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300 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The adult ear canal:
|
rises upward and forward, and then descends to the drum
|
|
The isthmus is:
|
where the canal narrows to enter the temporal bone
|
|
The pinna and the external canal together:
|
*gather and reinforce acoustical signals
*with the irregular shape of the auricle, cause increases and decreases at different frequencies as the sound arrives at the ear *forms a resonating tube |
|
The average resonant frequency of the ear canal plus concha is:
|
2700 Hz
|
|
The dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear is the:
|
tympanic membrane
|
|
The ear canal contains:
|
cilia, ceruminous glands, sebaceous glands
|
|
The Vagus Nerve (Xth Cranial) is found:
|
along the bottom of the ear canal
|
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Which of the following terms in not part of the tympanic membrane?
|
x crus
Pars tensa Pars flaccida Umbo |
|
An otoscopic inspection should reveal:
|
a view of the pearly white tympanic membrane
|
|
Which of the following is a part of the pinna?
|
*tragus
*intertragal notch *triangular fossa |
|
Atresia refers to:
|
a closure of the external auditory canal
|
|
Perforation of the eardrum can be caused by:
|
*an infection
*a fracture of the temporal bone *a nearby explosion |
|
The following are types of hearing loss:
|
*conductive
*central *sensorineural |
|
Conductive losses may be caused by:
|
*a prolapsed canal
*impacted cerumen |
|
Which surgical technique repairs the tympanic membrane?
|
myringoplasty
|
|
A cholesteatoma can be described as:
|
a pouch of skin filled with epithelial debris
|
|
When an excess of cerumen or a blockage of cerumen is detected, the hearing aid specialist should:
|
refer the patient to a physician
|
|
A swollen ear may be caused by:
|
*eczema
*otis externa *dermatitis |
|
Tympanosclerosis may be described as:
|
calcium deposits
|
|
A tympanic membrane perforation may cause a:
|
conductive loss
|
|
Theoretically the increase in sound pressure provided by the middle ear structure is about:
|
27 dB
|
|
The footplate of the stapes fits into the:
|
oval window
|
|
A type 'A' tympanogram would indicate:
|
normal pressure and compliance
|
|
The difference in area size between the tympanic membrane and the footplate of the stapes increasing the sound pressure at the footplate is:
|
the transfer function or aerial ratio
|
|
The middle ear cavity contains:
|
annular ligament, malleus, stapes, and tensor tympani
|
|
The middle ear system is often referred to as:
|
an impedance matching transformer
|
|
The middle ear cavity, as a transducer, changes energy from one form to another. The energy change is from:
|
acoustic energy to mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
|
|
The middle ear muscles contract
resulting in: |
an acoustic reflex
|
|
The Eustachian tube begins in the lower portion of the tympanic cavity and ends at the:
|
nasopharynx
|
|
The Eustachian tube of a child is:
|
*straight
*short *horizontal |
|
A cholesteatoma:
|
*occurs in the middle ear
*may perforate the eardrum *is usually accompanied by a constant odorous discharge |
|
Changes in either stiffness or mass occur when the normal middle ear function is altered by disease or trauma causing:
|
a feeling of stuffiness or a complaint of hearing in a barrel
|
|
Otosclerosis:
|
*occurs more often in women than men
*occurs more often in Caucasians than other races *appears to be inherited |
|
Most dysfunctions of the outer or middle ear cause a:
|
conductive loss
|
|
Otitis media may occur with:
|
fluid in the middle ear
|
|
A plastic or steel strut replaces the stapes during a:
|
stapedectomy
|
|
Treatment for chronic otitis media may include:
|
*antibiotics
*inflation of the Eustacian tube *myringotomy |
|
A radical mastiodectomy includes removal of:
|
ossicular chain, mastoid
|
|
The ossicular chain is supported and suspended by:
|
stapedius, tensor tympani, ligaments
|
|
The ear due to its physical characteristics, enhances which frequencies?
|
2,000 - 5,000 Hz
|
|
In a cross section of the cochlea, the minimum number of rows of hair cells you can see is:
|
4
|
|
The total number of neural fibers or neurons in the human auditory nerve is about:
|
30,000
|
|
The basilar membrane separates:
|
the scala media and the scala tympani
|
|
The scala tympani is filled with:
|
perilymph
|
|
The base of the cochlea;
|
begins at the oval window
|
|
The fibers of the auditory nerve at the point of maximum stimulation of the basilar membrane, discharge and recover at a rate of approximately:
|
up to 1 Khz identical to the stimulus frequency
|
|
The cochlea acting as a frequency analyzer, distributes acoustic stimuli to places along the basilar membrane according to frequency. This forms the basis of a hypothesis called the:
|
place theory
|
|
Each of the semicircular canals:
|
*are oriented at 90 degrees to one another
*contain perilympth and endolympth *detect positioning and balance |
|
Collections of nerve fibers are called:
|
ganglia and nuclei
|
|
Afferent fibers:
|
transmit from the cochlea to the brain
|
|
Which of the following is a result of tissue and structure damage?
|
* a threshold shift
* distortion of perception of frequencies * disturbance of perception of loudness |
|
A sensorineural hearing loss is due to a disorder in the:
|
inner ear
|
|
A symptom of recruitment is:
|
intolerance for loud sounds
|
|
Malingering is a category of
|
non-organic loss
|
|
Meniere's syndrome consists of:
|
tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss
|
|
An organic disorder is when there is damage to:
|
*the hearing mechanism
*the neural pathways *the brain |
|
Loudness recruitment:
|
refers to abnormal loudness growth of clients with sensorineural hearing
|
|
Tinnitus is:
|
often managed by hearing instruments or tinnitus maskers
|
|
A characteristic of a conductive loss is:
|
a soft spoken patient
|
|
Which is not a characteristic of a sensorineural loss?
|
hearing better in noise than in quiet
|
|
A dial on the audiometer to control the decibels of output is called:
|
*a hearing level dial
*an attenuator dial |
|
Audiometric zero for pure tones is higher than the standard reference level by about:
|
differs at each frequency
|
|
ANSI letters stand for:
|
American National Standards Institute
|
|
The audiometer is designed so that zero on the attenuator dial:
|
represents the level of normal hearing for that frequency
|
|
By air conduction sound energy changes forms in which of the following manners:
|
acoustic energy, mechanical energy, hydrolic energy, electrical energy, to chemical energy
|
|
The normal ear responds to a range of frequencies from:
|
20-20,000 Hz
|
|
Sound waves during bone conduction, transmit from the:
|
skull to the cochlea
|
|
Which of the following describes a Phon?
|
A unit of measurement when comparing the loudness of one frequency to another frequency
|
|
Routine hearing testing should be performed:
|
in a sound controlled environment
|
|
Audiometric zero is:
|
*0 dB Hearing Level
*0 dB HL *the level where normal ears can hear at every frequency |
|
In Pure Tone testing threshold means:
|
the lowest intensity the client hears 50% of the time
|
|
What is the meaning of 40 dB threshold re: audiometric zero at 500 Hz?
|
subject could barely hear a 500 Hz tone at 40 dB about 50% of the time
|
|
The problems produced by excessive ambient noise are:
|
greater for the lower frequencies than the higher frequencies
|
|
Before testing is done:
|
the client's ears should be carefully examined using an otoscope
|
|
The descending technique in pure tone audiometry is preferred because it:
|
is easier to hear when a sound stops than when it begins
|
|
Begin testing with the 1000 Hz tone because it:
|
has good test re-test reliability
|
|
The symbols used in the audiogram for air conduction are:
|
uniform worldwide
|
|
Individuals with a noise induced hearing impairment can have a 'V' notch at which frequency?
|
*3000 Hz
*4000 Hz *6000 Hz |
|
The loss of acoustic energy as it travels from the test ear to the non-test ear is a definition of:
|
interaural attenuation
|
|
To begin testing for air or bone conduction thresholds tests should begin at which frequency?
|
1000 Hz
|
|
If the outer and middle ear parts are normal:
|
air thresholds will equal the bone thresholds
|
|
In bone conduction testing the receiver should be:
|
placed at the most sensitive spot on the mastoid of the test ear
|
|
Sounds from the bone conduction receiver may stimulate the non-test ear at:
|
10 dB or less
|
|
A source of information that helps to identify which ear is responding to bone conduction stimuli is:
|
*tympanometry
*acoustic reflex testing *bone conduction with masking |
|
Bone conduction testing directly stimulates:
|
the cochlea
|
|
Most conductive losses:
|
*are medically correctable
*display a breakdown or an obstruction in the middle ear *display good discrimination |
|
Ambient noise in the environment during bone conduction testing will:
|
affect the test results in the lower frequencies
|
|
During the testing process, it is best to test bone conduction:
|
after air conduction testing
|
|
A conductive loss may be caused by:
|
*perforations of the tympanic membrane
*immoblie middle ear ossicles *otitis media |
|
Bone conduction thresholds worse than air conduction thresholds may be caused by:
|
*poor placement of the vibrator
*a skull fracture *thickness of the skull |
|
Sound being presented to one ear and then routed to the opposite ear is known as:
|
*cross hearing
*shadow hearing *transcranial hearing |
|
When the better ear 'answers' for the poorer ear what occurs?
|
shadow curve
|
|
Which noise is best for masking during pure tone air and bone conduction testing?
|
narrow band noise
|
|
Effective masking may be described as:
|
*an increased masking noise that does not shift the threshold tone
*a formula method to determine how much masking noise is appropriate *a psychoacoustic method like the one proposed by Hood |
|
Masking is performed during air conduction testing when:
|
*a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the better ear and the poorer ear
*a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the poorer ear and the bone conduction threshold of the better ear |
|
Masking is performed during bone conduction testing whenever:
|
a 15 dB or more difference occurs between the obtained bone conduction threshold of the better ear and the obtained air conduction threshold of the poorer ear
|
|
The occlusion effect occurs during:
|
bone conduction testing causing thresholds to shift due to headphones being placed over the ear
|
|
A masking dilemma occurs when:
|
*it is impossible to mask
*the patient displays a bilateral conductive loss *masking can not be completed due to overmasking |
|
Undermasking is defined as:
|
occurring more often during air conduction testing
|
|
Central masking can effect a threshold by:
|
5 dB
|
|
In a sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction thresholds are:
|
the same as bone conduction thresholds
|
|
An air-bone gap means the:
|
air conduction thresholds are worse than bone conduction thresholds
|
|
A sensorineural component is the difference between:
|
BC thresholds and the range of normal hearing
|
|
A pure conductive loss shows:
|
all bone conduction thresholds within normal limits
|
|
In a purely conductive loss:
|
sound is reduced before its arrival at the inner ear
|
|
A mixed loss exhibits:
|
*a sensorineural component
*a conductive component |
|
An audiogram with less loss at the high and low frequencies than the middle frequency region is classified as a:
|
trough-shaped curve
|
|
Pure Tone Average estimates:
|
SRT
|
|
To calculate PTA in a hearing loss when thresholds drop 15-20 dB or more at any or all frequencies:
|
add the 2 frequencies with the least loss and ÷ 2
|
|
PTA describes the following audiogram classification fairly accurately:
|
*flat loss
*fragmentary audiogram |
|
Although pure tones sound artificial to us, they have the advantage of:
|
measuring a specific frequency without involvement of other frequencies
|
|
Speech Reception Threshold:
|
is a level above SDT by about 8-10 dB
|
|
Dynamic Range is the usable range of hearing between:
|
SRT and UCL
|
|
The Most Comfortable Level is:
|
*about 65 dB SPL for normal ears
*about 45 dB HL for normal ears |
|
The range between threshold and MCL:
|
differs at each frequency
|
|
A patient with a conductive loss has:
|
the same dynamic range as normal ears
|
|
When patients have a sensorineural loss, MCL:
|
retains a relationship with the lower boundary
|
|
Recruitment is:
|
common in patients with cochlear losses
|
|
When a patient has normal pure tone thresholds of 0 dB HL across frequencies, it is difficult to accurately measure:
|
SAT
|
|
When a patient has a large conductive component, it is difficult to accurately measure:
|
UCL
|
|
Speech discrimination tests:
|
approximate a sample of speech sounds in an ordinary conversation
|
|
The patient has pure tone air conduction thresholds of 40 dB HL at each frequency. If the patient has a conductive hearing loss his MCL would be approximately:
|
80 dB HL or above
|
|
Discriminating complex sounds depend on:
|
timbre
|
|
In a complex sound the fundamental frequency is the:
|
loudest frequency
|
|
We recognize the different vowel sounds because of variations in:
|
timbre
|
|
A formant is:
|
a concentration of energy around certain frequencies
|
|
The most important energy for recognizing speech sounds are:
|
second and third formants
|
|
The upward spread of masking occurs when:
|
a low frequency sound masks out a high frequency sound
|
|
Masking is required for discrimination tests when:
|
masking was used for air conduction tests
|
|
Binaural testing:
|
helps decide which ear to fit
|
|
Tympanometry identifies:
|
a measure of the dynamic compliance of the TM
|
|
By convention, the range of pressure exerted in tympanometry range from:
|
+200mm (H20) to -200mm (H20)
|
|
The tympanogram measures:
|
the intensity of the sound in the cavity between the probe tip and the TM
|
|
The point of maximum compliance in a tympanogram represents:
|
the point at which the pressure exerted through the probe tip exactly matches the pressure within the middle ear
|
|
A "0"mm (H20) pressure reading means:
|
that no pressure is being exerted on the TM
|
|
Figure 14-3 represents what "Type" of tympangogram?
|
Type A
|
|
Figure 14-6 represents what "Type" of tympangogram?
|
Type B
|
|
Figure 14-7 represents what "Type" of tympangogram?
|
Type C
|
|
The configuration and height of the tympanogram can be a factor in deciding the proper matrix for the fitting of a hearing aid:
|
A high type A tells us to decrease the output by 2-3 dB
|
|
Tympanometry is effective in identifying:
|
middle ear pathologies
|
|
Sound cannot travel through the following medium or mediums:
|
vacuum
|
|
Any complex sound can be broken down into individual frequencies by a technique known as:
|
Fourier spectral analysis
|
|
How many octaves occur from 125 Hz to 2000 Hz?
|
4 octaves
|
|
The quality or timbre of a sound is a property that depends on:
|
*how many frequencies are in the complex sound
*the relative strength of each frequency *the resonance of the sound cavity |
|
The speed of sound in air, in feet per second, is:
|
1,100
|
|
What does the term "67 dB" mean?
|
it is meaningless without a reference level
|
|
The decible is:
|
a ratio between two intensities
|
|
The weakest sound normal human ears can hear is the most sensitive frequency range of the ear is an effective sound pressure of about:
|
0.0002 dynes/cm²
|
|
A formant is:
|
a frequency region within a complex tone where certain harmonics have a relatively large energy
|
|
The normal human ear canal resonance is in the approximate range of:
|
2500 - 4000 Hz
|
|
The harmonics of speech reinforce some frequencies more than others. The reinforced frequencies are:
|
formants
|
|
Vowels differ from the consonants in that they:
|
use more open vocal cord voicing
|
|
When tilting the frequency response, the last number in a matrix, i.e. 110/37/15, means:
|
the 15 dB difference occurs between 500 Hz and the first peak
|
|
The patient's MCL on a speech circuit of the audiometer is usually judged on
|
the volume at 1000 Hz
|
|
ANSI developed the Articulation Index (AI) to express:
|
speech clarity
|
|
'Positive reinforcement' involves:
|
presenting a tone that is only inaudible without the instrument on
|
|
Our quest of improving speech understanding begins by studying:
|
speech production
|
|
Most auditory systems follow the power law. This logarithmic concept is:
|
a 10 dB increase in sound pressure doubles the loudness
|
|
Sones compare:
|
loudness up frequency
|
|
Mels measure
|
pitch
|
|
Dexterity of a patient's finger enters into the choice of instruments because of the difficulty in:
|
*inserting the earmold into the ear
*replacing the battery *adjusting the volume or any of the controls of the hearing aid |
|
A bone conduction instrument should be used when:
|
the patient has chronic otitis media
|
|
A basic problem for clients with an asymmetrical hearing loss is:
|
*discriminating speech from the side of the head with no usable hearing
*an inabilty to locate sound *hearing in the presence of noise |
|
Pressure Measuring Instruments (PMI's) are :
|
built to the sound pressure standard of 20 micropascals
|
|
Properly selected hearing instruments should allow:
|
*the patient to wear and instrument at a comfortable loudness level
*improve communication ability of normal conversation speech in noise *better hearing, aided, than unaided |
|
Slope of loss can determine a succesful fitting. A modest favorable slope is:
|
flat or gradually falling
|
|
Calculations of amplified sound to patients MCL do not include:
|
reserve gain
|
|
Calculating prescription formulas are compared to:
|
specification sheets
|
|
Some patients with binaural amplifications can experience:
|
degradation effect
|
|
The following fitting requires amplification to two ears:
|
binaural
|
|
Functional gain testing with CIC instruments is:
|
simple for the patient to understand with less test-retest variablility than conventional sound field testing
|
|
With real ear measurement testing, which of the following is true:
|
the probe should be within 5 mm of the eardrum in order to avoid standing waves
|
|
The deeper microphone placement offers what advantage:
|
natural high frequency emphasis between 2700 and 4000 Hz
|
|
The deeper receiver placement offers what advantage:
|
increased headroom wth undistorted output
|
|
CIC's offer a reduction in feedback for the following reasons:
|
*less venting is required with CIC's
*CIC's are more tight fitting *less gain is required |
|
The Occlusion Effect is due to:
|
increase in bone-conduction sound for frequencies below 2000 Hz.
|
|
When the wind is coming from directly ahead, wind noise is reduced in CIC's by the following amount:
|
23 dB
|
|
The following are considered disadvantages for CIC fittings:
|
*lack of volume control
*cost *higher return rate |
|
Earmold impressions for CIC's should
|
extend at least 2 mm beyond the second bend using medium viscosity, silicon material
|
|
With CIC fittings, which of the following frequency modifications should be made:
|
less high frequency amplification should be provided due to the deeper microphone placement
|
|
The Zeta Noise Blocker was:
|
an example of a hybrid analog-digital hearing instrument
|
|
The first commercially available Digital Signal Processing hearing instrument:
|
included a body-worn electronic processor
|
|
A programmable hearing instrument with 4 channels and 1 memory card could be considered a ______ programmable hearing instrument.
|
class 3
|
|
In digital signal processing, a set of mathematical steps involving multiplication, addition, and subtraction is referred to as:
|
an algorithm
|
|
The number 512 would have a binary code of:
|
1000000000
|
|
The sampling rate:
|
*refers to how often the waveform amplitude is measured
*has a direct bearing on the frequency bandwidth of the hearing instrument *must be at least twice as fast as the highest desired frequency |
|
Quantization is related to:
|
number of bits
|
|
The number of bits impact the:
|
dynamic range of the hearing instrument
|
|
Imaging occurs during the:
|
digital to analog conversion stage
|
|
Which of the following is not an advantage attributable to digital signal processing in hearing instruments:
|
use of active filters for frequency response shaping
|
|
One of the following does NOT apply to SIE-O fitted hearing aids:
|
Phase issues are not eliminated
|
|
Which statement is correct relative to the comparison between the SIE-O and the SIE-S hearing instrument styles?
|
The SIE-S provides greater acoustic advantages than does the SIE-O
|
|
SIA hearing aids are designed primarily to
|
Reduce occlusion and the occlusion effect
|
|
SIA open-fit hearing aid applicable gains, without feedback cancellation, shows that the maximum stable gain before feedback to be closest to:
|
20 dB
|
|
The Vent as a two-channel device, is identified with:
|
Any open fit or vented hearing aid
|
|
Smaller diameter tubing of SIA hearing aids has the effect of:
|
Reducing the high-frequency gain
|
|
With SIE-E hearing aids:
|
The only signal is from the hearing aid and phase effects from a vent are not an issue
|
|
Evidence suggests that the practical, maximum stable high-frequency gain of an open-fit device, when feedback cancellation is activated, is closest to:
|
35 dB
|
|
Performance verification of SIA, SIE-O, and SIE-S hearing aid fittings is best made by:
|
Real-ear probe microphone measurements
|
|
One of the following is NOT a listed advantage of both the SIA and SIE hearing aid fittings:
|
Emphasis on earmold mechanics rather than electroacoustics
|
|
When you cup your hand behind the ear, sound:
|
increases by 5-8 dB
|
|
This first patent for a telephone type hearing instrument was in:
|
1892
|
|
The first electric hearing instrument:
|
collected and amplified sound
|
|
The carbon granule microphone:
|
caused static and fading with body movement
|
|
Desk and suitcase sized hearing instruments, popular in the 1920's, had more gain and clarity because of:
|
vacuum tube amplifiers
|
|
Wearable instruments were a result of:
|
the miniature vacuum tube
|
|
Crystal microphones and receivers
|
are very fragile
|
|
A FET changed the high impedance problem of the:
|
ceramic microphone
|
|
Magnetic microphones:
|
have a good frequency response in the speech range
|
|
The miniature vacuum tube was introduced in about:
|
1938
|
|
The three major concepts in the use of electricity are:
|
current, voltage, and resistance
|
|
A capacitor:
|
blocks the low frequencies and passes the high frequencies
|
|
A resistor:
|
restricts the flow of electrons
|
|
"Energy cannot be created or destroyed" is:
|
the law of conservation of energy
|
|
The following is not a transducer:
|
volume control
|
|
Electrical energy uses the atom. Atoms:
|
are electrically neutral
|
|
Part of the basic law of electrical energy is:
|
protons attract electrons
|
|
To produce current:
|
electrons move from atom to atom
|
|
A greater flow of current produces:
|
more volume
|
|
Semi-conductors act like a conductor with the application of:
|
heat, light or an electric field
|
|
The function of a microphone is to:
|
convert acoustic energy into electrical energy
|
|
Coupling in a hearing instrument refers to connecting:
|
one stage of an amplifier to the next
|
|
The 'T' position on a hearing aid switch can be use to:
|
*amplify a telephone conversation
*couple a hearing aid into a loop inductor system *couple directly into the audio of a radio or TV set with a separate induction coil |
|
The following components can change or modify the frequency response
|
a microphone
|
|
The following is a transducer:
|
electret microphone
|
|
Amplifiers:
|
generate distortion
|
|
A linear amplifier has 1:1 relationship. This means that if you rotate the volume control on a linear, you change:
|
the gain and the output
|
|
Hard peak clipping occurs in a:
|
class A amplifier
|
|
Peak rounding:
|
causes harmonic distortion above the knee
|
|
There are two types of compression - input and output. The difference is:
|
the placement of the feedback loop
|
|
The signal/noise ratio of a hearing response is:
|
the difference in decibels between the signal and the noise in the system
|
|
Acoustic gain is measured in:
|
decibles SPL
|
|
High Frequency Average (HFA) full-on gain is measured by averaging the gain at:
|
1000, 1600, and 2500 Hz
|
|
High Frequency Average SSPL 90 (HFA SSPL) refers to:
|
high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90dB SPL input
|
|
The Saturation Sound Pressure level should:
|
directly relate to the client's UCL
|
|
ANSI standards can compare:
|
one instrument to another
|
|
The SSPL90 curve measures:
|
all the tones across frequency
|
|
All ANSI instrument measurements are:
|
SPL
|
|
Input sound pressure is measured:
|
at the microphone opening of the hearing instrument
|
|
Gain control is another name for:
|
volume wheel
|
|
A small pressure vent (0.020 to 0.030) in an earmold will:
|
*have little or no effect on frequencies above 400 Hz.
*generally reduce levels at frequencies below 200 Hz. *reduce atmospheric pressure build-up |
|
A long canal on the earmold has the effect of:
|
accentuating the low frequencies
|
|
Venting an earmold:
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is the most common modification on an earmold
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The non-occluding earmold is excellent to use on:
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a CROS fitting
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Earmolds have two important parts:
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outer appearance and canal acoustics
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The greatest acoustic change in an earmoldis or ITE is:
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parallel venting
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The greatest deciding factors in material selection for an earmold are:
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power requirements
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To shift the resonant peak upward between 1500-3000 Hz, use:
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large bore diameter
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In general, mold modifications are as follows:
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venting affects lows, damping the midrange and horn effects boost highs
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Which molds have the same outer appearance:
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skeleton and 2HF
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Residual hearing, in combination with the hearing instrument, will:
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help improve communication
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At night, the battery in the instrument:
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can be left in the open battery door
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A BTE instrument, properly attached:
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fits the contour of the ear
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An advantage of a CIC fitting is:
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*reduced acoustic feedback during phone use
*decreased wind noise |
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When adjusting the volume control, the patient must:
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find an area of the control where sounds are comfortable
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When a standard instrument has a telephone coil, the patient:
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switches to the 'T', then (b) above,
needs to increase the volume control |
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Advise the patient to wear the instrument:
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regularly on a daily basis (10-14 hours)
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Binaural amplififcation allows the patient to:
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wear both instruments at a quieter volume setting
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The patient maintains the instrument by:
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keeping it clean and free of wax
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Teach the patient to:
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operate the OTM switches and noise switches
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Basic verification involves:
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checking MCL and UCL in quiet and noise
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Verification procedures:
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check the accuracy of your fitting
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An effective verification is:
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a measurable improvement in communication
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Functional gain of the instrument:
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is one method of fitting verification
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Speech tests measured through the audiometer circuit:
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are 20 dB less because of ANSI Standards
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Ideally, when presenting recorded words in noise:
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the words are 10 dB louder than the noise
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Sound field is:
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a controlled environment
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Most patients use enough gain in the hearing instrument to understand quiet speech at a level of:
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55 dB SPL
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When UCL's are not balanced, a loud signal is perceived as:
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lateralizing to the ear with the higher output
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The following measurements use SPL as a reference:
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*probe microphones
*sound field aided thresholds *ANSI specifications |
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Which of the following is not a coupler used for measuring hearing aid performance:
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Zwisks Ear Simulator
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A Real Ear Measurement System incorporates all of the following:
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Signal Generator, Reference Microphone, Measurement Microphone, Display Device
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REUR Measurements are taken in:
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an open human ear canal
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At what distance from the Tympanic Membrane should the end of the probe tube be placed:
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Within 5 millimeters
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When testing compression hearing aids which signal is the best type to use:
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Fast Fourier Transform
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Loud speaker placement should be:
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1 meter at 45° azimuth
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Which of the following is not included in correct test protocols:
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Plugging the hearing aid vent to control feedback
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RESR Measurements for compression hearing aids have been replaced with:
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A family of curves starting at a soft level and gradually increasing in intensity
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Which of the following Real Ear Targets has been documented to be the best for Non-Linear Hearing Aids:
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None have been proven to be better than any other
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Insertion Loss occurs when:
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The level in the ear canal with a hearing aid inserted is less than the input level
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Follow-up care is a variety of procedures which comprise:
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*long term management of the client's needs and use of amplification
*a process which never ends while the client is under the care of the hearing aid specialist *bringing out the best that the instrument can give |
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Emphasizing counseling to maximize amplification benefits is:
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a program that should start before the fitting
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Aural rehabilitation:
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continues for as long as the patient wears an instrument
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Patients are always aware of:
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the way they hear today
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When the patient experiences difficulties, one of the problems could be:
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*a procedural flaw in the original hearing loss assessment
*an error in judgement in hearing instrument selection *misestimation of some aspect of the hearing problem |
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User satisfaction must include:
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patient preference
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Client acceptance involves counseling on:
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*emotional and social concerns
*attitude and motivation |
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Friends and family help patients wearing hearing instruments to hear better by:
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combining visual cues
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Your counseling avoids:
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unreasonable expectations
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Family and friends can have a negative influence on the patient by:
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expressing frustration that the patient does not have 'normal' hearing
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When a hearing aid sounds weak, hollow, distorted, or intermittent, the first check is:
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a weak battery
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An otoscope helps when cleaning the:
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the receiver
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When a hearing aid is dead, you can check receiver and microphone function by:
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turning the instrument to telecoil
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A hearing aid that works with the battery door slightly open, but shuts off when you close the door has:
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wires touching the battery
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You CANNOT use feedback checks when:
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checking the telephone coil
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An earhook damper is plugged when, during a feedback check:
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the instrument feeds back only when the coupler is removed
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A sign of a dirty volume control is:
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intermittent static
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Reduction of background noise can be improved by:
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directional microphones
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When a new hearing instrument has feedback at the patient's comfortable level, the problem is usually:
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too much wax in the ear canal
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An ITE or Canal aid has internal feedback when:
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the receiver tubing is not completely sealed to the sound bore
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