling to members in their command. this may include budgets, financial planning, investment opportunities, debt consolidation, etc.
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financial specialist
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advises the CO/XO on drug and alcohol abuse aboard ship and approaches necessary to cope effectively with the problem
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drug and alcohol program advisor (DAPA)
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keeps the CO/XO advised as to all matters of security. work in close relation with squadron duty officers and the entire duty section.
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security manager
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this person provides career information to the squadron, work centers, and divisions.
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career information program management (CIPM) program manager
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a person has special problems that will require special help. these problems should be handled by specialists such as the chaplain, legal, and/or medical officer (type of counseling)
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personnel counseling
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counsel your personnel on a regular basis to let them know how they are doing and where they need to improve (type of counseling)
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performance counseling
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single most important factor in determining who will be selected for advancement. eval marks are as follows: 4.0= EP, 3.8=MP, 3.6=P, 3.4=progressing, 2.0=significant problems
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advancement evaluations
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these will not be awarded to anyone with a performance evaluations mark below 3.0 or prior non-judicial punishment (NJP) or courts-martial conviction
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good conduct awards
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includes the date and time expressed in Greenwich Mean Time. it is expressed in 6 digits, the first 2 digits being the day, the next 4 digits being the time, followed by a zone suffix, usually expressed in Zulu, or Greenwich time. the last part is the date and year.
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date time group
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the 4 or 5 digit number that stands for the subject of a document.
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standard subject identification code (SSIC)
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this is conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth. it is valid for 72 hours, provided taht no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing is performed. if flight then only good for 24 hours after flight begins.
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daily inspection
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conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verify proper servicing, and detect degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight. good for 24 hours, provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other that servicing was performed.
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turnaround inspection
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this is an inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily, calendar or phase
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special
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unscheduled conditions requiring an inspection such as a bird strike inspection, lightening strike inspection, hard-landing, inspection, foreign object damage (FOD) inspection.
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conditional inspection
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this inspection divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages, or phases of the same work content
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phase inspection
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performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft
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acceptance inspection
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performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or support equipment
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transfer inspection
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a depot level evaluation of the aircraft's general material condition
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aircraft service period adjustment (ASPA)
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this is used to determine whether the airframe, powerplant, accessories and equipment are functioning in accordance with predetermined standards, which subjected to the intended operating environment
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functional check flight (FCF)
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provides service activities with a standard system of field weight and balance control
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weight and balance program
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this holds the history of the aircraft
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aircraft logbook
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who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook entries?
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anyone designated in writing by the commanding officer
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who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight?
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persons may sign the record if authorized and designated in writing by the CO
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this provides instructions required for the efficient performance of scheduled maintenance tasks
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maintenance requirement cards (MRC's)
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the use of this is to identify scheduled or forced removal items of their replacement intervals
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periodic maintenance information cards (PMIC'S)
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contains illustrations and part numbers for all parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is issued
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illustrated parts breakdown (IPB)
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contains instructions for "O" and "I" level maintenance and servicing of a specific model aircraft
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maintenance instruction manuals (MIM's)
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what is the concept of quality assurance?
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the concept of quality assurance is that of the prevention of the occurrence of defects
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this person ensures safety of flight of the item concerned
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quality assurance representative (QAR)
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this person is assigned when temporary severe shortages of skills will not support the assignment of a QAR. permanent CDQAR's may be assigned for aircrew personal protective or survival equipment billet, and armament billets.
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collateral duty QAR (CDQAR)
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this person is assigned to production work centers to inspect all work and comply with the QA inspections
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collateral duty inspector (CDI)
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this is conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures, and programs
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special QA audit
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these are conducted quarterly to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center
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quarterly/work center QA audit
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receipt and distribution control of manuals, and ensuring manuals are updated throughout the maintenance organization. internal control and distribution of the NAMP is a responsibility of this:
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central technical publications library (CTPL)
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this program identifies, corrects, and eliminates causal factors
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foreign object damage (FOD) program
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this program provides a means to rapidly account for all tools
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tool control program
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this program's purpose is to prevent contamination of naval aircraft fuels
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fuel surveillance
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this program provides a diagnostic technique to monitor aeronautical equipment without removal or extensive disassembly
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navy oil analysis
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this program ensures safe delivery of oxygen to pilots
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aviators breathing oxygen (ABO) surveillance
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the prime objective of this program is to achieve and maintain a satisfactory level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems
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hydraulic contamination control
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this program ensures all persons handling tires and wheels shall be properly trained and aware of the safety hazards.
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tire and wheel maintenance safety
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a training management system which evaluates the technical knowledge levels of aviation technicians
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maintenance training improvement program (MTIP)
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this provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work. it is prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month. it is used by supervisors to be aware of upcoming requirements
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monthly maintenance plan (MMP)
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this program provides protected areas for material, equipment, and procedures required to control and minimize electrostatic discharges.
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electro-static discharge (ESD) program
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this is a 9, 10, or 11 digit character code. serves as a base for maintenance data reporting (MDR) and maintenance control procedures.
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job control number (JCN)
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this identifies the system or subsystem being worked upon.
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work unit code (WUC)
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a single alpha-character, indicating when the need for maintenance was discovered.
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when discovered (W/D) code.
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what functional requirements of the naval aviation maintenance program (NAMP) are satisfied by the organizational maintenance activity's NALCOMIS?
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to improve mission capability, improve aircraft maintenance and supply support. to improve upline reporting to satisfy DOD program requirements, and modernize management.
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what functional requirements of the NAMP are satisfied by the intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS?
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provies the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report information required by the organization.
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this collects and processes maintenance related data and provides data to other subsystems on the database for NALCOMIS
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maintenance
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this collects and processes flight related data in NALCOMIS
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flight
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this establishes and maintains configuration profiles for engines, aircraft, and any Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) records in NALCOMIS
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logs/records
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this is reserved for future use. can be used to monitor qualifications in NALCOMIS
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personnel
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this processes inventory and inspection criteria for support equipment and Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS) in NALCOMIS
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assets
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this approves or or disapproves maintenance action forms (MAF'S), naval flight records (NAVFLIRS), for upline submission in NALCOMIS
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data analysis
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this selects and produces various reports in NALCOMIS
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reports
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this creates user-specific needed or requested reports in NALCOMIS
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ad hoc query
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this allows maintenance personnel to document maintenance actions, order parts, maintain individual component repair list data, and request inquiries in NALCOMIS.
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maintenance activity (intermediate)
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this contains 3 sections: aircraft engines, support equipment, and technical directives in NALCOMIS
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configuration status accounting
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this contains information on assigned military and civilian personnel. the information is used for workload management and to verify authorization for discrepancy signoffs, QA inspections, MAF reviews, and other job related functions
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personnel management
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contains the functions required to maintain inventory and utilization data for support equipment and IMRL items
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asset management
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this includes repairable components, consumable repair parts, and indirect material support items
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material requirement processing
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permits the user to see a list of the on-screen messages that are waiting actions. it uses on-line functions to review the requests for reports, and to release them for subsequent printing.
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system support
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used to generate files, reports, and documents for data off-load/on-load.
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data off-load/ on-load
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provides an automated technical library tracking system
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technical publications
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this is used to document maintenance actions to on-equipment maintenance actions
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maintenance action forms (MAF)
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this is used to screen the levels of security. it determines which screens or parts of the NALCOMIS an individual has access to.
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special maintenance qualification (SMQ)
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these will be used to finance the cost of the following: paints, wiping rags, towel service, cleaning agent, and cutting compounds used in preventative maintenance and corrosion control of aircraft. consumable repair parts, miscellaneous material, pre-expended, consumable maintenance material, oil, lubricants, and fuel.
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aviation fleet maintenance (AFM) fund
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what does OPTAR stand for?
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operational target
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requests for parts and material for indirect support of weapon systems maintenance are forwarded by work centers, and support ares, to material control
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ordering parts and material
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recieve, sign for and enter date and time and a DOD single line item requisition system document (DD 1348) from the ASD MDU.
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receipt and delivery of parts and material
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repairable material will be removed from an aircraft and turned-in when a replacement is requested, unless specfically authorized to by the CRIPL. when the replacement CRIPL item is recieved, turn-in ofthe old item must be made within 24 hours
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turn-in of defective components
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define the acronym MILSTRAP
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military standard requisitioning and issue procedure
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this is a uniform procedure established by DOD for its own use to govern requsitions and issue of material within standard priorities
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MILSTRAP
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this is a detailed statement of IMA's component repair capability that contains existing repair capability
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IRCL
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what does IRCL stand for?
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individual component repair list
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this is a listing of all authorized remain in place items, published by NAVICP and approved by TYCOM's and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.
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CRIPL
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what does CRIPL stand for?
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consolidated remain-in-place list
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material condition of and aircraft that is not capable of performing any of its mission
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NMCS (not mission capable supply)
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material condition of and aircraft that can perform at least one but not all of its mission
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PMCS (partial mission capable supply)
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a 13 digit stock number assigned by the defense logistics services center to identify an item of material in the supply distribution system.
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NSN (national stock number)
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a 9 digit number that consists of a two digit national codification bureau (NCB) code and seven digits.
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NIIN (national item identification number)
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these are financed by the NWCF. under this process, the end user finances the D-level repair and procurement of 7R COG repairables
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AVDLR (aviation depot level repair)
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the condition that exists when materials required to complete a maintenance action are not available on station/ship
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AWP (awaiting parts)
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a consolidated list that shows items and quantities of certain SE required
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IMRL (indiviual material readiness list)
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this is used to establisha formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material installed on or designated for use on any aircraft of a specified T/M/S.
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AIR (aircraft inventory records)
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the processing for repair of NIS or NC components (repairable or consumable) which must be in support of, or related to, an NMCS or PMCS situation
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EXREP (expeditious repair)
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what is a DD Form 200?
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financial liability investigation of property loss
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reports of missing, lost or stolen items are made by completing copy of a financial liability investigation of property loss (DD Form 200) or Report of Discrepancy (ROD, SF Form 364)
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missing/lost/stolen report
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these are used to communicate maintenance and supply instructions to various logistic support levels and command authorized repair of.
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source, maintenance and recoverability (SM&R) codes
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any material that , because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled
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HM (hazardous material)
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any discarded material (liquid, solid, or gas) which meets the definition of HM and/or is designated as a hazardous waste by the Environmental Protection Agency or a State authority
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HW (hazardous waste)
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these are technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical, and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use.
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material safety data sheet (MSDS)
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what are the 6 categories of HM?
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a. flammable or combustible materials
b. toxic materials c. corrosive materials (including acids and bases) d. oxidizing materials e. aerosol containers f. compressed gases |
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what are the general procedures to be followed when a HM/HW spill is discovered?
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a. discovery
b. notification c. initiation of action d. evaluation e. containment f. damage control g. dispersion of gases/vapors h. cleanup and decontamination i. disposal j. certification for re-entry k. follow-up reports |
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state the personal protection equipment required when handling HM/HW
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eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves
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describe required training for all hands with respect to the HM/HW program
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training shall include: types of HM, how they are disposed of, read and interpret hazard warning labels, where a copy of MSDS is available to review. general information on HM handling, stowage, use, and disposal, handling HM, and emergency procedures.
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describe the purpose of secondary labeling of HM when removed from the original container.
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use only approved containers, ensure that existing precautionary labeling is retained and that subsequent containers are marked with appropriate precautionary labeling.
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this is a current inventory of HM, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HM used for local acquisition and use
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HM authorized use list (AUL)
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oil mixed with water or other fluids such that the mixture is no longer useful
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oily waste
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oil whose characteristics have changed markedly since being originally refined and has become unsuitable for further use, and is not considered economically recyclable.
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waste oil
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this authorizes the department of defense to issue regulations governing the design, construction, operation of marine sanitation devices on board vessels owned and operated by the government.
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Clean Water Act
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