Crcst Ch 1- 21

Front 1

True or False – Since Central Service Technicians do not handle money, ethical considerations do not apply to them

Back 1

False (pg. 16)

Front 2

True or False – Central Service Technicians practice resource management when they control costs and reduce waste

Back 2

True

Front 3

True or False – Central Service Technicians must be able to identify approximately 100 surgical instruments in order to be proficient in their job

Back 3

False (pg. 17)

Front 4

True or False – Central Service Technicians must be able to adapt to change

Back 4

True (pg. 15)

Front 5

True or False – Because all Central Service Departments have the same structure, healthcare facilities use one standardized job description for all Central Service Technicians

Back 5

False (pg. 18)

Front 6

True or False – Career growth and progression is virtually non–existent for Central Service Technicians

Back 6

False (pg. 21)

Front 7

True or False – Departments that perform central service functions may go by other names at different facilities. For example, Sterile Processing and Distribution, Surgical Supply, etc.

Back 7

True (pg. 9)

Front 8

True or False – Central Service workflow can be divided into the handling of 3 categories of items: soiled items, clean items, and sterile items

Back 8

True (pg. 9)

Front 9

True or False – The use of positive and negative air pressure in the Central Service Department is designed to take the place of heating and air–conditioning

Back 9

False (pg. 13)

Front 10

True or False – Since modern Central Service Departments are virtually risk–free, Central Service Technicians need not be concerned with safety practices.

Back 10

False (pg. 16)

Front 11

endo

Back 11

within

Front 12

hemi

Back 12

half

Front 13

para

Back 13

beside, near

Front 14

peri

Back 14

around, about

Front 15

post

Back 15

after

Front 16

supra

Back 16

above

Front 17

cardio

Back 17

heart

Front 18

chole

Back 18

bile

Front 19

cranio

Back 19

skull

Front 20

cysto

Back 20

bladder

Front 21

derma

Back 21

skin

Front 22

gastro

Back 22

stomach

Front 23

gyne

Back 23

woman

Front 24

hepat

Back 24

liver

Front 25

herni

Back 25

rupture

Front 26

hyster

Back 26

uterus/womb

Front 27

lipo

Back 27

fat

Front 28

litho

Back 28

stone

Front 29

rhino

Back 29

nose

Front 30

arthro

Back 30

joint

Front 31

–ectomy

Back 31

surgical removal

Front 32

–ostomy

Back 32

surgical creation of a new opening

Front 33

–otomy

Back 33

incision into an organ

Front 34

–rrhaphy

Back 34

Surgical restoration or repair

Front 35

–oscopy

Back 35

visual exam

Front 36

–cise

Back 36

to cut

Front 37

excision of the colon:
col____

Back 37

colectomy

Front 38

Forming an opening into the colon: colo____

Back 38

Colostomy

Front 39

Instrument to cut skin:
derma_____

Back 39

dermatome

Front 40

excision of hemorrhoids:
hemorrhoid_____

Back 40

hemorrhoidectomy

Front 41

crushing of a stone:
litho_____

Back 41

lithotripsy

Front 42

surgical repair of the nose:
rhin_____

Back 42

rhinoplasty

Front 43

surgical repair of the tympanic membrane: Tympan_______

Back 43

tympanoplasty

Front 44

Define this abbreviation:
D&C

Back 44

Dilatation and Curettage

Front 45

Define this abbreviation:
BSO

Back 45

Bilateral Salpingoophorectomy

Front 46

Define this abbreviation:
CABG

Back 46

Coronary Artery Bypass Graft

Front 47

Name the procedure and body system:
Making an opening into the skull to access the brain

Back 47

Procedure: Craniotomy
Body System: Skeletal

Front 48

Name the procedure and body system:
Making an opening into the thoracic cavity to give surgeons access to the lungs and heart

Back 48

Procedure: Thoracotomy
Body System: Respiratory System

Front 49

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing a salivary gland because of a tumor formation

Back 49

Procedure: Parotidectomy
Body System: Digestive System

Front 50

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing plaque from the carotid artery that causes a lack of brain oxygen

Back 50

Procedure: Carotid Endarterectomy
Body System: Circulatory System

Front 51

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing a vein from a lower limb to to bypass a blocked coronary artery of the heart

Back 51

Procedure: CABG
Body System: Circulatory System

Front 52

Name the procedure and body system:
Removal of a kidney

Back 52

Procedure: Nephrectomy
Body System: Urinary System

Front 53

Name the procedure and body system:
Making an incision into the tympanic membrane to permit fluid to drain and placing small tubes in the membrane to permit continuous drainage

Back 53

Procedure: Myringotomy
Body System: Nervous System

Front 54

Name the procedure and body system:
A repair to the muscles and ligaments of the shoulder joint

Back 54

Procedure: Rotator Cuff Repair
Body System: Muscular System

Front 55

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing disc tissue pressing on the lower spine area, inserting a piece of bone between the vertebra and fusing the area with plates and screws

Back 55

Procedure: Posterior Lumbar Interbody Fusion
Body System: Skeletal System

Front 56

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing the lymph tissue in the pharynx

Back 56

Procedure: Tonsillectomy
Body System: Immune System (book incorrectly answers circulatory system)

Front 57

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing the gall bladder

Back 57

Procedure: Cholecystectomy
Body System: Digestive System

Front 58

Name the procedure and body system:
Straightening or removing cartilage and/or bone in the nose when the nasal septum is deformed, injured, or fractured

Back 58

Procedure: Septoplasty
Body System: Respiratory System

Front 59

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing of both fallopian tubes and ovaries

Back 59

Procedure: Bilateral Salpingooopherectomy
Body System: Reproductive System

Front 60

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing tissue or displaced bone in the wrist area to release pressure on the median nerve

Back 60

Procedure: Carpal Tunnel Repair
Body System: Nervous System

Front 61

Name the procedure and body system:
Removing a testicle

Back 61

Procedure: Orchiectomy
Body System: Reproductive System

Front 62

Name the procedure and body system:
Reconstructing the ear drum so sound waves can be sent to the middle and inner ear

Back 62

Procedure: Tympanoplasty
Body System: Nervous System

Front 63

This organ pumps blood throughout the body

Back 63

Heart

Front 64

The process by which cartilage is replaced by bone

Back 64

Ossification

Front 65

Any place where two bones meet

Back 65

Joint

Front 66

The main control until of the central nervous system

Back 66

Brain

Front 67

Considered the master gland because it helps controls the activities of all other endocrine glands

Back 67

Pituitary Gland

Front 68

This organ filters blood to remove amino acids and neutralize xome harmful toxins

Back 68

Liver

Front 69

Produces a flued element in the semen that stimulates the motility of sperm

Back 69

Prostate Gland

Front 70

The largest part of the brain, it controls mental activities and movement

Back 70

Cerebrum

Front 71

These carry blood away from the heart

Back 71

Arteries

Front 72

A somewhat flexible muscular tube that helps move food into the stomach

Back 72

Esophagus

Front 73

a type of connective tissue fluid that moves throughout the circulatory system

Back 73

Blood

Front 74

The pathway that food takes through the digestive system

Back 74

Alimentary canal

Front 75

Female reproductive organs

Back 75

Ovaries

Front 76

A cord of fibrous tissue that connects muscle to bone

Back 76

Tendon

Front 77

The largest organ of the body

Back 77

Skin

Front 78

The basic unit of life

Back 78

Cell

Front 79

Tube–like structures that connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder

Back 79

Ureters

Front 80

This is where the digestive process begins

Back 80

Mouth

Front 81

These cells components are comprised of DNA and pass on traits of parent cells to new cells

Back 81

Chromosomes

Front 82

This part of the nervous system controls many automatic body functions like the heartbeat and breathing

Back 82

Brain Stem

Front 83

The functional center of a cell that governs activity and heredity is called the______.

Back 83

Nucleus

Front 84

Thread–like "tails" that help bacteria move through liquids are called _______.

Back 84

Flagella

Front 85

______ are often pathogenic to humans because they grow best at body temperature.

Back 85

Mesophiles

Front 86

Herpes Simplex is a _____ disease.

Back 86

Viral

Front 87

Bacteria that require free oxygen to grow are called _____ bacteria

Back 87

Aerobic

Front 88

Bacteria are divided into 3 main shape classifications:

Back 88

Cocci (round), Bacillus (rods), and Spirillum (spirals).

Front 89

Microorganisms that are capable of forming a thick wall around themselves to survive in adverse conditions are called

Back 89

Spores

Front 90

The two most common processes designed to classify bacteria by color change are the ______ and the ______.

Back 90

Gram Stain and Ziehl–Neilson Stain

Front 91

Tetanus and botulism do not require free oxygen to grow, so they are classified as _______ bacteria

Back 91

Anaerobic

Front 92

Using Gram–Stain classifications, Staphlococcus, Enterococcus, and Streptococcus are examples of Gram–________ bacteria

Back 92

Positive

Front 93

The bacterial reproductive process that takes place when a mother cell divides into two daughter cells is called ________.

Back 93

Binary Fission

Front 94

List the six steps in the change of infection

Back 94

1: causative agent
2: reservoir of the agent
3: portal of exit
4: mode of transmission
5: portal of entry
6: susceptible host

Front 95

_________ is defined as the state of being soiled or infected by contact with infectious organisms or other material

Back 95

Contamination

Front 96

Most bacteria are approximately ________ microns in size

Back 96

1–2 microns

Front 97

Sunlight is lethal to the _________ stage of pathogens

Back 97

Vegetative

Front 98

This organization has established standards for the effective processing of flexible endoscopes. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 98

SGNA. Voluntary

Front 99

Furthers international cooperation in improving health conditions.

Back 99

Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Hint 99

WHO. Voluntary

Front 100

Develops nationally recognized standards, recommended practices, and guidelines for the PeriOperative setting. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 100

AORN. Voluntary

Front 101

Protects workers from occupationally–caused illnesses and injuries. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 101

OSHA. Regulatory

Front 102

Proposed standards are submitted from members such as AAMI. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 102

ANSI. Voluntary

Front 103

Provides standards and evaluations for healthcare facilities. These evaluations are in the form of onsite surveys at least every three years.

Back 103

Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Hint 103

Joint Commission. Voluntary.

Front 104

Creates and revises standards for processing water for irrigation. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 104

USP–NFR. Voluntary

Front 105

Creates and enforces laws relating to cleaner water, air, and land. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 105

EPA. Regulatory

Front 106

A voluntary international organization dedicated to the prevention and control of infections and related outcomes. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 106

APIC. Voluntary

Front 107

Enforces laws relating to the transportation of medical wastes. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 107

DOT. Regulatory

Front 108

Is considered one of the major resources for healthcare guidelines. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 108

AAMI. Voluntary

Front 109

International standards to reduce the burden of fire and other hazards. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 109

NFPA. Voluntary

Front 110

Promotes health by preventing and controlling disease. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 110

CDC. Voluntary

Front 111

Responsible for pre and post market medical device requirements, MedWatch, medical device classification, and medical device recall

Back 111

FDA. Regulatory

Front 112

Enhances the global competitiveness and quality of life by promoting standards and ensuring their integrity. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 112

ANSI. Voluntary

Front 113

Agency responsible for regulating EO. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 113

OSHA & EPA. Regulatory

Front 114

Agency responsible for the MedWatch Program. Is it voluntary or regulatory?

Back 114

FDA. Regulatory

Front 115

Give the reason behind this regulation:
Central Service Technicians change from their street clothes into clean attire before entering their work area

Back 115

Central Service Technicians work in a controlled environment. They help maintain that environment by removing street clothes that may carry contaminants and changing into facility–issued scrubs. They wear hair covers and follow specific dress codes to reduce the amount of microorganisms introduced into the work area

Front 116

Give the reason behind this regulation:
Before beginning work, Central Service Technicians remove watches and other jewelry before beginning work

Back 116

Watches and other jewelry can harbor microorganisms that could be transmitted into or out of the Central Service work areas.

Front 117

Give the reason behind this regulation:
Central Service Technicians wear PPE in the Decontamination area.

Back 117

PPE is designed to protect workers in biohazard areas from bloodborne pathogen exposures that may occur as they handle contaminated items

Front 118

Give the reason behind this regulation:
Food and beverages are not allowed in the Central Service work areas

Back 118

Central Service Technicians should not eat or drink in their work area for several reasons:
–Beverages may spill and contaminate items
–Food and beverages may attract insects
–Central Service Technicians should not eat in the work area because their hands may be soiled and they bay transmit bacteria
–Oils from foods may pass from hands onto surgical instruments

Front 119

Give the reason behind this regulation:
Floors in the Central Service department should be wet–mopped daily. They should never be swept or dust–mopped.

Back 119

Floors in the Central Service work areas should never be swept or dust–mopped because those processes cause dust to rise and it may be re–deposited on items in the area. Floors in the Central Service work areas should be wet–mopped at least daily.

Front 120

A compound in which chlorine is combined with another element or radical (e.g., a salt or hydrochloric acid)

Back 120

Chloride

Front 121

A measurement of the ability of water to carry an electrical current

Back 121

Conductivity

Front 122

To remove ions which are have an electrical charge

Back 122

Deionize

Front 123

The diffusion of water through a semi–permeable membrane to eliminate impurities in the water

Back 123

Reverse Osmosis

Front 124

Water that has been treated and is acceptable for drinking

Back 124

Tap Water

Front 125

Having the sediment or solids stirred up to appear cloudy silicate – a mineral derived from silca which from quartz, sand, opal, etc.

Back 125

Turbidity

Front 126

A unit of measure that measures the amount of resistance to an electrical current

Back 126

Ohm

Front 127

Solution used to remove the white, hard–to–remove substance that sometimes appears on sinks and equipment

Back 127

Descaler

Front 128

The _____ department is the major source of soiled items received by the Central Service department

Back 128

Surgery

Front 129

Soiled items that are held in user departments for pick up must be stored in designated areas labeled with ______ signage

Back 129

Biohazard

Front 130

If grossly soiled instruments cannot be cleaned immediately, the should be kept _______.

Back 130

Moist

Front 131

Tissue, body fat, blood, and other body substances are examples of ________ soil.

Back 131

Gross

Front 132

Disposable sharp items (i.e. blades, needles, etc.) should be removed at point–of–use and placed in a ________ container labeled biohazard.

Back 132

Hard–sided

Front 133

Point–of–use preparation of soiled items is normally performed by the ________.

Back 133

User Department

Front 134

Disposable components should be removed at _______.

Back 134

Point of Use

Front 135

Soiled instruments should be transported in an ________ container or care.

Back 135

Enclosed

Front 136

Before transport, reusable sharps should be ______ from other instruments.

Back 136

Separated

Front 137

Containers and carts used to transport contaminated items should not be used to transport clean items unless the have been thoroughly _________ between uses.

Back 137

Decontaminated

Front 138

True or False, if false explain why:
Instruments with lumens should be soaked in a horizontal position.

Back 138

False – Instruments with lumens should be soaked vertically

Front 139

True or False, if false explain why:
The mechanical process by which an ultrasonic cleaner works is called cavitation.

Back 139

True

Front 140

True or False, if false explain why: To prevent aerosols, items should be brushed below the surface of the water.

Back 140

True

Front 141

True or False, if false explain why:
Automatic washers clean using spray–force action called impingement

Back 141

True

Front 142

True or False, if false explain why:
Instruments received from surgery and tagged for repair do not need to be cleaned until they come back from repair.

Back 142

False – nonfunctional instruments received from surgery must be cleaned before they are sent out for repair

Front 143

True or False, if false explain why:
Powered surgical instruments should be cleaned using a mechanical cleaning process

Back 143

False – Powered Surgical Instruments (PSI's) should not be cleaned using a mechanical cleaning process

Front 144

True or False, if false explain why:
There are currently no methods available to verify cleaning process outcomes.

Back 144

False – Along with visual inspection, there are products available that can help measure cleaning outcomes

Front 145

True or False, if false explain why:
Infectious waste is regulated by the EPA.

Back 145

True

Front 146

True or False, if false explain why:
Horizontal work surfaces in the decontamination area should be cleaned and disinfected once per day.

Back 146

False – Horizontal work surfaces in the decontamination area should be cleaned and disinfected at the beginning and end of each shift.

Front 147

True or False, if false explain why:
PPE should be changed immediately if it becomes soaked with blood or other infectious material.

Back 147

True

Front 148

The use of heat to kill microorganisms, except spores

Back 148

Thermal disinfection

Front 149

Compounds that contain a positive electrical charge. They exhibit germicidal properties.

Back 149

Cationic

Front 150

A chemical which kills most pathogenic organisms, but does not kill spores

Back 150

Disinfectant

Front 151

A solution which inhibits the growth of bacteria. It is usually used topically and only on animate objects

Back 151

Antiseptic

Front 152

The length of time a disinfectant can be properly stored after which it must be discarded

Back 152

Shelf Life

Front 153

Compounds that have a negative electrical charge. They form a large group of synthetic detergents.

Back 153

Anionic

Front 154

The destruction of nearly all pathogenic microorganisms on an inanimate surface.

Back 154

Disinfection

Front 155

Relating to the destruction of bacteria

Back 155

Bactericidal

Front 156

The length of time (or number of uses) after which the efficiency of a disinfectant is diminished

Back 156

Use Life

Front 157

A process by which all forms of microbial life are destroyed.

Back 157

Sterilization

Front 158

Name the disinfectant:
These low–level disinfectants are often used in environmental sanitation on objects such as floors, walls, and furniture. They are incompatible with soaps. Their concentration may be diminished by some materials such as cotton, wool, filter paper, and charcoal.

Back 158

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

Front 159

Name the disinfectant:
This high–level disinfectant is sued for semi–critical devices such as endoscopes. It has sterilant capabilities, but to achieve sterilization the exposure time is 10 hours or more. Once it is activated (mixed) it must be checked routinely using test strips to ensure its concentration. Because of its fumes, employees who work with it must follow specific OSHA guidelines for safety

Back 159

Glutaraldehyde

Front 160

Name the disinfectant:
This common disinfectant has been in use for several years. It is often used to disinfect equipment. It is inactivated by organic soil. In order to achieve a reasonable level of disinfection it must remain in wet contact with the item being disinfected for at least 5 minutes. That can be a problem because it evaporates quickly.

Back 160

Alcohol

Front 161

Name the disinfectant:
This relatively new high–level disinfectant is effective at room temperature and provides a fast and effective way to disinfect a side range of items. It has excellent high–level disinfection capabilities, but is not classified as a sterilant.

Back 161

Ortho–Phthaldehyde

Front 162

A self–retaining retractor

Back 162

Gelpi

Front 163

The part of a ring–handled instrument that locks the handles in place

Back 163

Ratchet

Front 164

Surgical instruments used to cut away at bone and tissue

Back 164

Rongeurs

Front 165

A chemical process applied during instrument manufacture that provides a corrosion–resistant finish

Back 165

Passivation

Front 166

Surgical instruments with a hollow barrel (lumen) through their center

Back 166

Cannulas

Front 167

Also known as 400 series stainless steel, this metal used in surgical instrument manufacture can be heat–hardened

Back 167

Martensitic

Front 168

Surgical instruments used to cut, incise, or dissect tissue

Back 168

Scissors

Front 169

Commonly found in the Operating Room, this can damage instruments with prolonged exposure

Back 169

Saline

Front 170

Surgical instruments used to grasp

Back 170

Forceps

Front 171

The part of a ring–handled instrument where the two parts meet and pivot.

Back 171

Box Lock

Front 172

True or False:
Tungsten Carbide Scissor blades hold a sharp edge longer than stainless steel ones.

Back 172

True

Front 173

True or False:
Tissue forceps have teeth and dressing forceps have serrations

Back 173

True

Front 174

True or False:
Double action ronguers should be tested for sharpness using tissue paper

Back 174

False

Front 175

True or False:
Laser–etching is a permanent instrument marking process

Back 175

True

Front 176

True or False:
Because they are mild cleaners, dish soaps are the cleaners of choice for surgical instruments.

Back 176

False

Front 177

Name the PSI:
Used to repair and reconstruct teeth and jawbones

Back 177

Dental drill

Front 178

Name the PSI:
Used in ear surgery and for driving very small wires through bone

Back 178

Micro Drill

Front 179

Name the PSI:
Used in open heart surgery

Back 179

Sternal Saw

Front 180

Name the PSI:
Used to remove cement

Back 180

Cebatome

Front 181

Name the PSI:
Used to harvest skin grafts and reshape skin surfaces

Back 181

Dermatome/Dermabraider

Front 182

Name the PSI:
Used to perform specific cutting actions such as reciprocating or oscillating

Back 182

Saw

Front 183

Name the endoscope:
Allows for visual inspection of the lower part of the large intestine

Back 183

Sigmoidoscope

Front 184

Name the endoscope:
Allows for visual inspection of the upper digestive tract

Back 184

Gastroscope

Front 185

Name the endoscope:
Used to visualize the urethra and bladder

Back 185

Cystoscope

Front 186

Name the endoscope:
Used to visualize the tracheobronchial tree

Back 186

Bronchoscope

Front 187

Name the endoscope:
Used to visualize the entire large intestines

Back 187

Colonoscope

Front 188

True or False:
Leak testing should be performed on each flexible endoscope annually

Back 188

False

Front 189

True or False:
Loaner instrument trays that are received sterile from other facilities do not need to be decontaminated and resterilized before use

Back 189

False

Front 190

True or False:
Endoscope channels should be cleaned and then left moist for storage

Back 190

False

Front 191

True or False:
Powered Surgical Instruments have one of three power sources: electricity, air, or battery.

Back 191

True

Front 192

True or False:
Modern powered surgical instruments are submersible

Back 192

False

Front 193

True or False:
Laparoscopic instrument insulation failure can cause burns

Back 193

True

Front 194

True or False:
The purpose of a decontamination battery is to protect PSI's from fluid invasion

Back 194

True

Front 195

True or False:
Dental drills are used to remove cement

Back 195

False

Front 196

True or False:
Automatic endoscope reprocessors are not recommended for flexible endoscopes.

Back 196

False

Front 197

A method of stock rotation that ensures that older items are used first.

Back 197

First in, first out (FIFO)

Front 198

Minimum amount of time that packaging materials should be held at room temperature and at 35%–70% relative humidity before sterilization

Back 198

2 hours

Front 199

Flat wrapping technique that applies one wrap on top of another to create a package within a package

Back 199

Sequential

Front 200

Government agency that regulates sterilization packaging materials

Back 200

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Front 201

This type of packaging contains no cellulosic materials and would be used to package small items for low temperature sterilization.

Back 201

Spunbond Polyolefin–Plastic Combinations

Front 202

This type of packaging can be used in dry heat sterilization but is not recommended for other types of sterilization.

Back 202

Aluminum Foil

Front 203

When using paper/plastic pouches, package content information should be written on this side of the pouch

Back 203

Plastic

Front 204

True or False: Paperclips are acceptable method of package closure

Back 204

False

Front 205

Muslin is an example of this type of packaging material

Back 205

Reusable

Front 206

Maximum density recommended per cubic foot of a linen pack

Back 206

7.2 Pounds

Front 207

True or False: Sterilization documentation is not required for items that are flash sterilized

Back 207

False

Front 208

True or False: Instruments must be cleaned before flash sterilization

Back 208

True

Front 209

True or False: Flash sterilization is rarely performed in hospitals

Back 209

False

Front 210

True or False: Peracetic acid is a liquid oxidizing agent that effectively kills bacteria at low temperatures

Back 210

True

Front 211

True or False: Currently there are no process monitors for peracetic acid sterilization processes

Back 211

False

Front 212

True or False: a diagnostic cycle on the peracetic acid system should be run every day

Back 212

True

Front 213

True or False: hydrogen peroxide in an example of oxidative chemistry

Back 213

True

Front 214

True or False: Liquid peracetic acid is difficult to rinse from items

Back 214

False

Front 215

True or False: Ethylene oxide is not used for point of use processing because of its long cycle times

Back 215

True

Front 216

True or False: High level disinfection is appropriate for semi–critical devices

Back 216

True

Front 217

The procedure used by healthcare facilities to confirm that sterilization recommendations from the manufacturer can be successfully undertaken in the hospital setting is called_____.

Back 217

Verification

Front 218

The test used to evaluate the efficacy of a steam sterilizer's air removal system is call a _____ test.

Back 218

Bowie–Dick

Front 219

A dating system that records the date as the number of days that have elapsed since January 1st is called the _______.

Back 219

Julian Date

Front 220

The ______ is the portion of the steam sterilizer that measures steam temperature and automatically controls the flow of air and condensate from the sterilizer chamber

Back 220

Thermostatic Trap

Front 221

Central Service Technicians should never use _______ to hold instruments together for sterilization

Back 221

Rubber Bands

Front 222

Steam sterilization heats items within the load using a heat transfer process called ______.

Back 222

Convection

Front 223

______ steam sterilization can be used to sterilize liquids

Back 223

Gravity

Front 224

The weight of wrapped basin sets should not exceed ______.

Back 224

7 Pounds

Front 225

The bacterial spore used for testing dry heat sterilization is __________.

Back 225

Bacillus atrophaeus

Front 226

Dry heat sterilization heats items within the load using a heat transfer process called ______.

Back 226

Conduction

Front 227

The "newest" low temperature sterilization process

Back 227

Ozone

Front 228

This method of low temperature sterilization has been in use since the 1960's

Back 228

Ethylene Oxide

Front 229

Cycle time for items sterilized using hydrogen peroxide gas plasma

Back 229

Less than one hour

Front 230

Bacterial spore used to test ethylene oxide sterilization cycles

Back 230

Bacillus atrophaeus

Front 231

Cycle time for items using ozone sterilization

Back 231

4 hours

Front 232

140 degrees F. aeration time recommended for items sterilized with ethylene oxide

Back 232

8 hours

Front 233

Bacterial spore used to text hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization cycles

Back 233

Geobacillus stearothermophilus

Front 234

Cycle time for items sterilized using using ethylene oxide sterilization

Back 234

12+ hours

Front 235

Sets exposure standards for chemical sterilants

Back 235

OSHA

Front 236

Requires that sterilants be rigorously tested before being marketed.

Back 236

FDA

Front 237

Items that are stored at the healthcare facility, but owned by the vendor are called ______ items.

Back 237

Consignment

Front 238

Consumable items that are stored in Central Service and other assigned storage systems are referred to as _______. Their value is usually included on the facility's balance sheet.

Back 238

Official Inventory

Front 239

______ occur when consumable or reusable inventory items are not available when needed.

Back 239

Stock Outs

Front 240

When items are needed immediately, or at once, Central Service Technicians may receive a ______ order.

Back 240

STAT

Front 241

The number of times per year that inventory is purchased, consumed, and replaced is called the ________.

Back 241

Inventory Turnover Rate

Front 242

Something of value that is owned by an organization or person is called an ________

Back 242

Asset

Front 243

Detergents, sterilization quality assurance products, and other items that are purchased, used up, and replaced are called _______.

Back 243

Consumable Inventory

Front 244

Sterilizers, mechanical washers, and other expensive items are examples of ______.

Back 244

Capital Equipment

Front 245

The inventory management strategy that pays the most attention to the items with the highest dollar value and less attention to items with the lowest dollar value is called ________.

Back 245

ABC Analysis

Front 246

The act of withdrawing supplies from storage for transfer to the areas where they will be used is called _______.

Back 246

Issue

Front 247

Name the System:
This inventory replenishment system uses identical carts filled with supplies. One cart is dispensed to the user unit and the second cart is kept in standby. Then, at a specified time, the second (full) cart is taken to the user unit to replace the used one. The used cart is taken to the storage area, restocked, and held until the next scheduled replacement time.

Back 247

Exchange Cart

Front 248

Name the System:
This inventory system is usually used to manage instruments and supplies for individual surgical procedures. A cart filled with instruments and supplies is assembled for each specific procedure and delivered to the user unit, usually the operating room.

Back 248

Case Cart

Front 249

Name the System:
In this system needed items are requested by the user unit, the order is received and filled from a central storage location. The requested items are then delivered to the requesting (user) unit.

Back 249

Requisition System

Front 250

Name the System:
In this system a predetermined quantity of supplies is stored on the user unit. Central Service/Material Management staff inventory the supply stock on the user unit and replenish used supplies to ensure that stock levels are returned to the predetermined quantities.

Back 250

Par–Level

Front 251

Name the System:
This system is a computerized system that allows clinical staff to obtain patient items from a storage unit on the user unit. When the item is removed the clinical staff keys in a code or uses a scan to account for the items they are removing. That data is complied by the computer and at an established time, an order is generated to restock the storage unit.

Back 251

Automated Supply Replenishment System

Front 252

The ICU places a requisition for 100 items, only 88 of the items can be filled. The inventory service level is _____ and the stock out rate is ______.

Back 252

88% Inventory Service Level and 12% Stock Out Rate

Front 253

Department that check patient care equipment for safety and function

Back 253

Biomedical Engineering

Front 254

Allows the patient to self–administer pain medication

Back 254

Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) Pump

Front 255

Applies a brief electroshock to restore the rhythm of the heart

Back 255

Defibrillator

Front 256

Artificially stimulates the venous plantar plexus to increase circulation in bed–ridden patients.

Back 256

Foot Pump

Front 257

Gives control of a hospital's equipment management system to an external entity

Back 257

Outsourcing

Front 258

This is done to return inoperative equipment to proper operating condition

Back 258

Repair

Front 259

True or False:
Manufacturers sometimes loan equipment to facilities at no cost if the facility agrees to purchase disposable equipment components from the manufacturer

Back 259

True

Front 260

True or False:
A gastric suction unit is used to suction liquids from oral and nasal cavities

Back 260

False

Front 261

True or False:
Both biomedical technicians and central service technicians are qualified to repair patient care equipment

Back 261

False

Front 262

True or False:
Used equipment that is not visibly coiled may be returned to the clean equipment storage area without undergoing a decontamination process

Back 262

False

Front 263

List six reasons why it is important for the Central Service Department to track items

Back 263

1. Insure items can be quickly located
2. Determine when consumable supplies should be replaced
3. Measure item usage
4. Maintain accurate records of processes such as sterilization, distribution, etc.
5. Assist with quality processes
6. Obtain information for financial analysis

Front 264

The system that uses small, bandage–sized transponders that provide real–time data about the location of a specific piece of equipment is called a

Back 264

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)

Front 265

Hand–written tags, wall–mounted bulletin boards, and log books are examples of _______ tracking systems.

Back 265

Manual

Front 266

Nurses, physicians, and other professionals working in the healthcare facility are ______ customers of Central Services

Back 266

Internal

Front 267

An activity designed to identify and resolve work task–related problems is called ________.

Back 267

Process Improvement

Front 268

When something deviates from the expected standard it is said to have a _______.

Back 268

Defect

Front 269

Biological indicators, chemical indicators and integrators, as well as pressure gauges, graphs, and charts are all examples of ___________.

Back 269

Technical Quality Control Indicators

Front 270

A process that looks backwards at an event to help prevent it from reoccurring is called a ______.

Back 270

Root Cause Analysis (RCA)

Front 271

The quality process that uses the DMADV/DMAIC processes to improve processes is called ___________.

Back 271

Six Sigma

Front 272

________ is an international standard used by participating organizations to help assure that they consistently deliver quality services and products

Back 272

ISO 9000

Front 273

The act of granting authority to employees to make decisions within their area of responsibility is called ____________.

Back 273

Empowerment

Front 274

__________ is a technical, statistical sampling method that measures the quality of production.

Back 274

Quality Control

Front 275

An unexpected occurrence involving death, serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk there of is called a __________.

Back 275

Sentinal Event

Front 276

True or False - Gas cylinders should be stored and transported in the upright position.

Back 276

True

Front 277

True or False -If you are exposed to body fluids or chemicals, notify your supervisor before you go home at the end of your shift

Back 277

False

Front 278

True or False -Sterile preparation an sterilization areas pose no risk of injury to Central Service Technicians

Back 278

False

Front 279

True or False -OSHA has established the PEL for ethylene oxide as 1PPM over an 8-hour TWA

Back 279

True

Front 280

True or False -You would find physical data relating to a chemical on its' MSDS sheet

Back 280

True

Front 281

True or False -Loss of the central service department's water supply would be an example of an internal disaster

Back 281

True

Front 282

True or False - Sterilization load recalls should only be made if patients develop Infections

Back 282

False

Front 283

True or False - If an injury seems insignificant, there is no need to report it

Back 283

False

Front 284

True or False - Once Central Service Technicians have been made aware of the hazards they face in the work area, they are responsible for working safely and following safety guidelines

Back 284

True

Front 285

True or False - When possible, ethylene oxide sterilizers should be located in a separate area from work areas

Back 285

True