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164 Cards in this Set

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Name the viruses that can enter the body through the mouth?
Name the viruses that can enter the body through the conjunctiva?
Name the viruses that can enter the body through a scratch injury or skin?
herpes, pox, warts
Name the viruses that can enter the body through arthropod borne means?
alpha, flavivirus
Name the viruses that can enter the body through the anus?
Name the viruses that can enter the body through the urogenital tract?
HSV, HIV, and Hep B
Name the viruses that can enter the body through the alimentary tract?
calici, Hep A, astro, rota, pico (CHARP)
Name the viruses that can enter the body through the respiratory tract?
rhino, orthomyxovirus, paramyxovirus, and adenovirus
Name the viruses that can enter the body congenitally?
HIV, CMV, Rubella, and HSV
What is the most common enteric disease virus?
__ begins with the eclipse period and __ ends the eclipse period.
Uncoating; assembly
Which bacterial species group is associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis?
S. oralis group (S, sanguis, gordonii, oralis, and mitis)
What are the earliest colonizers of the clean tooth surface?
S. oralis
Plaque isolated from patients with early-onset periodontitis often includes?
Peptostreptococcus micros
__ is the most aciduric oral species and contributes to __.
Lactobacillus casei; pit and fissure and dentinal caries
__ is one of the first recolonizers of cleaned tooth surfaces that coaggregates with streptococci as well as __ and __.
A. naeslundii; fusobacteria and veillonella
What is the G- anaerobic cocci?
What actinomyces species has been isolated from deep dentinal caries?
A. odontolyticus
__ is the most frequent cause of actinimycosis which produces colonies of __.
A. isrealii; sulfur granules
What are the 3 members of the Red complex and what are their 2 virulence factors?
Tanneralla forsythia, P. gingivalis, and Treponema denticola; they are invasive and secrete trypsin like proteases
What are the black pigmented G- anaerobic bacilli?
P. gingivalis and Prevotella intermedia
What bacterium is associated with perio disease but is rarely found in gingivitis patients and is absent from edentulous patients?
P. gingivalis
__ as well as __ with __ are associated with NUG.
Prevotella intermedia; Fusobacteria with spirochetes
__, most commonly __, are among the most frequently isolated bacteria in plaque from healthy sites; however, are infrequently isolated in plaque during the first 12 hours after teeth are cleaned.
Fusobacteria; F. nucleatum
Which Campylobacter species has been implicated as a perio pathogen?
C. recti
__ is a __ that is a major pathogen in localized aggressive perio as well as treatment failure in aggressive perio.
Aa; G- facultative rod
All of the spirochetes that have been cultivated are in the genus __.
__ which produces __ contributes to halitosis associated with perio disease.
Treponema denticola; methyl mercaptan
__ causes thrush.
candida albicans
What are the 2 protozoa pathogens?
Entamoeba gingivalis and Thrichomonas tenax
__ appear to act as a bridge between early and late colonizers.
T. denticola is not found in perio sites unless that site is also inhabited by __.
P. gingivalis
During plaque development the Eh falls over a period of several days from an initial __ mV to a low of __ mV. Oral spirochetes require and Eh of about __ mV to grow.
+200; -141; -185
What 3 micorbial species are consistently associated with caries?
S. mutans, S. sobrinus, and Lactobacillus casei
Acquisition of MS __ usually can be detected in the mouths of infants 10 to 24 hours after birth. __ and __ however require a hard surface to colonize and appear in the mouth only after the teeth have erupted.
S. salivarius; S. mutans and S. sanguis
__ convert dietary glucose to __, products that foster tooth colonization by S. mutans.
Glucosyltransferases; glucans
Which GTF produces a dextran? A mutan? Which has levels in saliva that correlate strongly with the presence of clinical caries.
__ contributes to the acidogenic trait of MS.
lactic dehydrogenase
__ is the major virulence factor of MS.
__ synthesis enables MS to exploit its aciduricity in the plaque ecosystem by keeping the pH below 5.5 for extended periods of time after a meal.
intracellular polysaccharide
What characteristic of chlorhexidine is responsible for most of its effectiveness?
What are the DNA viruses?
parvo, papo, pox, herpes, and adenoviridae
Of the icosahedral DNA viruses, which is enveloped DS? Non-enveloped DS? Non-enveloped SS? Which is the complex DNA virus?
herpes; papo and adeno; parvo; pox
What is the only major disease causing virus and what disease does it cause?
parvovirus b19; erythema infectiosum or Fifth disease (slapped cheek)
Papoviridae members cause __ and __. It can also cause __.
warts and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy; cancer
What is the incubation time of HPV?
1 to 2 months but can take up to 2 years
Adenoviridae cause __, __, __, and __.
URTI, conjunctivitis, pneumonia, and gastroenteritis
What virus causes acute respiratory disease and what are the symptoms? What is the treatment?
adenovirus; headaches, cough, pharyngitis, and fever; oral live virus vaccine
What are the 7 members of the herpesviridae?
HSV1 and 2, Varicella-zoster, Cytomegalo, Epstein-Barr, HHV6, HHV7, and HHV 8
What herpes virus is usually found above the waist and what is it a causative agent of?
HSV1; herpetic whitlow
Where does the HSV 1 viral DNA reside?
sensory cells of the trigeminal ganglion
HSV 2 is often associated with what type of cancer?
cervical carcinoma
How does chickenpox enter the body?
infection of the URT
Women with what 2 conditions should give birth thru C-section?
HSV2 and shingles
What virus can cause severe congential and aquired neonatal infections? It may also cause __ and a form of __. Its infections are common in what type of patients? It has also reemerged as a major factor in __ patients.
CMV; hepatitis and a form of mononucelosis; renal transplant patients; AIDs
Epstein-Barr virus causes __. It is also associated with __ in _(country)_ and __ in __.
mononucleosis; Burkitt's Lymphoma in Africa and nasopharyngeal carcinoma in China
HHV 6 cause __ which is linked to __, HHV 8 is associated with __.
Roseola; chronic fatigue syndrome; Kaposi's sarcoma
What is the only double stranded RNA virus?
Paramyxoviridae cause what diseases?
Respiratory diseases: parainfluenza and respiratory syncitial virus. Systemic diseases: measles and mumps
Name the 4 parainfluenza diseases.
Mild URTI, bronchitis, bronchial pneumonia, and croup
Respiratory syncitial virus causes what symptoms in children? Adults?
Lower RTI in infants and young children and mild URTI in adults
Name the stages in the progression of the measles and mumps virus.
Mild respiratory infection, spread to cervical lymph nodes, viremia and rash (no rash in mumps)
What are the target organs of measles? Mumps?
skin and rarely CNS; salivary glands, pancreas, ovaries, testes, and meninges
Pnademics associated with __ viridae coccur every _ years due to __ while yearly endemics occur due to __.
orthomyxo; 15; antigenic shift; antigenic drift
Orthomyxoviridae cause what disease and is associated with what complications?
influenzae; secondary bacterial infection, pneumonia, and Reyes syndrome
Arenaviridae cause __, filoviridae cause __ and __, and bunyaviridae cause __ and __.
Lassa fever; ebola and marburg; California encephalitis and Hanta virus
Reoviridae cause __ and __ and include what 2 members?
acute gastroenteritis and encephalitis; rotavirus and colorado tick fever
Rotavirus causes __ and is transmitted via __.
epidemic diarrhea in young children; fecal oral route
Which viridae exhibit post-translational maturation of proteins?
What are the picornaviridae members?
rhinovirus and enterovirus which includes polio, coxsachie, echo, and Hep A viruses
What viridae are not associated with viremia?
What are the Togaviridae members? Which is most fatal?
Eastern equine encephalitis; western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, and rubella; western equine encephalitis
What are the 7 flaviviridae members? Which is the most fatal?
yellow fever, dengue, WNV, Kunjin, St. Louis encephalitis, Murray Valley encephalitis, and tick borne encephalitis; Murray Valley encephalitis
What viridae produce SARS?
Which form of Hep is infectious?
Hep A
Which is the only DNA Hep?
Hep B
What is the Hep A virus? Hep B? Hep C?
enterovirus; hepadnavirus; flavivirus
Atherosclerosis induced gangrene is associated with __.
Berry aneurysms occur at the __.
circle of Willis
What is the most common site for an atherosclerotic aneurysm?
abdominal aorta
Syphilitic aneurysms are seen during what stage of syphilis and lead to destruction of the __?
tertiary stage; tunica media
Cor bovinum is seen with __.
syphilitic aneurysms
What is the most common cause of death for syphilitic aneurysms?
heart failure due to aortic regurgitation
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are common in __.
some forms of vasculitis
Giant cell arteritis most often effects which arteries? Takayasu's arteritis most often effects __.
temporal and opthalmic; the aortic arch
What are the 2 medium vessel vasculitis deseases?
polyarteritis nodosa and Kawaski's disease
Polyarteritis nodosa typically affects the __ and __ vessels while sparing __ circulation. It is treated with __ and __.
renal and visceral; pulmonary; corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide
Kawaski's syndrome involves the __ arteries and histologically is similar to Polyarteritis nodosa except __. It is treated with __ and __.
coronary; less fibrinoid necrosis; aspirin and intravenous gammaglobulin
What is a common lab finding in Wegener's granulomatosis?
Thromboangiitis obliterans, also called __, typically affects the __ and __ arteries and is tightly associated with __.
Buerger disease; tibial and radial arteries; cigarette smoking
Raynaud phenomenon usually effects the __ and __.
fingers and toes
Nearly one third of hemangiomas occur in the __ while most are present from __.
liver; birth
How are lymphangiomas distinguished from hemangiomas?
absence of red blood cells
Kaposi's sarcoma is a form of __.
Dissecting aneuryms are often associated with what other condition/syndrome?
Marfan syndrome
Left or right sight heart failure is associated with cor pulmonale?
What is the most common cause of right heart failure?
left heart failure
What are the 3 congenital heart diseases that are shunts?
ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, and patent ductus arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus can be treated with __.
Women taking aspirin or NSAIDs while pregnant can cause what congenital heart defect?
immature closing of the patent ductus arteriosus
The combination of shunts and obstructions for congenital heart disease is called __ or __ syndrome and includes what 4 symptoms?
Tetralogy of Fallot; blue bay; VSD, stenotic pulmonary trunk, overriding aorta, and right ventricle hypertrophy
Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that may develp 2-3 weeks after a __ infection (__ or __). It is believed to be caused by an antibody to the __ of the bacteria.
Group A streptococcal; strep throat or scarlet fever; M proteins
What is the most destructive lesion of rheumatic fever? What area is most often involved?
endocarditis/valvular disease; mitral valve
What is the most common cause of myocarditis in Europe and N. America? Worldwide?
viral infection; Chagas disease
What are the 2 kinds of cardiomyopathies? What is the most common cause?
dilated and hypertrophic; ischemia
__, a form of __, is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes.
idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Name 2 cause of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis and hypertension
Ischemic heart disease is due to __ and __.
coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis
Angina pectoris is due to __. What are the 3 types and describe them?
transient myocardial ischemia; Stable is a predictable onset of pain treated by rest or nitroglycerine, Unstable is an unpriedictable onset of pain that is most likely to progress to a heart attack, and Prinzmetal's angina is variant and treated with nitrates or Ca channel blockers
What are the 2 most commonly order tests for myocardial infarctions?
troponin and CKMB
What is the most common cause if ischemic cardiomyopathy?
coronary artery disease
Is renal hypoxia seen more with left or right heart failure?
What antibiotic is used for rheumatic fever infections?
What are the 2 most common causes of death from rheumatic fever?
cardiac failure and mural thrombosis with an embolism to the brain
What sex and age group does mitral valve prolapse most effect?
Females 3:2 over males ages 20-40
What age group does myocarditis normally effect?
young to mid age
Pains from angina pectoris occur on which side of the body?
Myocardial onfacrtion usually is due to occlusion of which artery?
left anterior descending
Plummer-Vinson syndrome is iron deficiency anemia in conjunction with __ and __. It is also associated with what type of cancers?
glossitis and dysphagia; oral and esophageal squamous cell carcinoma
Pernicious anemia is caused by poor absorption of __ (__,__). These patients lack __. It is treated by injection of __.
cobalamin (vitamin B12, extrinsic factor); intrinsic factor; cyanocobalamin
__ is used to diagnose aplastic anemia.
Sickle cell anemia is a disorder of __ synthesis. __ is substituted for alanine which codes for __ instead of __ in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin.
hemoblobin; thymine; valine; glutamic acid
__ therapy and __ vaccination are used to treat sickle cell anemia.
penicillin; polyvalent pneumococcal
For alpha thalassemia, 1 gene mutation causes? 2 gene? 3 gene? 4 gene?
no disease; alpha thalassemia trait; Hb H trait; Hydrops fetalis
Beta thalassemia major causes __ and __.
Mediterranean fever and Cooley's anemia
Agranulocytosis is the decrease or absence of cells of granulocytic derivation, particularly __. Decreased production or increased destruction is secondary to certain __ or some __.
neutrophils; drugs; syndromes
What anemia is secondary to malignancies?
myelophthisic anemia
The Paul Bunnell antibody test is used to diagnose?
What is Philadelphia chromosome associated with?
Idiopathic thrombocytic purpura occurs when and after what? Thrombotic thromocytic purpura is due to what?
childhood after nonspecific viral infection; fragility of vessels
What is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
thrombocytopenia purpura in combination with defective cellular and humoral immunity
Hemophilia A is a deficiency of __. Hem B (Christmas disease) is a deficiency of __.
Factor VIII; Factor IX
Name the 3 lipid reticuloendothelioses and what they lack and what accumulates as a result?
Tay-Sachs is a lack of hexosaminadase A and an accumulation of ganglioside; Gaucher's disease lacks glucocerebrosidase and accumulates glucosylceramide; Niemann-Pick disease lacks acid sphingomyelinase and accumulates sphingomyelin
Erlenmeyer flask disease is associated with __.
Gaucher's disease
What type of inheritance patterns does mucopolysaccharidosis have?
autosomal recessive and X-linked
Von GIerke's disease is a __ disorder resulting from a deficiency of __.
glycogenoses; glucose-6-phosphatase
What are the 3 forms of Langerhan's Cell histiocytosis?
Letterer-Siwe disease (acute,disseminated), Hand-Schuller-Christian disease (chronic,disseminated), and Eosinophilic granuloma
What type of malignancies most often metastasize to regional lymph nodes?
Are most lymphoma of B or T cell origin?
B cell
Burkitt's lymphoma African variant typically affects what region? American varient?
jaws; abdominal region
The starry sky hitological pattern is seen with __.
Burkitt's Lymphoma
Reed-sternberg cells are seen in __.
Hodgkin's lymphoma
What are the 2 main types of Hodgkin's lymphoma and which one predominates?
Nodular lymphocyte** and classic Hodgkin's lymphoma
What lymph nodes does Hodgkin's lymphoma begin in?
cervical and subclavicular
Name 2 abnormal proteins produced by mutliple myelomas? What are the clinical features?
monoclonal gammopathy and M-protein; Bence Jones protein and amyloid
A positive Congo red staining is seen with __.
mutliple myelomas
What type of malignancies most often metastasize to regional lymph nodes?
Are most lymphoma of B or T cell origin?
B cell
Burkitt's lymphoma African variant typically affects what region? American varient?
jaws; abdominal region
The starry sky hitological pattern is seen with __.
Burkitt's Lymphoma
Reed-sternberg cells are seen in __.
Hodgkin's lymphoma
What are the 2 main types of Hodgkin's lymphoma and which one predominates?
Nodular lymphocyte** and classic Hodgkin's lymphoma
What lymph nodes does Hodgkin's lymphoma begin in?
cervical and subclavicular
Name 2 abnormal proteins produced by mutliple myelomas? What are the clinical features?
monoclonal gammopathy and M-protein; Bence Jones protein and amyloid
What is the drug whose only action is antitussive? What drug is commonly given as an antitussive opiod?
dextromethorphan; codeine
__ and __ enhance analgesia. __ may interfere with opioid-induced analgesia. Opioids are contraindicated with __ b/c they can be lethal.
tricyclic antidepressant and antihistamines; sedative hypnotics; MAOI antidepressants
What opioid should be avoided in children?
__ exacerbate porphyria.
What drug induces sleep but does not affect the stages of sleep?
Zolpidem or eszoplicone
Rebound anxiety and insomnia are more ponounced in which type of BDZs?
short acting
What amphetamines can be used to treat narcolepsy?
D-amphetamine and methylphenidate
Which amphetamines can be used for weight reduction?
phentermine, fenfluramine, and diethylproprion
Which opioid induces dilated pupils in tolerant individuals?
What is the cannabinoid receptor ligand?