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234 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.
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Maintenance
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To restore or replace that which has become inoperable.
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Repair
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_____: Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician Professional Qualifications.
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NFPA 1071
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Every fire department should have ___ for a systematic apparatus maintenance program that complies with applicable NFPA standards.
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Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)
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Over cleaning of the apparatus can cause problems associated with the removal of ____ from the chassis, engine, pump, and other vehicle components.
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Lubricants
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When washing, the water pressure should be set so that the stream from the end of the hose is no more than ___ in length.
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1 foot
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When cleaning, never remove dust or grit by _____.
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Dry rubbing
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Do not wash the apparatus with extremely ____ water or while the surface of the vehicle is hot.
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Hot
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Dry the vehicle with a clean ____, rinsed frequently with clean water.
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Chamois
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In general, ____ or ____ should be used to clean automotive glass.
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Warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaners
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Keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.
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Maintenance
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To restore or replace that which has become inoperable.
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Repair
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_____: Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician Professional Qualifications.
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NFPA 1071
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Every fire department should have ___ for a systematic apparatus maintenance program that complies with applicable NFPA standards.
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Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)
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Over cleaning of the apparatus can cause problems associated with the removal of ____ from the chassis, engine, pump, and other vehicle components.
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Lubricants
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When washing, the water pressure should be set so that the stream from the end of the hose is no more than ___ in length.
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1 foot
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When cleaning, never remove dust or grit by _____.
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Dry rubbing
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Do not wash the apparatus with extremely ____ water or while the surface of the vehicle is hot.
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Hot
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Dry the vehicle with a clean ____, rinsed frequently with clean water.
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Chamois
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In general, ____ or ____ should be used to clean automotive glass.
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Warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaners
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During the first six months of a new apparatus the vehicle should be washed requently with _____ to harden the paint and keep it from spotting.
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Cold water
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The method of inspection that involves starting at the driver's door on the cab and working around the apparatus in a clockwise pattern.
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Walk-around method
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If the weather permits, the apparatus should be parked ____ for functional tests.
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Outside
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Some departments use ________ rather than driver side/officer side when identifying sides of the apparatus.
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Street side/curb side
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The first portion of the vehicle specifically checked should be the ______.
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Left (driver's) side of the cab
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As with the left- and right-side inspections, the first thing that should be noted when moving to the front of the vehicle is ________.
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Any significant body damage
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The ________ should cover everything from the rear of the cab to the tailboard on each side of the apparatus.
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Left- and right-rear side inspections
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Ideally, the driver/operator should make sure that the ____ and ____ are adjusted in a suitable manner before the apparatus is started.
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Seats and mirrors
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As a rule of thumb, it is generally best to keep the fuel tank at least ____ full at all times.
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¾'s full
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The device intended to prevent an overload of the vehicle's electrical generation system.
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Load management system
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_____ can be a problem due to large amounts of electrical equipment that tends to be added to modern apparatus.
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Overload
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The device that turns carious lights on a specified intervals so that the start-up electrical load for all of the devices does not occur at the same time.
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Load sequencer
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The device that "watches' the system for added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system.
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Load monitor
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When an overload condition occurs the ____ will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent overload.
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Load monitor
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The process of shutting down less important electrical equipment to prevent overload.
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Load shedding
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The distance that the pedal must be pushed before the throw-out bearing actually contacts the clutch release fingers.
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Free play
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Excessive free play way result in the clutch _________.
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Not releasing completely
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In general, steering wheel play should be no more than about ____ in either direction.
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10 degrees
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Most newer apparatus, regardless of whether they have air-operated or hydraulic brakes, are equipped with ________ to reduce the possibility of the apparatus being thrown into a skid when the brakes are fully applied.
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Antilock braking systems (ABS)
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An apparatus must be able to be brought to a complete stop from a speed of ____ in a distance no to excess ____.
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20 mph in 35 feet
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The parking brake should hold the apparatus in place on a grade of ______.
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20%
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An apparatus equipped with air brakes the air pressure should build to a sufficient level to allow vehicle operations within _____ seconds of starting.
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60 seconds
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The device that prevents the air horns from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below 80 psi.
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air pressure protection valve
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To test the air brakes the apparatus should move forward at about ____ mph and come to a complete stop within ___ feet.
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5 mph within 20 feet
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The inspection of proper ____ fluid MAY be done while the engine is running.
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Transmission fluid
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The windshield washer fluid should be refilled any time it is less than _____ full.
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½
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Typically, career departments require driver/operators to perform apparatus inspections and maintenance checks how often?
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At the beginning of each tour of duty
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Overcleaning an apparatus can lead to?
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Removal of lubrication from the chassis
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Wash fire apparatus with:
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a good automotive shampoo
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If apparatus require waxes or polishes, they generally should not be applied until the apparatus is at least?
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Six months old
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When inspecting electrical cord reels, they should be:
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unreeled completely and inspected as the cord is wiped down with a damp cloth
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The left- and right-rear side inspections should include:
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everything from the rear of the cab to the tailboard on each side of the apparatus
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When performing a left- and right-rear side inspection, make sure that the dual tires:
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do not come in contact with each other
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When performing an in-cab inspection, what should be done first?
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Make sure that the seat and mirrors are adjusted in a suitable manner
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If the speedometer is showing anything above "0" with the truck parked, what possibility may exist?
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The gauge is defective or the truck is in "pump" mode
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What symptom is NOT a result of insufficient free play?
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Clutch not releasing
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Any clutch that does not have the appropriate amount of free play should be checked as soon as possible by:
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a certified mechaninc
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Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below?
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80 psi
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When testing the parking brake, the apparatus should come to a complete stop within:
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20 feet
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Corrosion around battery terminal connections may be cleaned with?
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Baking soda and water
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What is NOT a factor that should be considered when selecting the proper chassis lubricant?
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Length of time between applications
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What pump related check should be done during a daily inspection?
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Operate the pump drive control
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Checking the packing glands for excessive leaks should be done during what type of inspection?
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Weekly inspections
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(T/F) all preventive maintenance functions can be carried out by driver/operators? False.
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Some must be carried out by a certified mechanic
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(T/F) keeping an apparatus clean helps promote a longer vehicle life.
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TRUE
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(T/F) Do not use acetone to clean the interior surfaces of fire apparatus.
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TRUE
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(T/F) When charging an apparatus battery, the red charger cable should be connected to the black battery post.
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False. Red to red
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Generally, the company officer of the first company to arrive at the staging area becomes the ______.
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Staging area manager
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Companies in staging must be ready to respond within ___ of being called.
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3 minutes
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Font wheels should be ____ from the firefighters working highway incidents so that the apparatus will not be driven into them if struck from behind.
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Away from
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An area surrounding the incident that is closest to the release and may have been contaminated by the released material.
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Hot zone (restricted zone, exclusion zine, or red zone)
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The area abutting the hot zone and extending to the cold zone.
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Warm zone (contamination reduction zone, limited-access zone, or yellow zone)
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This zone is considered safe for workers to enter briefly without special protective clothing, unless assigned a task requiring increased protection.
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Warm zone
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This zone encompasses the warm zone and is used to carry out all other support functions of the incident.
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Cold zone (support zone or green zone)
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The incident command post, staging area, and triage/treatment area are located within the ___ zone.
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Cold zone
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____ position the apparatus on the railroad tracks.
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Never
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When possible, position the apparatus on the ___ side of the tracks as the incident.
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Same side
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It is important to allow the ambulance _____.
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The best position for patient loading
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Many departments require EMS vehicles to park:
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off the street or highway and shut off all emergency lights
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When positioning for fire attack where no fire conditions are evident, where should the apparatus be positioned?
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Near the main entrance to the occupancy
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What is the first tactical priority at any fire incident?
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Life safety
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When positioning pumpers to support aerial apparatus, which apparatus should have the optimum operating position?
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Aerial apparatus
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Pumpers providing water for elevated stream operations should position as close as possible to the:
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aerial apparatus
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When positioning to support fire department connections (FDCs), pumpers will generally position as close as possible to the:
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sprinkler or standpipe FDC
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Which drafting sites should be given preference?
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Those accessible from a paved surface
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What is the first step in positioning for drafting operations?
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Connect the hard intake hose and strainer to the pumper
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Which type of jurisdiction usually installs dry hydrants at drafting sites?
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Rural
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What is the only type of hard intake hose that should be connected to a fire hydrant?
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Hard intake hose that has been designed to withstand positive pressure
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What is the preferred type of hose for connection to a fire hydrant?
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Large diameter intake hose
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When should connection to the 2 ½-inch hydrant outlets be made?
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When the maximum flow from a hydrant is NOT needed
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With dual pumping, ___ strong hydrant(s) may be used to supply two pumpers.
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One
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After life safety, what is the highest priority for most wildland firefighting operations?
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Protection of structures
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Most structures threatened by wildland fire are surrounded by:
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dry, flammable vegetation
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When positioning wildland fire apparatus, what should be done to avoid positioning in flammable vegetation?
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Scrape away fuel
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What should the wildland apparatus driver/operator do to help locate and avoid obstacles such as logs, stumps, and rocks?
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Assign a spotter to walk ahead of the vehicle
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How should wildland fire apparatus be facing when positioned?
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Facing the exit
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How does the wildland crew ensure complete extinguishment when progressing along the fire's edge?
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By working engines in tandem or working a single engine with a hand crew
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When attacking a wildland fire from ___, leave sufficient clearance distances from the fire line to allow for loss of water or mechanical failure.
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The unburned side
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What is a function of rescue/squad apparatus?
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Provide extra manpower on the fire scene
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At fires, the positioning of rescue apparatus is ___ as that of pumping and aerial apparatus.
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Not as critical
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The location of the incident command post should be:
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fairly conspicuous
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(T/F) When responding to highway operations the use of warning lights and sirens may create traffic conditions that actually slow the fire unit's response.
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TRUE
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The first-arriving apparatus to a hazardous materials emergency should never be driven directly into the scene without:
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the material involved being identified first
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A stream of water or other extinguishing agent after it leaves a nozzle until it reaches the desired point
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fire stream
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The three basic types of nozzles are:
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solid, fog, and broken
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A fire stream produced from a fixed orifice, smoothbore nozzle
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solid stream
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When solid stream nozzles are used on handlines they should be operated at ___ psi.
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50 psi
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When solid stream nozzles are used on master stream devices they should be operated at ___ psi.
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80 psi
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The formula used to determine the flow from a solid stream nozzle (restricted orifice discharge formula)
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GPM = 29.7 x d² x √NP
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The line bounding a rounded surface; the outward boundary of an object distinguished from its internal regions:
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periphery
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A turning or state of being turned; a turning from a straight line or given course; a bending; a deviation
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deflection
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To strike or dash about or against; clashing with a sharp collision; to come together with force
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impinge
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When water is discharged at angles to direct line of discharge, the reaction forces largely balance each other, thus ___ nozzle reaction.
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Reducing
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Nozzles that are designed to flow a specific amount of water at a specific nozzle discharge pressure on all patters
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constant flow nozzles
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Most constant flow nozzles are intended to be operated at a nozzle pressure of ___ psi.
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100 psi
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A nozzle that has a number of constant flow settings, enabling the firefighter to select a flow rate that best suits the existing conditions.
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Manually adjustable nozzles
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Nozzles that offer variable flow with pattern-change capabilities and the ability to maintain the same nozzle pressure
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automatic nozzles
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Most fog nozzles are designed to flow at 100 psi, however, some fog nozzles may be designed for lower pressures such as __ to __ psi.
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50 to 75 psi
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High-pressure nozzles operate at pressures up to ___ psi.
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800 psi
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High-pressure nozzles and lines are not recommended for structural firefighting because they generally only flow in the neighborhood of __ to __ gpm.
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8 to 15 gpm
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Generally, ___ gpm is the maximum amount of water that can safely flow through a handline nozzle.
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350 gpm
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A fire stream that is too large to be controlled without mechanical aid:
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master stream
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Smooth bore master streams are usually operated at ___ psi and fog master streams at ___ psi.
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80 psi and 100 psi
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Master stream flows are usually greater than ___ gpm.
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Greater than 350 gpm
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Because master stream devices are used from fixed positions, most of them have some means of moving the stream either ____ or ____ or both.
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Horizontal, vertical, or both
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A _____ is mounted on a fire apparatus deck and is connected directly to the pump by permanent pimping.
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Turret pipe
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The ____ consists of a short length of large diameter hose with a large nozzle or large playpipe supported at the discharge end by a tripod.
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Deluge set
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____ are those large-capacity nozzles that are designed to be placed on the end of an aerial device.
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Elevated master stream
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A ___ is a master stream device used in conjunction with aerial ladders.
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Ladder pipe
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Detachable ladder pipes are attached to the rungs of an aerial ladder and are supplied by fire house typically of what size.
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3 inch
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While also called distributors, ____ are often used on basement fires.
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Cellar nozzles
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____ nozzles produce a fan-shaped stream intended to protect combustible materials from the heat of an adjacent fire.
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Water curtain nozzles
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____ nozzles are commonly used in aircraft fire fighting and to apply water to areas that are otherwise inaccessible to water streams, such as voids or attics below lightweight roof systems.
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Piercing nozzles (penetrating nozzles)
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The piercing nozzle is generally a __ to __ hollow steel rod 1 ½ inches in diameter.
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3- to 6-foot
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A chimney nozzle is pumped at a pressure of 100 psi but generally only produces about __ to __ gpm.
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1.5 to 3 gpm
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The force that pushes back on the firefighters handing the hoseline is called:
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nozzle reaction
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Tests have revealed that the practical working limits for velocity of fire streams are within __ to __ feet per second.
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60 to 120 feet per second
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If greater reach and volume are needed, the nozzle pressure for smooth bore hand line nozzles can be increased to ___ without becoming unmanageable.
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65 psi
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The formula to determine nozzle reaction for a solid stream nozzle is:
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NR SB = 1.57 x d² x NP
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The formula to determine nozzle reaction for fog stream nozzles is:
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NR FOG = .0505 x Q x √NP "Q" = gpm
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The "rule of thumb" equation for determining nozzle reaction in fog nozzle is:
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NR FOG = Q / 2
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Solid stream nozzles are designed to produce a stream as ___ as possible with little shower or spray.
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Compact
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What characteristic does a solid stream nozzle have that other streams may not?
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Superior reach
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Solid stream nozzles should be operated at ___ psi for handlines.
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50 psi
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Solid stream nozzles should be operated at ___ psi for master stream devices.
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80 psi
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Why are fog patterns easier to handle than solid or straight stream patterns?
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The reaction forces largely balance each other
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Which type of fog nozzle discharges the same volume of water regardless of the patterns setting?
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Constant flow nozzles
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Which type of fog nozzle supplies the selected flow at the rated nozzle discharge pressure?
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Manually adjustable nozzles
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Which type of fog nozzle serves as a pressure regulator for the pumper as lines are added or shut down, ensuring that all available water may be used continuously?
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Automatic nozzles
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Handline nozzles are designed to be placed on ___ that can be easily maneuvered by firefighters.
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Attack lines
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Which type of master stream nozzle has three basic types: fixed, portable, and combination?
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Monitors
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Which type of master stream nozzle has pre-plumbed waterways instead of hose?
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Elevated master streams
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What components make up a deluge set?
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A short length of large diameter hose with a large nozzle or large playpipe support at the discharge end by a tripod
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What type of master stream device cannot change the direction or angle of the stream while it is discharging water?
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Deluge set
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Which type of special purpose nozzle is commonly used in aircraft fire fighting and to apply water to areas that are otherwise inaccessible to water streams?
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Piercing nozzles
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Which type of special purpose nozzle produces a fire fine, misty fog cone?
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Cellar nozzle
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The force pushing back on firefighters as water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure:
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nozzle reaction
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The modern fire department pumper is equipped with a ____ as its main pump.
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Centrifugal pump
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Because they can pump air, _____ pumps are used as priming devices to get water into the centrifugal pumps during drafting operations.
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Positive displacement pumps
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____ contain a piston that moves back and forth or up and down inside a cylinder.
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Piston pumps
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A _____ is a piston pump that can both receive and discharge water on each stroke of the piston.
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Double-acting piston pump
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The output capacity of a piston pump is determined by the ____ and the ____.
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Size of the cylinder and the speed of the piston travel.
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Multi-cylinder pumps are more flexible and efficient because _____.
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Some of the cylinders can be disengaged when the pump's full capacity is not needed.
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Piston pumps have not been used as the major fire pump in pumpers because in addition to problems with pulsating fire streams they are:
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very susceptible to wear
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_____ pumps are the simplest of all fire apparatus pumps from the standpoint of design.
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Rotary-type pumps
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the ___ pump consists of two gears that rotate in a tightly meshed pattern inside a water-tight case.
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Rotary gear
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The total amount of water that can be pumped by a rotary gear pump depends upon the:
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size of the pockets in the gears and the speed of rotation
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|
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The rotary gear pump is a positive displacement pump because each pocket in the gears contains:
|
a definite amount of water
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The ____ pump is constructed with movable elements that automatically compensate for wear and maintain a tighter fit with closer clearances as the pump is used.
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Rotary vane pump
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The self-adjusting feature makes the ____ pump much more efficient at pumping air than the standard rotary gear pump.
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Rotary vane pump
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The ____ pump is classified as a non-positive displacement pump because it does not pump a definite amount of water with each revolution.
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Centrifugal pump
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In theory, the operation of a ____ pump is based on the principle that a rapidly revolving disk tends to throw water introduced at its center toward the outer edge of the disk.
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Centrifugal pump
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Fundamentally, the centrifugal pump consists of what two parts:
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an impeller and a casing
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The ___ transmits energy in the form of velocity of the water.
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Impeller
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The ___ collects the water and confines it in order to convert the velocity into pressure.
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Casing
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The impeller rotates very rapidly within the casing, generally from ___ to ___ rpm.
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2,000 to 4,000 rpm
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|
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Water is introduced from the intake into the ___ of the impeller.
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Eye
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To some extent, the volume capaibility of the (centrifugal) pump is dependent on:
|
the size of the eye
|
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In a centrifugal pump, the water is confined in its travel by the ___ of the impeller, which increase the velocity for a given speed of rotation.
|
Shrouds
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The impeller is mounted ____ in the casing.
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Off-center
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The water passage that gradually increases in cross-sectional area as it nears the discharge outlet of the pump. This section of the pump is known as the:
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volute
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The gradually increasing size of the waterway reduces the velocity of the water, thus enabling:
|
the pressure to build up proportionately
|
|
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There are three main factors that influence a centrifugal fire pumps discharge pressure:
|
amount of water being discharged, speed at which the impeller is turning, and pressure of water as it enters the pump from a pressurized source
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In a centrifugal pump, the greater the speed of the impeller the greater the:
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pressure developed
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In a centrifugal pump, doubling the speed of the impeller results in ___ as much pressure if all other factors remain the same.
|
Quadrupling (four times)
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____ are constructed with a single impeller.
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Single-stage centrifugal pumps
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The Law of Physics state that for every action there is an:
|
equal and opposite reaction
|
|
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The ____ takes water in from both sides and the reaction being equal and opposite cancels the lateral thrust.
|
Double suction impeller
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The design of a ______ provides a hydraulically balanced pump, which reduces stress on the pump and chassis, and helps to lengthen the life of the pump and apparatus.
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Double suction impeller
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The _____ has an impeller for each stage mounted within a single housing.
|
Multi-stage centrifugal pump
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What gives multi-stage pumps their versatility and efficiency is the capability of connecting the stages in series for maximum _____ or in parallel for maximum ___.
|
Series for max pressure or parallel for max volume
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When pumping in parallel (volume) position each of the impellers is capable of flowing ___ % of the rated capacity.
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50%
|
|
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Changing the transfer valve to the series position greatly increases the maximum attainable:
|
pressure
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When the transfer valve is in the series (pressure) position, all the water form the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the ____ impeller.
|
First
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Depending on the manufacturer, the first stage increases the pressure and discharges ___ to ___% of the volume capacity through the transfer valve and into the eye of the second impeller.
|
50-70%
|
|
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The process of switching between pressure and volume is sometimes referred to as:
|
changeover
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In some departments SOP specifies that the transfer valve stay in the pressure position until it is necessary to supply more than ___ the rated volume capacity of the pump.
|
More than ½ the volume capacity
|
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Advances in design allow most manufacturers to specify that the pump may remain in the pressure system until it is necessary to flow more than ____ the rated volume capacity.
|
2/3rds
|
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The maximum net pump discharge pressure at which the transfer valve should be operated is typically ___psi.
|
50 psi
|
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While in parallel (volume) position the pump can supply ___ of the rated volume capacity at 150 psi.
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100%
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Many power-operated transfer valves operate at pressure as high as ___ psi.
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200 psi
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When the transfer valve is operated, the ___ valve allows water to escape back into the intake, and it churns through the pump instead of building up pressure.
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Clapper valve
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Some manufacturers have used as many as four impellers connected in series to develop pressures up to ____ psi.
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1,000 psi
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The opening between the pump casing and the hub of the impeller is usually limited to ___ or less.
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.01 inches or less
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The first indication that wear is becoming a problem in the pump is when:
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increased engine rpm is required to pump at rated capacity
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To restore the capacity of the pump without replacing the pump, replaceable ____ are provided in the pump casing to maintain the desired space between the hub and the impeller and casing.
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Wear rings (clearance rings)
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The centrifugal pump differs from positive displacement pumps that _____ results from shutting off all discharges for short periods of time.
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Little or no harm
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On pumps not equipped with a thermal relief valve, the best insurance against overheating is to ensure that:
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some water is moving through the pump at all times
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The impellers are fastened to a shaft that connects to a:
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gearbox
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_____ are used to make the seals at the point where the shaft passes through the pump casing.
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Packing rings
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the most common type of packing is a material made of:
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rope fibers impregnated with graphite or lead
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As packing rings wear with the operation of the shaft, the packing glands can be _____ and the leak controlled.
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Tightened
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To overcome the heat that is developed by friction against the packing a ____ is supplied with the packing to provide cooling and lubrication.
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Latern rings (spacer)
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If the pump is operated dry for any length of time:
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it can damage the shaft
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If the pump is equipped with _____ instead of packing, they will not drip and will not require adjustment.
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Mechanical seals
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_____ pumps are those pumps that are powered by a gasoline or diesel engine independent of an engine used to drive the vehicle.
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Auxiliary engine
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Auxiliary engine-driven pumps offer ____ flexibility.
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Maximum
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____ refers to pumping water while the apparatus is in motion.
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Pump-and-roll (mobile attack)
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The conventional power take-off unit limits the capacity of the pump to about ____ gpm.
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500 gpm
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Because the PTO unit is mounted on the side of the transmission, and the maximum strain this housing can take limits the available horsepower to approximately ___.
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95 HP
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The typically capacity for front mounted pumps is up to:
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1,250 gpm
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One disadvantage to of the front-mount pump is that the pump and gauges are ____ than pumps that are contained within the body of the apparatus.
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more susceptible to freezing in cold climates
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A disadvantage to _____ pumps is that they can obstruct air flow through the vehicle's radiator and thereby contribute to engine overheating.
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Front mount pumps
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The ___ pump is in a vulnerable position in the event of a collision.
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Front mount pump
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Like PTO-driven pumps, ____ pumps can be used for pump-and-roll operations.
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Front mount pumps
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Most font-mount pumps are engaged and controlled from:
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the pump location itself
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In ____ pumps, by shifting a gear and collar arrangement inside the gearbox, power can be diverted from the rear axle and transmitted to the fire pump.
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Midship pumps
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Most fire department pumps have ____ pumps.
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Midship
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The gear ratio for a midship pump is arranged so that the impeller turns faster than the engine, usually ___ to ___ times as fast.
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1 ½ to 2 times as fast
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A particular two-stage centrifugal pump popular in the fire service can be anywhere from ___ to ___ gpm.
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500 to 1,500 gpm
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With the engine idling and the pump engaged, most speedometers read between ___ to __ mph.
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10 to 15 mph
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To prevent damage to the gears, disengage the clutch and place the road transmission in ___ while the power transfer (from road to pump) is made.
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Neutral (N)
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One advantage of a rear-mount pump is that it provides a more even ____ on the apparatus chassis.
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Weight distribution
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A disadvantage of a rear mount pump is that the D/O may be:
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more directly exposed to oncoming traffic
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