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358 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Ka

[A-][h30+]/[HA]

pka

-log[Ka]

Value of pkb for weak base

greater than zero

Value of pka for a weak acid

greater than zero

l

designates subshell s,p,d,f
can be 0 to n-1

ml

-l to l

number of orbital in each subshell

2l +1

maximum principal quantum number

2n^2

charge of electron

(-1.6x10^-19

E

reduction potential

E (cell)

E red + E ox

Free energey in cell

G=-nFEcell

How to calculate partial pressure

Partial pressure = mole fraction x total pressure

Gas constant

8.21 X 10^-2 Latm/molK

Gas constant in J/kmol

8.314

rate of diffusion and effusion

root of MM2/MM1

Ksp

solubility product constant
[product]^n[product]^n

Freezing point depression

Change in T= Kf x molality

Boiling point elevation

Kb x molality = T

Work

W=-P x change in Volume

osmotic pressure

Pi = MRT

Free energy of a system

Change in Heat - (temperature x change in entropy)

Beta decay change in mass

+1

Beta decay change in atomic number

none

Faraday constant

96,485 colocoumbs/mole

E (cell)

E red + E ox

Free energey in cell

G=-nFEcell

How to calculate partial pressure

Partial pressure = mole fraction x total pressure

Gas constant

8.21 X 10^-2 Latm/molK

Gas constant in J/kmol

8.314

rate of diffusion and effusion

root of MM2/MM1

Ksp

solubility product constant
[product]^n[product]^n

Freezing point depression

Change in T= Kf x molality

Boiling point elevation

Kb x molality = T

Work

W=-P x change in Volume

osmotic pressure

Pi = MRT

Free energy of a system

Change in Heat - (temperature x change in entropy)

Beta decay change in mass

+1

Beta decay change in atomic number

none

Faraday constant

96,485 colocoumbs/mole

Spontaneous reactions

produce electricity

nonspontaneous reaction

use electricity to produce chemical change

oxidation

loss of electrons

reduction

gaining electrons

anode

oxidation

cathode

reduction

galvanic cells are spontaneous or nonspontaneous

spontaneous

electrolytic cells are spontaneous or nonspontaneous

nonspontaneous

charge of an anode in a galvanic cell

negative

charge of an anode in an electrolytic cell

positive

source of electrons in a galvanic cell

anode

source of electrons in an electrolytic cell

cathode

charge of cathode in an electrolytic cell

negative

charge of cathode in galvanic cell

positive

nFEcell =

RTlnKeq = change in Free Energy

H of formation of a reaction

(Sum of Hf of products)- (sume of Hf of reactants)

Positive H, Negative S

nonspontaneous

Negative H, postiive S

spontaneous

Positive H, Positive S

spontaneous at high temperatures

Negative H, Negative H

spontaneous at low temperatures

Rate of a reaction

=k [A]^x [B]^y

Equilibrium constant

Kc= [product]^x/[reactant]^y

avogrados number

6.022 x 10^23

Plancks constant

6.626 x 10^-34

Formal charge

valence - 1/2bonding - nonbonding

Energy of planck's emitted photon

-Rh[ 1/(ni)^2 - 1/ (nf)^2

Rh

2.18 x 10^-18

ml

-l to l

alpha decay change in mass

plus four

alpha decay change in atomic number

plus two

What does it mean that electrons are quantized

they can only exist in certain fixed energy states

what happens when electron sare excited to a higher energy level and fall back to grounds state

they emit light

velocity of ilght

3.0 x 10^8

Each elemnt can have its electrons excited to differnet energy levels so it is said to have a unique what?

emission spectrum

the energy of a photon is equal to what?

E= hc/wavelength

the n quantum number describes what

size

the l quantum number describes what

shape

the ml quantum number describes what

orientation

the ms quantum nubmer describes what

spin

what is the principal quantum number

n

as the difference between adjacent shells decreases what happens to their distance from nucleus

increases

number of orbitals in s subshell

1

number of orbitals in p subshell

3

number of orbitals in d subshell

5

number of orbitals in f subshell

7

hunds rule

electrons fill all orbitals before pairing up

paramagnetic

unpaired electrons - spins are aligned with the field

diamagnetic

no unpaired electrons - slightly unalighned with external field

the rows on periodic table

rows

periods show what quantum number

principal

columns that show valence electrons on periodic table

groups

representative elemens (A)

s or p sublevels as valence

Nonrepresentative (B) elements

partly filled D and F sublevels

as number of protons in an element increase, the radius does what

decreases

ionization energy

energy required to completely remove an electron from an atom

electron affinity

the ease at which electrons can be added to an atom

when sublevels are full, electron affinity is high or low?

low

Atomic radius of metals

large

Ionization energy of metals

low

Electronegativity of metals

low

metal or nonmetal - high melting point

metal

metal or nonmental- high density

metal

metal or nonmetal - good conductor

metal

Metal or nonmetal - lackluster, brittle

nonmetal

metal or nonmental - small atomic radius

nonmental

metal or nonmetal - high ionization enery

nonmetal

metal or nonmetal - high electronegativity

nonmetal

Elements between metals and nonmetals

metalloids

Group IA

alkali metals

Group IIA

Alkaline earths

Halogens

Group VIIA

Halogens are highly reactive with what groups

IA and IIA

Noble gases

Group VIII - non-reactive, low bp, all gases

Groups IB - VIIIB

Transition elements - malleable and good conductors

What type of bond has high electron affinity and small ionization energy

ionic bonds

what type of bonds have weak intermolecular forces

covalent bonds

bonds with high melting and boiling points

ionic bonds

bonds with low melting and boiling points

covalent bonds

what bonds are not good conductors

covalent bonds

number of shared electron pairs between two atoms

bond order

bond length

distance between two nucei in a bond

and increase number of shared electrons increases or decreases bond length

decrease

energy required to separate 2 bonded atoms

bond energy

substance composed of two or more elements in a fixed proportion

compounds

the smallest unit of a compound

molecule

units of zero order reaction

M/sec

units of first order reaction

1/sec

half life equation

T= .693/k

units of second order reaction

1/MSec

the difference in potental energy of products and reactants

enthalpy

Keq never includes what?

solids and liquieds

If Keq is large then is there more product or reactant?

product

If Keq is small, is there more product or reactant

reactant

A system that cannot exchange energy or matter with the outside

isolated

A system that can exchange energy but not matter

closed

A system that can exchange both energy and matter

open

A system in which temperature is constant

isothermal

A system in which no heat exchange occurs

adiabatic

A system with no pressure change

isobaric

the heat in a reaction, q is equal to what?

q=mc(change in temp)

Heat of formation

(sum Hf of products) - (sum Hf of reactants)

Gibbs Free energy equation

G = H - TS

A reaction is spontaneous when G is less than or greater than zero?

less than

Spontaneous or nonspontaneous: H is negative S is positive

spontaneous

Spontaneous or nonspontaneous: H is positive and S is negative

nonspontaneous

Spontaneous or nonspontaneous: H and S are positive

spontaneous at high temperatures

Spontaneous or nonspontaneous: H and S are both negative

Spontaneous at low temperatures

G'= ?

-RTln Keq

G = ?

G' + RTlnQ

Standard temperature and pressure

1 atm, 273 K

An ideal gas has no what?

intermolecular forces and no volume

Ideal gases occur under what conditions?

low pressure and high temperature

Real gases have what two things that ideal gases do not have?

intermolecular forces and volume

The partial pressure of a gas is calculated with this equation

Pa= Pt x X

Kinetic energy of gases is primarily affected by what factor?

temperature, as temp increases, molecules move at higher speeds

Carbohydrates are composed of what elements and in what ratio

carbon hydrogen and oxygen )1:2:1)

Lipids are composed of what elements and in what ratio

C, H, and O with much more H than O in comparison to carbs

A lipid consists of what?

3 fatty acids and one glycerol

what gives fatty acids their hydrophobic character

long carbon chains

what gives fatty acids their acidic character

carboxylic acid groups

phosolipid is composed of what?

glycerol, 2 fatty acids, and phospate and nitrogen alcohol

caretenoids are what type of macromolecule and what is their purpose

lipid, serve as pigments

porphyrins

lipids that ahve four joined rings and are complexed with a metal

In addition to C, H, and O; proteins may also have what?

phosphorus and sulfur

what do enzymes do to the activation energy

lower it

what do enzymes do to the rate

increase it

what do enzymes do to the overall Free energy of a reaction

nothing

Nucleic acids contain the elements: ?

C, H, O, N, P

Nucleic acids are made up of

nucleotides

A nucleotide is made of what three things?

5 carbon sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous basew

what type of microscopy allows specimen to be alive

phase contrast

the movement of particles due to kinetic energy which spreads small suspended particles throughout the cytoplasm of the cell

brownian movement

circular motion of cytoplasm around the cell teransport molecules

cyclosis

homologous chromosomes paire up at mitosis or meiosis

meiosis

a type of asexual reproduction in which replication of nucleus is followed by unequal cytokinesis

budding

development of an unfertilized egg into an adult organism

parthenogenesis

the female hormone that is responsible for thickening of the endometrium

estrogens

female hormone secreted by the corpus luteum during hte luteal phase of menstruation

progesterone

The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle begins wtih what?

cessation of the menstrual flow

During the follicular phase the hormone _______ released from _______ promotes ___________ and the follicle begins to secrete __________

FSH, Anterior pituitary, development of the follicle, estrogen

During ovularion , an _______ is released

ovum

Ovulation is caused by ?

a surge in LH

The surge is LH is in part caused by the peak in what hormone

estrogen

In the luteal phase, the ______hormone induces the the ruptured follicle to develop into the ___________

LH, corpus luteum

The corpus luteum secretes what

estrogen and progesterone

male organ in flowering plant

stamen

stamen contains what at the end

pollen bearing anther

female organ in flowering plant

pistil or carpal

plants alternate between ______ and __________generatioins

gametophyte and sporophyte

the gametophyte generatation is (haploid/diploid)

haploid

gametes in plants are produced by mitosis or meiosis

mitosis

gametophytes reproduce asexually or sexually

sexually

sporophytes reproduce asexually or sexually

asexually

sporophytes are (haploid/diploid) and produce (haploid/diploid) _______ via _________

diploid, haploid, meiosis

this type of RNA transports DNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis

mRNA

this type of RNA translates RNA to amino acids

tRNA

this type of RNA is structrual component of Ribosomes

rRNA

process of changing DNA to RNA

Transcription

process of changing RNA to protein

translation

in translation the mRNA contains a three letter ________

codon

in translation the tRNA contains the three letter _______

anticodon

in tranlation mRNA moves in what direction

5 to 3

in translation tRNA is read in what direction

3 to 5

what are the three sites on a ribosome

A, p, E

the tRNA attaches at what site

A

the protein elongates at what site

P

an inducer must bind to a repressor to for transcription to occur in this type of system

inducible

an inducer in an inducible system binds to what?

the repressor

what binds to the repressor in a trepressible system

corepressor

without an inducer in an inducible system, transcription always occurs or never occurs

never

without a corepressor in a repressible system, transcription always occurs or never occurs

always

During what cycle of a bacteriophage does the bacterial cell burst

lytic cycle

during what cycle of a bacteriophage is the virus integrated into bacterial genome

lysogenic

the epidermis forms from this layer of the gastrula

ectoderm

the muscles are formed from this layer of the gastrula

mesoderm

epithelial linings are formed from this layer of the gastrula

endoderm

the part of the egg that lines the inside of the shell and provides a moist memebrane for gas exchange

chorion

part of the egg that encloses the yolk and contains blood vessels for food transfer

yolk sac

encloses amnionic fluid

amnion

sac like structure involved in respiration and excretion, highly vascularized

allantois

what is the purpose of the chorion

moist gas exchange surface

what is the prupose of amnion

protects developing embryo from shock

what is the purpose of allantois

respiration and exretion and transportation of gases and wastes

purpose of yolk sac

allows passage for food transport

in placental animals what functions as the chorion

placenta

in placental animals, what is analgous to the allantois

umbilical cord

in protozoans, movement of gases and nutrients is accomplished via what method

simple diffusion

hydra and cnidarians, movement of gases and nutrients is accomplished by

no specialized circulatory system. body walls are two cells thick so all cells are in direct contact with internal or external environment

arthropods movement of gases and nutrients is accomplished by

open circulatory systems

a circulatory system in which blood and interstitial fluid is in direct contact with tissues - there are no vessels

open circulatory system

circulatory system in which blood is confined to blood vessels

closed circulatory system

annelids (earthworms) use what kind of circulatory system

closed

earthworms do not have what type of cells?

red blood cells

what types of vessels have the thickest most muscular walls

arteries

what types of vessels have the thinnest walls

capillaries

blood is composed of what 4 things?

plasma, RBC, WBC, and platelets

what are the two functions of antibodies

to attract WBCs and to agglutinate cells for easy removal

obtaining immunity through an immune response

active immunity

obtaining immunity through the passage of antibodies from one animal to another

passive

type of immunology via antibodies

humoral

immunity against virus or fungus

cell mediated

what is the main function of RBC

oxygen transport

what is the main function of WBC

phagocytize, immune response

what is the main function of platelets

clot formation

what are the adrenal glands

adrenal cortex and andrenal medulla

what is secreted by adrenal coretex

corticosteroids

what is secreted by the adrenal medlla

epinephrine and norepinephrine

what controls the release of adrenal cortical hormones

ACTH secreted by ant pit

corticosteroids

cortisol, aldosterone, androgens

glucocorticoids raise/lower blood glucose levels

raise

the antagonist of glucocorticoids are

iinsulin

Adrenal coritical hormone that increases Na absorption and passive water flow to increase BP and BV

aldosterone

an adrenal cortical hormone used for glucose metabolism

cortisol

an adrenal cortical hormone used for protein metabolism

cortisone

epinephrine raises/lowers blood glucose levels

raises

what are the direct hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary

growth hormone and prolactin

what is the function of prolactin

stimulation of milk production in females

what are the 6 tropic hormones of the anterior pituitary

ACTH, TSH, LH, FSH, MSH

what is the function of LH in males

testerosterone production

what is the purose of LH in females

stimulation of ovulation and corpus luteum formation

what is the purpose of FSH in males

maturation of seminiferous tublules and sperm production

what does FSH do in females

matures ovarian follicles

what hormones does the posterior pituitary make

none

what hormones does the posterior pituitary store and relase

oxytocin and ADH

ADH increases or decreases the permeability of the collecting duct

increases

what part of the brain in the hypothalamus a part of

forebrain

when does posterior pituitary release hormones

when hypothalamus sends action potentials to it

how does hypothalamus regulate the release of ant pit hormones

through releasing hormones via the hypothalamic hypophoseal portal system

what are the three hormones of the thyroid gland

T3, T4 and calcitonin

calcitonin decreases or increases plasma Ca concentration

decreases

how does calcitonin control plasma Ca concentration

inhibits the relase of Ca from bone if ca plasma levels are too high

what is the antagonist to calcitonin

parathyroid hormone

is the pancreas an endocrine or and exocrine gland

both

what is the exocrine function

cells that secrete digestive enzymes

what is the endocrine function

islets of langerhans that make insulin and glucagon

insulin is anabolic or catabolic

anabolic

glucagon is anabolic or catabolic

catabolic

what type of cells produce glucagon

alpha

what type of cells produce insulin

beta

the parathyroid hormone increases or decreases plasma concentration of Calcium

increases

how does PTH increase plasma concentration of calcium

increasing bone resorption and minimizing ca excretion

enzyme that convergs angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

renin

what controls aldosterone secretion

a fall in blood volume followed by kidneys production of renin

what hormone is used for digestion in stomach

gstrin

what is the function of gastrin

stimulates the production of HCL

what hormone is released in the small intestine in response to acidic food in stomach

secretin

what does secretin do

stimulates bicarbonate secretion to neutralize acidic chyme

what hormone in the small intestine is released in response to fats and causes the contraction of gallbladder for release of bile

cholecystokinin

what does the pineal gland secrete

melatonin

what is the antagonist to melatonin

MSH

what type of hormone has surgace receptors

peptide hormones

what type of hormones have intracellular receptors

steroid hormones

what type of hormone bnds to DNA and has a genomic effect

steroid

what type of hormone acts via second messengers

peptide

what maintains the resting potential of a cell

Na/K pump

glial cells of the CNS

oligodendricytes

what type of organism has no organized nervous system and can only respond to simple stimuli such as heat, light, and touch

unicellular organisms (protozoa)

nervous system of cnidarians

nerve net

network of nerve cells

nerve net

nervous system of earthworms

primitive central nervous system

the primitive central nervous system of earthworms includes:

ventral nerve cord, anterior brain of fused ganglia

what is more specialized about arthropoda nervous sytems

have sense organs

neurons that carry infomation about environment to the brain

afferent nuerons

neurons that carry information from brain to organs

effereent nuerons

what does the CNS consist of

brain and spinal cord

what are three function sof the brain

interpret sensory info
form motor plans
cognitive function

the outer portion of the brain

gray matter

gray matter contains

cells bodies

the inner portion of the brain

white matter

white matter contains

myelinated axons

three sections of the brain

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain

two parts of the forebrain

telencephalon and diencephalon

the cerebral cortex is located in

the telencephalon of the forebrain

the cerebral cortex function

processes and integrates: sensory input
motor responses
creatve thought/memory

the olfactory bulb is located in

the forebrain

what does the diencephalon contain

hypothalamus and thalamus

relays and integrates information between cerebral cortex and spinal cord

thalamus

controls visceral functions such as hunger, thirst, sex drive, blood pressure

hypothalamus

Relay cneter for visual and auditory impulses as well as motor control

midbrain

three parts of the hindbrain

pons, medulla, cerebellum

modulates motor impulses initiated by the cerebral cortex

cerebellum

maintains balance

cerebellum

hand eye coordination

cerebellum

timing of rapid movements

cerebellum

relay between cortex and cerebellum

pons

controls vital functions: breathing heart rate and gastrointestinal activity

medulla

brainstem

midrain, pons, and medulla

sensory information enters the spinal cord through the

dorsal horn

sensory information exits the spinal cord through the

ventral horn

spinal cord function

integrates sensory info to the brain and motor info out of brain

components of peripheral nervous system

nerves and ganglia

the two divisions of the PNS

somatic and autonomic

responsible for skeletal muscle contraction and voluntary movement

somatic nervous system

repsonponsible for involunatry muscle contraction

autonomic nervous system

divisions of autonomic system

sympathetic and parasympathetic

flight or fight system

sympathetic

rest and digest

parasympathetic

primary neurotransmitter is norepinerphrine

sympathetic

primary neruotransmitter is acetylcholine

parasympathetic

inner most layer of the eye containing photoreceptors

retina

supplies retina with blood

choroid

transparent layer of eye that bends and focuses light

cornea

hole through which light enters eye

pupil

part of eye that focuses and image on retina

lens

iris

controls diamter of pupil

part of retina sensitive to color

cones

part of retina with low intensity vision

rods

rhodopsin in cones or rods?

rods

point at which optic nerve exits eye

blind spot

humor for shape of eye

vitreous humor

humor made by eye and exits thru ducts

aqeuous humor

what animals respire through simple diffusion

protozoa, hydra, cnidarians

what provides a mosit surface for gas exchange in annelids

mucus on the earthworms body

arthropod respiratory system

tracheae with branches that lead to all cells

tubes of the arthropod repiratory sytem open to the surface called

spiracles

spiracles allow removal of respiratory gases to occur via

simple diffusion

T/F - a carrier of oxygen is necessary for arthropod respiratory sytem

false

control of ventilation in humans is controlled by what part of the brain

medulla oblongata