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164 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Name the viruses that can enter the body through the mouth?
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herpes
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Name the viruses that can enter the body through the conjunctiva?
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adenovirus
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Name the viruses that can enter the body through a scratch injury or skin?
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herpes, pox, warts
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Name the viruses that can enter the body through arthropod borne means?
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alpha, flavivirus
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Name the viruses that can enter the body through the anus?
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CMV
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Name the viruses that can enter the body through the urogenital tract?
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HSV, HIV, and Hep B
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Name the viruses that can enter the body through the alimentary tract?
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calici, Hep A, astro, rota, pico (CHARP)
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Name the viruses that can enter the body through the respiratory tract?
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rhino, orthomyxovirus, paramyxovirus, and adenovirus
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Name the viruses that can enter the body congenitally?
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HIV, CMV, Rubella, and HSV
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What is the most common enteric disease virus?
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rotavirus
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__ begins with the eclipse period and __ ends the eclipse period.
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Uncoating; assembly
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Which bacterial species group is associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis?
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S. oralis group (S, sanguis, gordonii, oralis, and mitis)
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What are the earliest colonizers of the clean tooth surface?
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S. oralis
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Plaque isolated from patients with early-onset periodontitis often includes?
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Peptostreptococcus micros
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__ is the most aciduric oral species and contributes to __.
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Lactobacillus casei; pit and fissure and dentinal caries
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__ is one of the first recolonizers of cleaned tooth surfaces that coaggregates with streptococci as well as __ and __.
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A. naeslundii; fusobacteria and veillonella
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What is the G- anaerobic cocci?
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veillonella
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What actinomyces species has been isolated from deep dentinal caries?
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A. odontolyticus
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__ is the most frequent cause of actinimycosis which produces colonies of __.
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A. isrealii; sulfur granules
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What are the 3 members of the Red complex and what are their 2 virulence factors?
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Tanneralla forsythia, P. gingivalis, and Treponema denticola; they are invasive and secrete trypsin like proteases
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What are the black pigmented G- anaerobic bacilli?
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P. gingivalis and Prevotella intermedia
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What bacterium is associated with perio disease but is rarely found in gingivitis patients and is absent from edentulous patients?
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P. gingivalis
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__ as well as __ with __ are associated with NUG.
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Prevotella intermedia; Fusobacteria with spirochetes
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__, most commonly __, are among the most frequently isolated bacteria in plaque from healthy sites; however, are infrequently isolated in plaque during the first 12 hours after teeth are cleaned.
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Fusobacteria; F. nucleatum
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Which Campylobacter species has been implicated as a perio pathogen?
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C. recti
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__ is a __ that is a major pathogen in localized aggressive perio as well as treatment failure in aggressive perio.
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Aa; G- facultative rod
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All of the spirochetes that have been cultivated are in the genus __.
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Treponema
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__ which produces __ contributes to halitosis associated with perio disease.
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Treponema denticola; methyl mercaptan
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__ causes thrush.
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candida albicans
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What are the 2 protozoa pathogens?
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Entamoeba gingivalis and Thrichomonas tenax
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__ appear to act as a bridge between early and late colonizers.
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Fusobacteria
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T. denticola is not found in perio sites unless that site is also inhabited by __.
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P. gingivalis
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During plaque development the Eh falls over a period of several days from an initial __ mV to a low of __ mV. Oral spirochetes require and Eh of about __ mV to grow.
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+200; -141; -185
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What 3 micorbial species are consistently associated with caries?
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S. mutans, S. sobrinus, and Lactobacillus casei
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Acquisition of MS __ usually can be detected in the mouths of infants 10 to 24 hours after birth. __ and __ however require a hard surface to colonize and appear in the mouth only after the teeth have erupted.
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S. salivarius; S. mutans and S. sanguis
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__ convert dietary glucose to __, products that foster tooth colonization by S. mutans.
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Glucosyltransferases; glucans
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Which GTF produces a dextran? A mutan? Which has levels in saliva that correlate strongly with the presence of clinical caries.
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GTF-D; GTF-B; GTF-B
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__ contributes to the acidogenic trait of MS.
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lactic dehydrogenase
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__ is the major virulence factor of MS.
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aciduricity
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__ synthesis enables MS to exploit its aciduricity in the plaque ecosystem by keeping the pH below 5.5 for extended periods of time after a meal.
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intracellular polysaccharide
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What characteristic of chlorhexidine is responsible for most of its effectiveness?
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substantivity
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What are the DNA viruses?
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parvo, papo, pox, herpes, and adenoviridae
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Of the icosahedral DNA viruses, which is enveloped DS? Non-enveloped DS? Non-enveloped SS? Which is the complex DNA virus?
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herpes; papo and adeno; parvo; pox
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What is the only major disease causing virus and what disease does it cause?
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parvovirus b19; erythema infectiosum or Fifth disease (slapped cheek)
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Papoviridae members cause __ and __. It can also cause __.
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warts and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy; cancer
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What is the incubation time of HPV?
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1 to 2 months but can take up to 2 years
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Adenoviridae cause __, __, __, and __.
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URTI, conjunctivitis, pneumonia, and gastroenteritis
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What virus causes acute respiratory disease and what are the symptoms? What is the treatment?
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adenovirus; headaches, cough, pharyngitis, and fever; oral live virus vaccine
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What are the 7 members of the herpesviridae?
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HSV1 and 2, Varicella-zoster, Cytomegalo, Epstein-Barr, HHV6, HHV7, and HHV 8
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What herpes virus is usually found above the waist and what is it a causative agent of?
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HSV1; herpetic whitlow
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Where does the HSV 1 viral DNA reside?
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sensory cells of the trigeminal ganglion
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HSV 2 is often associated with what type of cancer?
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cervical carcinoma
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How does chickenpox enter the body?
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infection of the URT
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Women with what 2 conditions should give birth thru C-section?
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HSV2 and shingles
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What virus can cause severe congential and aquired neonatal infections? It may also cause __ and a form of __. Its infections are common in what type of patients? It has also reemerged as a major factor in __ patients.
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CMV; hepatitis and a form of mononucelosis; renal transplant patients; AIDs
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Epstein-Barr virus causes __. It is also associated with __ in _(country)_ and __ in __.
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mononucleosis; Burkitt's Lymphoma in Africa and nasopharyngeal carcinoma in China
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HHV 6 cause __ which is linked to __, HHV 8 is associated with __.
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Roseola; chronic fatigue syndrome; Kaposi's sarcoma
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What is the only double stranded RNA virus?
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reovirus
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Paramyxoviridae cause what diseases?
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Respiratory diseases: parainfluenza and respiratory syncitial virus. Systemic diseases: measles and mumps
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Name the 4 parainfluenza diseases.
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Mild URTI, bronchitis, bronchial pneumonia, and croup
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Respiratory syncitial virus causes what symptoms in children? Adults?
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Lower RTI in infants and young children and mild URTI in adults
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Name the stages in the progression of the measles and mumps virus.
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Mild respiratory infection, spread to cervical lymph nodes, viremia and rash (no rash in mumps)
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What are the target organs of measles? Mumps?
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skin and rarely CNS; salivary glands, pancreas, ovaries, testes, and meninges
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Pnademics associated with __ viridae coccur every _ years due to __ while yearly endemics occur due to __.
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orthomyxo; 15; antigenic shift; antigenic drift
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Orthomyxoviridae cause what disease and is associated with what complications?
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influenzae; secondary bacterial infection, pneumonia, and Reyes syndrome
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Arenaviridae cause __, filoviridae cause __ and __, and bunyaviridae cause __ and __.
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Lassa fever; ebola and marburg; California encephalitis and Hanta virus
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Reoviridae cause __ and __ and include what 2 members?
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acute gastroenteritis and encephalitis; rotavirus and colorado tick fever
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Rotavirus causes __ and is transmitted via __.
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epidemic diarrhea in young children; fecal oral route
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Which viridae exhibit post-translational maturation of proteins?
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picornaviridae
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What are the picornaviridae members?
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rhinovirus and enterovirus which includes polio, coxsachie, echo, and Hep A viruses
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What viridae are not associated with viremia?
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orthomyxoviridae
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What are the Togaviridae members? Which is most fatal?
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Eastern equine encephalitis; western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, and rubella; western equine encephalitis
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What are the 7 flaviviridae members? Which is the most fatal?
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yellow fever, dengue, WNV, Kunjin, St. Louis encephalitis, Murray Valley encephalitis, and tick borne encephalitis; Murray Valley encephalitis
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What viridae produce SARS?
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coronaviridae
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Which form of Hep is infectious?
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Hep A
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Which is the only DNA Hep?
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Hep B
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What is the Hep A virus? Hep B? Hep C?
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enterovirus; hepadnavirus; flavivirus
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Atherosclerosis induced gangrene is associated with __.
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diabetes
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Berry aneurysms occur at the __.
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circle of Willis
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What is the most common site for an atherosclerotic aneurysm?
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abdominal aorta
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Syphilitic aneurysms are seen during what stage of syphilis and lead to destruction of the __?
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tertiary stage; tunica media
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Cor bovinum is seen with __.
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syphilitic aneurysms
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What is the most common cause of death for syphilitic aneurysms?
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heart failure due to aortic regurgitation
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Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are common in __.
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some forms of vasculitis
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Giant cell arteritis most often effects which arteries? Takayasu's arteritis most often effects __.
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temporal and opthalmic; the aortic arch
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What are the 2 medium vessel vasculitis deseases?
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polyarteritis nodosa and Kawaski's disease
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Polyarteritis nodosa typically affects the __ and __ vessels while sparing __ circulation. It is treated with __ and __.
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renal and visceral; pulmonary; corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide
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Kawaski's syndrome involves the __ arteries and histologically is similar to Polyarteritis nodosa except __. It is treated with __ and __.
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coronary; less fibrinoid necrosis; aspirin and intravenous gammaglobulin
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What is a common lab finding in Wegener's granulomatosis?
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c-ANCA
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Thromboangiitis obliterans, also called __, typically affects the __ and __ arteries and is tightly associated with __.
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Buerger disease; tibial and radial arteries; cigarette smoking
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Raynaud phenomenon usually effects the __ and __.
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fingers and toes
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Nearly one third of hemangiomas occur in the __ while most are present from __.
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liver; birth
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How are lymphangiomas distinguished from hemangiomas?
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absence of red blood cells
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Kaposi's sarcoma is a form of __.
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angiosarcoma
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Dissecting aneuryms are often associated with what other condition/syndrome?
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Marfan syndrome
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Left or right sight heart failure is associated with cor pulmonale?
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right
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What is the most common cause of right heart failure?
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left heart failure
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What are the 3 congenital heart diseases that are shunts?
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ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, and patent ductus arteriosus
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Patent ductus arteriosus can be treated with __.
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prostacyclins
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Women taking aspirin or NSAIDs while pregnant can cause what congenital heart defect?
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immature closing of the patent ductus arteriosus
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The combination of shunts and obstructions for congenital heart disease is called __ or __ syndrome and includes what 4 symptoms?
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Tetralogy of Fallot; blue bay; VSD, stenotic pulmonary trunk, overriding aorta, and right ventricle hypertrophy
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Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that may develp 2-3 weeks after a __ infection (__ or __). It is believed to be caused by an antibody to the __ of the bacteria.
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Group A streptococcal; strep throat or scarlet fever; M proteins
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What is the most destructive lesion of rheumatic fever? What area is most often involved?
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endocarditis/valvular disease; mitral valve
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What is the most common cause of myocarditis in Europe and N. America? Worldwide?
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viral infection; Chagas disease
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What are the 2 kinds of cardiomyopathies? What is the most common cause?
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dilated and hypertrophic; ischemia
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__, a form of __, is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes.
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idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
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Name 2 cause of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis and hypertension
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Ischemic heart disease is due to __ and __.
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coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis
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Angina pectoris is due to __. What are the 3 types and describe them?
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transient myocardial ischemia; Stable is a predictable onset of pain treated by rest or nitroglycerine, Unstable is an unpriedictable onset of pain that is most likely to progress to a heart attack, and Prinzmetal's angina is variant and treated with nitrates or Ca channel blockers
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What are the 2 most commonly order tests for myocardial infarctions?
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troponin and CKMB
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What is the most common cause if ischemic cardiomyopathy?
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coronary artery disease
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Is renal hypoxia seen more with left or right heart failure?
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right
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What antibiotic is used for rheumatic fever infections?
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penicillin
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What are the 2 most common causes of death from rheumatic fever?
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cardiac failure and mural thrombosis with an embolism to the brain
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What sex and age group does mitral valve prolapse most effect?
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Females 3:2 over males ages 20-40
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What age group does myocarditis normally effect?
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young to mid age
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Pains from angina pectoris occur on which side of the body?
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left
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Myocardial onfacrtion usually is due to occlusion of which artery?
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left anterior descending
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Plummer-Vinson syndrome is iron deficiency anemia in conjunction with __ and __. It is also associated with what type of cancers?
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glossitis and dysphagia; oral and esophageal squamous cell carcinoma
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Pernicious anemia is caused by poor absorption of __ (__,__). These patients lack __. It is treated by injection of __.
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cobalamin (vitamin B12, extrinsic factor); intrinsic factor; cyanocobalamin
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__ is used to diagnose aplastic anemia.
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Pancytopenia
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Sickle cell anemia is a disorder of __ synthesis. __ is substituted for alanine which codes for __ instead of __ in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin.
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hemoblobin; thymine; valine; glutamic acid
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__ therapy and __ vaccination are used to treat sickle cell anemia.
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penicillin; polyvalent pneumococcal
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For alpha thalassemia, 1 gene mutation causes? 2 gene? 3 gene? 4 gene?
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no disease; alpha thalassemia trait; Hb H trait; Hydrops fetalis
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Beta thalassemia major causes __ and __.
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Mediterranean fever and Cooley's anemia
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Agranulocytosis is the decrease or absence of cells of granulocytic derivation, particularly __. Decreased production or increased destruction is secondary to certain __ or some __.
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neutrophils; drugs; syndromes
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What anemia is secondary to malignancies?
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myelophthisic anemia
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The Paul Bunnell antibody test is used to diagnose?
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mononucelosis
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What is Philadelphia chromosome associated with?
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leukemia
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Idiopathic thrombocytic purpura occurs when and after what? Thrombotic thromocytic purpura is due to what?
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childhood after nonspecific viral infection; fragility of vessels
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What is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
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thrombocytopenia purpura in combination with defective cellular and humoral immunity
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Hemophilia A is a deficiency of __. Hem B (Christmas disease) is a deficiency of __.
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Factor VIII; Factor IX
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Name the 3 lipid reticuloendothelioses and what they lack and what accumulates as a result?
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Tay-Sachs is a lack of hexosaminadase A and an accumulation of ganglioside; Gaucher's disease lacks glucocerebrosidase and accumulates glucosylceramide; Niemann-Pick disease lacks acid sphingomyelinase and accumulates sphingomyelin
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Erlenmeyer flask disease is associated with __.
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Gaucher's disease
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What type of inheritance patterns does mucopolysaccharidosis have?
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autosomal recessive and X-linked
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Von GIerke's disease is a __ disorder resulting from a deficiency of __.
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glycogenoses; glucose-6-phosphatase
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What are the 3 forms of Langerhan's Cell histiocytosis?
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Letterer-Siwe disease (acute,disseminated), Hand-Schuller-Christian disease (chronic,disseminated), and Eosinophilic granuloma
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What type of malignancies most often metastasize to regional lymph nodes?
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carcinomas
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Are most lymphoma of B or T cell origin?
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B cell
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Burkitt's lymphoma African variant typically affects what region? American varient?
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jaws; abdominal region
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The starry sky hitological pattern is seen with __.
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Burkitt's Lymphoma
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Reed-sternberg cells are seen in __.
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Hodgkin's lymphoma
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What are the 2 main types of Hodgkin's lymphoma and which one predominates?
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Nodular lymphocyte** and classic Hodgkin's lymphoma
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What lymph nodes does Hodgkin's lymphoma begin in?
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cervical and subclavicular
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Name 2 abnormal proteins produced by mutliple myelomas? What are the clinical features?
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monoclonal gammopathy and M-protein; Bence Jones protein and amyloid
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A positive Congo red staining is seen with __.
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mutliple myelomas
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What type of malignancies most often metastasize to regional lymph nodes?
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carcinomas
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Are most lymphoma of B or T cell origin?
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B cell
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Burkitt's lymphoma African variant typically affects what region? American varient?
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jaws; abdominal region
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The starry sky hitological pattern is seen with __.
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Burkitt's Lymphoma
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Reed-sternberg cells are seen in __.
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Hodgkin's lymphoma
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What are the 2 main types of Hodgkin's lymphoma and which one predominates?
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Nodular lymphocyte** and classic Hodgkin's lymphoma
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What lymph nodes does Hodgkin's lymphoma begin in?
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cervical and subclavicular
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Name 2 abnormal proteins produced by mutliple myelomas? What are the clinical features?
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monoclonal gammopathy and M-protein; Bence Jones protein and amyloid
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What is the drug whose only action is antitussive? What drug is commonly given as an antitussive opiod?
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dextromethorphan; codeine
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__ and __ enhance analgesia. __ may interfere with opioid-induced analgesia. Opioids are contraindicated with __ b/c they can be lethal.
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tricyclic antidepressant and antihistamines; sedative hypnotics; MAOI antidepressants
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What opioid should be avoided in children?
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demerol
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__ exacerbate porphyria.
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Barbiturates
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What drug induces sleep but does not affect the stages of sleep?
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Zolpidem or eszoplicone
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Rebound anxiety and insomnia are more ponounced in which type of BDZs?
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short acting
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What amphetamines can be used to treat narcolepsy?
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D-amphetamine and methylphenidate
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Which amphetamines can be used for weight reduction?
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phentermine, fenfluramine, and diethylproprion
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Which opioid induces dilated pupils in tolerant individuals?
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meperidine
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What is the cannabinoid receptor ligand?
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anandomide
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