Dent Exam 1

Front 1

Changes in direction of groups of enamel prisms

A. have no functional importance.
B. result from incremental growth.
C. make enamel resistant to fracture.
D. extend to the enamel surface.

Back 1

C. make enamel resistant to fracture.

Front 2

A bimaxillary protrusion occurs when

A. a large overjet of the maxillary central incisors exists.
B. the maxillary dentition is in a forward position to the basal bone.
C. the maxillary and mandibular incisors are in a forward position to the basal bone.
D. None of the above.

Back 2

C. the maxillary and mandibular incisors are in a forward position to the basal bone.

Front 3

The X-rays which are most apt to be absorbed
by the skin and cause an injury are
A. central rays.
B. deep penetrating rays.
C. aluminum filtered rays.
D. rays of long wave-length

Back 3

D. rays of long wave-length.

Front 4

Loss of taste to the anterior two thirds of the tongue and a lack of secretion of submandibular glands indicates nerve damage to the

A. mandibular division of cranial V.
B. long buccal nerve.
C. chorda tympani nerve.
D. cranial VII.

Back 4

C. chorda tympani nerve.

Front 5

435. The initial histological appearance of a successful apicectomy would show on a radiograph as

A. a radiolucent area.
B. woven bone.
C. cortical bone around surgical site.
D. sclerotic dentin.

Back 5

B. woven bone.

Front 6

Which of the following statements concerning root canals and their foramina is NOT true?

A. Root canals bifurcate and have dual foramina.
B. The major foramen is precisely at the apex of the tooth.
C. The root canals may join and have a single foramen.
D. The dentino-cemental junction is precisely at the apex of the tooth.
E. A cross section of the canal in the apical region is relatively round.

Back 6

B. The major foramen is precisely at the apex of the tooth.

Front 7

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to root canal instrumentation?

A. Reamers only are used in curved canals.
B. Reamers or files are placed in the canal to its determined length, rotated one complete turn, removed, cleaned and the process repeated.
C. If the root canal is curved the instrument must be precurved before insertion.
D. Files are more effective than reamers for removing necrotic debris from root canals.
E. Use of a reamer must be followed by use of a corresponding file.

Back 7

C. If the root canal is curved the instrument must be precurved before insertion.

Front 8

Proper lip support for a maxillary complete denture is provided primarily by which of the following?

A. Labial surface of the teeth and simulated gingiva.
B. Thickness of the border in the vestibule.
C. Festooned carvings on the labial surface of the simulated gingiva.
D. Convex surface of the labial flange.

Back 8

A. Labial surface of the teeth and simulated gingiva.

Front 9

Trauma from occlusion may

A. initiate marginal gingivitis.
B. affect the blood supply to gingiva.
C. initiate periodontitis.
D. affect the progression of periodontitis.

Back 9

D. affect the progression of periodontitis.

Front 10

The most likely diagnosis for a 5 year old patient with multiple well-defined multilocular radiolucencies of the maxilla and mandible is

A. ameloblastic fibromas.
B. ameloblastomas.
C. cherubism.
D. hyperthyroidism.
E. hypophosphatasia.

Back 10

C. cherubism.

Front 11

Lack of ramus height is caused by faulty development of

A. membranous bone.
B. endochondral bone.
C. Meckel’s cartilage.
D. temporomandibular joint.

Back 11

B. endochondral bone.

Front 12

The central action of caffeine is principally on the

A. cerebral cortex.
B. corpus callosum.
C. hypothalamus.
D. spinal cord.
E. medulla.

Back 12

A. cerebral cortex.

Front 13

Anesthetic solution deposited at the infraorbital foramen will NOT anesthetize the

A. skin and conjunctivum of the lower eyelid.
B. skin and mucous membrane of the upper lip.
C. median strip of skin of the nose.
D. maxillary anterior teeth.
E. mucosa of the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus.

Back 13

C. median strip of skin of the nose.

Front 14

Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental alloys by heat treatment increases

A. ductility.
B. yield strength.
C. coring.
D. elastic modulus.
E. malleability.

Back 14

A. ductility.

Front 15

One function of the striated ducts in the parotid and submandibular glands is to

A. add Na+ ions to saliva.
B. help form a hypertonic saliva ( relative to serum ).
C. add bicarbonate ions to saliva.
D. remove K+ ions from saliva.
E. add salivary amylase to saliva.

Back 15

C. add bicarbonate ions to saliva.

Front 16

A bitewing radiograph of an early mixed dentition should include the following proximal surfaces.

A. Distal of the primary canine to distal of the permanent first molar.
B. Distal of the primary canine to mesial of the permanent first molar.
C. Mesial of the primary first molar to mesial of the permanent first molar.
D. Mesial of the primary first molar to distal of the permanent first molar.

Back 16

A. Distal of the primary canine to distal of the permanent first molar.

Front 17

A 75-year old female patient is being treated for oral lichen planus with a topical corticosteroid. She also has low serum PT4 and vitamin D. The most likely cause of a reduced alveolar bone mass in this patient is

A. postmenopausal osteoporosis.
B. senile osteoporosis.
C. drug-induced osteoporosis.
D. Osteomalacia

Back 17

B. senile osteoporosis.

Front 18

Fibrous dysplasia of the jaws

A. is of known etiology.
B. is premalignant.
C. has monostotic and polyostotic forms.
D. begins in the fifth decade.
E. is bilaterally symmetrical.

Back 18

C. has monostotic and polyostotic forms.

Front 19

Which muscle is LEAST likely to dislodge a mandibular denture?

A. Masseter.
B. Buccinator.
C. Mentalis.
D. Mylohyoid.

Back 19

B. Buccinator.

Front 20

Smooth surface caries begins at localized areas
on the
A. outer surface of enamel and dentin.
B. inner surface of the enamel.
C. outer surface of the dentin.
D. outer surface of the enamel.
E. inner surface of the dentin.

Back 20

D. outer surface of the enamel.

Front 21

To ensure the greatest accuracy, rubber base impressions should be poured

A. within 10 minutes.
B. within 1 hour.
C. within 8 hours.
D. after 24 hours.

Back 21

B. within 1 hour.

Front 22

The polymerization of methyl methacrylate is

A. endothermic.
B. hydrophilic.
C. hydrolytic.
D. exothermic.

Back 22

D. exothermic.

Front 23

Laboratory examination of the blood of a patient with an acute bacterial infection would show

A. lymphocytosis.
B. leukocytosis.
C. monocytosis.
D. leukopenia.
E. eosinophilia.

Back 23

A. lymphocytosis.

Front 24

Microbial virulence factors

A. are produced by non-pathogenic microbes.
B. are always pathogenic.
C. include exotoxins, capsules, endotoxins and enzymes.
D. are caused only by Gram-positive microbes.

Back 24

C. include exotoxins, capsules, endotoxins and enzymes.

Front 25

Vitamin D is activated in the

A. skin upon ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
B. liver upon hydroxylation.
C. kidney upon hydroxylation.
D. intestinal mucosa upon absorption.

Back 25

C. kidney upon hydroxylation.

Front 26

The usual adult dosage of codeine administered orally is

A. 500-1000mg.
B. 250-500mg.
C. 30-60mg.
D. 2-5mg.

Back 26

C. 30-60mg.

Front 27

A small hinge articulator was used for the fabrication of a cast gold onlay for tooth 4.6. Which of the following movements will result in the greatest discrepancy between the articulator and the patient?

A. Laterotrusive.
B. Mediotrusive.
C. Protrusive.
D. Retrusive.

Back 27

A. Laterotrusive.

Front 28

The protective role of junctional epithelium is aided by its increased number of

A. cell layers.
B. intercellular spaces.
C. cell-cell adhesions.
D. collagen fibres.

Back 28

B. intercellular spaces.

Front 29

A 34 year old male patient complains of night sweats, weight loss, malaise, anorexia and low- grade fever. Clinical examination shows a nodular, ulcerated lesion on the palate. The most likely diagnosis is

A. viral hepatitis.
B. infectious mononucleosis.
C. tuberculosis.
D. actinomycosis.

Back 29

C. tuberculosis.

Front 30

Spontaneous hemorrhage from the gingiva may be indicative of

A. parotitis.
B. Hodgkin’s disease.
C. diabetes.
D. leukemia.

Back 30

D. leukemia.

Front 31

The most common type of collagen found in the gingival connective tissue, periodontal ligament, and cementum is composed primarily of

A. type I.
B. type II.
C. type III.
D. type IV.

Back 31

A. type I.

Front 32

The best way to disinfect gutta-percha cones prior to obturation is to

A. immerse in a 5.25% sodium hypochlorite solution.
B. immerse in ethyl alcohol.
C. autoclave for a full cycle.
D. wipe with an alcohol soaked gauze.

Back 32

A. immerse in a 5.25% sodium hypochlorite solution.

Front 33

The occlusal parameter that is most useful to differentiate between an overbite of dental or skeletal origin is the

A. mandibular curve of Spee.
B. mandibular curve of Wilson.
C. molar sagittal relationship.
D. mandibular anterior lack of space.
E. maxillary curve of Wilson.

Back 33

A. mandibular curve of Spee.

Front 34

Which of the following would NOT be prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin (Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.
4. Codeine.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 34

A. (1) (2) (3)

Front 35

Which pontic type is best for a knife edge residual ridge where esthetics is not a major concern?

A. Sanitary.
B. Conical.
C. Ridge lap.
D. Modified ridge lap.

Back 35

B. Conical.

Front 36

A dental radiograph will accurately indicate

A. periodontal pocket depth.
B. the height of the bone on the facial surfaces of the teeth.
C. the extent of furcation involvements.
D. infrabony pocket topography.
E. None of the above.

Back 36

E. None of the above.

Front 37

The yield strength of an orthodontic wire is

A. the same as the proportional limit.
B. decreased by work hardening.
C. the same as the stress at fracture.
D. higher than the proportional limit.

Back 37

D. higher than the proportional limit.

Front 38

The dentino-enamel junction is the most sensitive portion of a tooth because

A. free nerve endings terminate on odontoblasts at this region.
B. odontoblastic processes branch considerably at this region.
C. ameloblasts make synaptic connections with odontoblasts at this junction.
D. odontoblastic tubules help convey hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells.

Back 38

D. odontoblastic tubules help convey hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells.

Front 39

The single most important measure to reduce the risk of transmitting organisms to patients is

A. use of personal protective barriers: masks, eyewear, outerwear and gloves.
B. sterilization of instruments and disinfection of the operatory.
C. handwashing.
D. introduction of single use instruments and disposables.

Back 39

C. handwashing.

Front 40

When compared to dental amalgams made from lathe cut particles, dental amalgams made from spherical particles

A. require more mercury.
B. set more quickly.
C. are more difficult to adapt to the cavity preparation.
D. require higher condensation forces.

Back 40

B. set more quickly.

Front 41

For an acid-etched Class III composite resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to
1. eliminate the need for internal retention.
2. improve convenience form.
3. aid in finishing.
4. increase the surface area for etching.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 41

D. (4) only

Front 42

Radiographic examination reveals early evidence of internal resorption. The treatment of choice would be

A. apical surgical intervention.
B. immediate pulp extirpation.
C. immediate pulpotomy.
D. observation and re-evaluation in 3 - 6 months.
E. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.

Back 42

B. immediate pulp extirpation.

Front 43

Which of the following principle fibre groups of the periodontal ligament is the most numerous and provides the main support for the tooth?

A. Horizontal.
B. Transseptal.
C. Oblique.
D. Gingival.

Back 43

C. Oblique.

Front 44

A 55 year old female patient complains of dry, burning mouth. The clinical and radiological examination shows xerostomia, periodontitis, multiple caries, periapical abscesses and candidiasis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. AIDS.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Multiple myeloma.
D. Leukemia.

Back 44

B. Diabetes mellitus.

Front 45

A clinical sign of unilateral fracture of the body of the zygoma is

A. cerebrospinal rhinorrhea.
B. impaired hearing.
C. subconjunctival haemorrhage.
D. otorrhea.

Back 45

C. subconjunctival haemorrhage.

Front 46

Which of the following is most likely to displace the adjacent teeth?

A. Lateral periodontal cyst.
B. Dentigerous cyst.
C. Periapical cemental dysplasia.
D. Periapical abscess.
E. Radicular cyst.

Back 46

B. Dentigerous cyst.

Front 47

Xerostomia can result from
1. Sjögren’s syndrome.
2. radiation therapy for oral cancer.
3. antidepressant drug therapy.
4. anticholinergics (Atropine).

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 47

E. All of the above.

Front 48

The primary retention of a Class II gold inlay is achieved by
1. adding an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls.
3. lengthening the axial walls.
4. placing a gingival bevel.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Back 48

A. (1) (2) (3)